CSP continued Flashcards

1
Q

lithium metal is _reactive and should not be mixed

A

water

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2
Q

infrared radiation has wavelengths from _ to _

A

700 nm to 1mm

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3
Q

near infrared region is -to- and pass through the?…..

A

700-1400nm lens of eye to retina

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4
Q

eye disorder where loss of vission in a portion of the visual field resulting from damage to the retina where radiatio was absorbed

A

scotoma

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5
Q

ansi standard for laser and international laser standard

A

ansi z136.1 and IEC=international electro techincal commision

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6
Q

the accumulation of heat at the sensitive element so that a fixed-temperature device will reach its operating temperature sometime after the surrounding air temperature exceeds that temperature.

A

thermal lag

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7
Q

class IA flash and boiling point

A

below 100 and below 73

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8
Q

class 1b flash and boiling point

A

at or above 100 and below 73

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9
Q

most important property of an oxidizer

A

heat capacity

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10
Q

diameter for combustible dust explosion according to osha

A

420 microns

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11
Q

factors that affect a combustible dust explosion

A

moisture content, ambient humidty, oxygen availble shape of dust particles and concentrarion in the air.

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12
Q

MIE and MEC in combustible dust stand for

A

minimum ignition energy and minium explosbile concentration

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13
Q

KSt=

A

dust deflagration index measures relative explosive severity

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14
Q

dispersion of dust particulates, combustible dust, oxygen in the air, confinement of dust cloud and _ what are needed for dust explosion

A

ignition

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15
Q

Top 6 oxidizing agents listed in decreasing order of strength

A

fluorine, chlorine, ozone, sulfuric acid, hydrogen peroxide and oxygen. FCOSHO

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16
Q

density formular for sprinkler system

A

Qpm/area (area =protection area)

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17
Q

weight density of water is_ . EX: what level in large fresh water storag tank is 40 ft from the outlet, what is the pressiure in psi

A

62lbsft^3 weight density of water. convert to ft divide by 144^2 inc in a foot=.433 psi per foot. then u do 40*.433=17.32

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18
Q

EPA program for threshold quantities of extremely hazardous substances pg 132

A

risk mgmt program

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19
Q

major differences between risk mgmt program by epa and PSM by OSHA

A

PSM not required to be reported online of program. RMP by epa required to be reported AND EPA offsite consequence analysis=worst case scenario

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20
Q

EPA treats flammable liquids different in that specific liquids must be listed by _to be an extremely hazardous substance

A

CAS number. osha lumped them all together FP<100 and threshold at 10,000 lbs

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21
Q

IH: if tlv mix for two or more hazardous chemicals is above a 1 what means

A

overexposure exists

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22
Q

a significant shift in hearing loss that may cause health concerns is an average shift of _ or greater at 2000, 3000 and 4000 Hz in either ear

A

10dba

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23
Q

Derate NRRs as follows for earmuffs, formable earplugs and all other plugs

A

24%, 50%, 75%

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24
Q

unit of measurement used to determine the effectivenss of hearinf protection devices to decrease sound exposure within a given work enviovment

A

noise reduction rating

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25
Q

for c weighted measurements, protected dba=

A

unprotected dbc-NRR.

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26
Q

for a weighted measurements, protected dba=

A

unprotected dba- (NRR-7)/2. add 5 if there are two hearing devices. take the higher protection of the 2.

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27
Q

lifting index formula

A

Li-L/RWL

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28
Q

disorder that affect the muscle nerves blood vessels ligaments and tendons are called

A

MSDS. Note* cumulative trauma disorders are MSDS

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29
Q

what is an interference agent with carbon monoxide

A

hydrogen sulifde

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30
Q

you can also call radiation_

A

electromagnetic waves

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31
Q

radiation dose affects

A

10=nothing, 100=vomitting, 400 death without medical intervention, 1000-2000=gastrienstinal syndrome, less than 2k=central nervous system

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32
Q

physiological response to cold stress includes two mechanisms

A

conserve body heat by reducing blood circulation, boost bodys metabolism by shivering.

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33
Q

what increases the the risk of severe hypthermia

A

fatigue

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34
Q

examples of hepatotxins

A

carob techacloride, chloroform, tannic accide, tichloreheylne.

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35
Q

examples of chemicals that cause cirrhosis

A

carbon tetchachloride, alcohole, aflotoxion

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36
Q

checmials that affect the white blood cells which help the body defend against infection

A

napthaltene, tetraclorethane

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37
Q

difficulty moving fingers, snapping and jerking movements MSDS disorders/ from repdeatedly using index finger???? and what industries?

A

trigger finger, meathpackers, poultryu workers, electronic assemblers

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38
Q

pain stiffness in shoulders from working with hands above head MSDS disorder.

A

rotator cuff tendinitis

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39
Q

tingling numbness in wrists and fingers, loss of strength, loss of sensation in thumbs index finger or middle fingers

A

carap tunnel sydndrome, VDT operators, upholsters, assemblers, garment workers

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40
Q

envirometnal mgmt: compound of hydrogen or a metal ion sometimes pose a disposable problem. one of them most important can decompose explosively when subjected to shock or heat

A

azide, most important is lead azide.

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41
Q

sodium azide is a powerful what: EMS section

A

mutagen

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42
Q

EVABAT means in EMS section and is an acronym for the use of technology to control enviobmental impacts wihtout causing an organziation finanical hardship

A

the economic viable application of best available technology

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43
Q

in practice environmental policies reflect what general guidelines

A

EVABAT

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44
Q

EMS section: airbone relase of hazardous materials ins surrounding atmosphere. two types plume and

A

puff and plume

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45
Q

reason for hazardous materials release in underground storage tanks?

A

pipe failure

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46
Q

pollution prevention is mostly drive by what

A

business interests

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47
Q

the continuing production of abandoned materials that are collected and managed for the purpose of disposal or recycling

A

waste stream

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48
Q

EPA considers _ as a useufu indicator of other pathogens for drinking water. its a group of related bacteria that are not harfum to humans. used to determine adequecy of water treatment and the integrity of the distribution system . are an indicator of the diseas potential for water stream

A

total coliform

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49
Q

a by product of decomposing waste can be collected and used as fuel to generate electricitty

A

methane

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50
Q

energy recover from waste is the conversion of nonrecyble waste materials into useable heat and electricity this can be called

A

waste to energy

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51
Q

hierachy of hazardous waste mgmt includes; source reduction, _, energy recover, _ and disposal

A

recycling and treatment

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52
Q

most important astompheric constituent of the greenhouse effect is_

A

water vapor.

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53
Q

water vapor, clouds and _create 90% of the total greenhouse gas affect. trace amounts of , and _ makes up remaining 10%

A

CO2. methane ozxone nitrous oxide.

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54
Q

4 major phases in a system life cycle include; concept,

A

system development, production/deployment, sustainment/disposal.

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55
Q

agency of UN and coordinates its enviomental activities, assiting in helping other countries implement policies and practice

A

UNEP united nations envionment programme

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56
Q

internationla assoication of professioanls invovled with the impact assessment including both social impact assessment and envionmenetal impact assessment

A

IAI internationl association for impact assessment

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57
Q

trade assocation representing airlines shipping dangerous goods by air

A

IATA international air transport assocation

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58
Q

EPA is responsible for regulating hazardous waste under a federal statue known as….act requires all waste shipped off site to be tracked from cradle to grave using a manifest

A

Resource conservation and recovery act RCRA

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59
Q

locate, assess and clean potential hazardous waste sites and emergnecy spills.

A

CERCLA

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60
Q

establish water quality standards, protects waters in us from direct indirect hazardous source pollution discharge

A

CWA

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61
Q

protects and enhance air quality. this regulation establishd national emissions standards for air pollutants

A

CAA

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62
Q

screens new chemiclas, tests new chemiclas identified as potenital hazard, regulates toxic disposal

A

TSCA

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63
Q

_is based on naturual phenomen in which volatile organic compounds are absorbd from an air stream in the micoscopi pores of activated carbon and released when heated for recovery. __is the most versatile of all absorbents

A

carbon absorption, activated carbon. can capture up to 60% gases and vapors. if carbon is heated, captured material can be recovered.

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64
Q

a workers rights is limited to the benefits provided by the WC law. Employee may not sue in tort. its a legal doctrine that an employer who is normally immune from tort actions by employees because of wc laws maybe be held liable for additional damages as a party who has committed a negligent act beyond role as an employer

A

exclusive remedy

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65
Q

one sustained by law rather than implied. either added to general damages arising from an act injurious in itself, such as when some loss arises from the uttering slanderous words, actionable in themselves or are such as arise from an act not actionable in itself but injurious only in its consequences.

A

special damages

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66
Q

to constitute special damage, the legal and natural consequences must arise from the _ not the mere wrongful act of a third person or a remote consequence

A

tort

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67
Q

the exercise of reasonable care in the handling and preservation of a product in their possession so that it will not later cause injury to a user

A

responsibility for handling

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68
Q

person may be held liable for actions that result in injury or damage only when he was able to foresee dangers and risks that could be reasonably anticipated

A

foreseeability

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69
Q

a wrongful act or failure to exercise due care for which civil legal action can result

A

tort

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70
Q

product of a product is liable for injuries due to defects, without necessity for plantiff to show negligene or fault is

A

strict liability

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71
Q

direct relationship between the injured party and the party whos negligence caused an accident. this was borken in early 1900

A

privity

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72
Q

manufacturer would not have to label a large blade hunting knife because the product involves

A

obvious peril

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73
Q

involved in accidents where the damage producing agent was under sole control of the defendant and accident would not have happened if the defendant did not exercise proper control

A

res ipsa loquitur

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74
Q

implication by the dealer that the product will service for a specific purpose

A

implied warranty

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75
Q

place it on sale for that purpose, advertising it for that purpose, indicating in books or manuals that it will operate in a manner that could be reasonably interpreted as being suitable for that purpose

A

implied warranty implications

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76
Q

legal contract must have 4 parts

A

agreement, consideration, purpose, competent parties

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77
Q

_ and _ test a product quality

A

implied warranty and strict liability

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78
Q

_ and _ which tests product performance against the manufacturers representations. c

A

express warranty of breach of warranty or misreperneation

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79
Q

singe most important part of a successful product recall is

A

detail written plan

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80
Q

safety consultants professional liability covers

A

errors omissions, libel/slander, negligence, oral and written publication of information that causes damages upon copyrighted materials

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81
Q

safety consultants GL covers

A

bodily injury, property damage fire damage and warning or design.

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82
Q

applies to workers who is completely unable to work for a time because of a job related injury eventually the person recovers fully and returns to full job duties most disability cases are this

A

temporary permanent disability

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83
Q

applies to injured workers who are unable to perform their regular job duties during the recovery period but are able to work at a job requiring lesser capabilities. After recovery they return to work with full capacity

A

temporary partial disability

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84
Q

someone who endures permanent reduction in worker capability, i.e. loss of body member eye, arm but is still able to retain gainful employment

A

permanent partial disability

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85
Q

work injured on a job and no longer can work even after medical and rehabilitative treatment

A

permanent total disability

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86
Q

sequential list of all the steps necessary to perform a specific job skill. this step will also help determine if training is required or not. used later in the training process to develop training objectives and to develop[ ways to test performance

A

task analysis

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87
Q

some words to avoid when writing learning objectives

A

know, understand, appreciate, learn, cover, study. because its impossible to determine if student has accmpplished this

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88
Q

a study that is a systematic analysis of an organization or detailed job/task, to determine how training can help the organization to improve its safety, success, or efficiency or if the specific task can be improved

A

needs analysis to determine if training is the answers

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89
Q

primary aid in developing course training goals

A

job task analysis

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90
Q

_ are completed before you develop a lesson plan

A

learning objectives

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91
Q

_ is not suited for problem solving or technical training

A

role playing

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92
Q

in training, one of the most valuable group techniques is the

A

conference method

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93
Q

the conference method success is hugely influenced by

A

the capabilities of the facilitator or instructor

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94
Q

the number of members in conference method should be

A

kept small

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95
Q

learning styles include;

A

sight, touch and hearing

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96
Q

last 4 most effective learning attention styles

A

familiazation, demonstration, simulations, actual experience

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97
Q

oshas training guidelines consist of the following 7

A

determer if training is needed, identify training needs, identy goals/objectives, develop learning activities, conduct training, evaluate training, improve the program

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98
Q

members perceive falsely that everyone agrees with the groups decision; silence is seen as consent

A

illusion of unanimity

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99
Q

some members appoint themselves to the role of protecting the group from adverse information that might threaten the group complacency

A

mindguards

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100
Q

members withhold their dissenting views and counterarguments

A

self censorship

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101
Q

members ignore obvious danger, take extreme risk and are oerly optimistic

A

illusion of invulnerablity

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102
Q

members discredit and explain away warning contrary to group thinking

A

collective rationalization

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103
Q

adults want satisfactory answers to the following questions to accept and apply learning

A

why is it important, how can i apply it, how does it work and what do i need to know

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104
Q

most practical method of training delivery is using a m

A

manuscript

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105
Q

for program reliability, it is most important for a trainer to

A

use a well prepared lesson plan

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106
Q

primary benefit of safety training is

A

improved safety performance

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107
Q

NFPA diamonds have four colors red, blue, white, yellow what do they mean

A

red-flammability, blue=health hazard, white, special precuation, yellow-reactivity

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108
Q

chemical induced hearing loss and examples of this include?

A

ototxic chemicals. oragnic solvents, heavy metals, asphyxiants.

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109
Q

ears have comeback power to very breif exposure to loud noises and typically recover within _ hrs or so and this is called? this is most prominent at?

A

14hrs. temporary threshold shift. 4000 hz

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110
Q

prolonged noise exposure to intense noise gradually damages the _ of the inner ear, resulting in a ?

A

cochelera hair cells, prominent threshold shift

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111
Q

average measured hearing range of an unimpaired person is?

A

20-2000 hz

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112
Q

below 20hz is? and above 20,000?

A

sub audible and ultrasonic

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113
Q

human speech ranges from

A

300 to 4000 hz

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114
Q

noise induced hearing loss occurs at a pitch about

A

2000-4000hz

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115
Q

outer ear consists of

A

pinna, external auditor canal, ear drum

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116
Q

middler ear consist of

A

hammer, anvil and eustachian tube

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117
Q

inner ear consist of

A

semicirular canals,cochlea, organ of corti and cochlear nerve

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118
Q

oshas current def of a shift to worry about a signigiant or standard threshold shift is an average shift of

A

10dba or greater at 2000, 3000, 4000 haz in either ear

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119
Q

noise dose: for each increase or 3dba niosh or 5dba osha in noise levels, duration exposure should be

A

cut in half (exhange rates)

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120
Q

in the lungs, oxygen is absored into the blood steam by passing through the membrane of the _ in the lungs

A

alveoli

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121
Q

thin fluid space between the two pulmonary pleura (visveral and pariteal) of each lung. outer pleura is attached to? and inner covers the lungs, adjourning stuctures, including blood vessles, bronchi and?

A

pleural cavity, chest wall, nerves

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122
Q

passageways by which air passes through the nose or mouth to the alevoli air sacs of the lings in which branches no loonger contain

A

bronchioles

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123
Q

the _, colloquially called the _is a cartilagainous tube that connects the pharynx and larynx to the lings allowing the passage of air

A

trachea, windpipe

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124
Q

what passes through the the carap tunnel

A

median nerve flexor tendons

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125
Q

when light enters the eye, it passes through the_ which main purpose is to refract or bend, light.

A

cornea,

126
Q

the lens, focuses light rays onto the light sensitive reitna, where it is changed into a signal that is transmitted to the brain by

A

optic nerve

127
Q

what determines how much light is let into the eye

A

pupil

128
Q

secretes bile stores fat and sugar as reserce energy sources, converts harmful substancet to less toxi forms, regulars amount of blood in body

A

liver

129
Q

remove waste product from the blood and produces urine

A

kidney

130
Q

first and shortest segment of the small intensinte receives partially digested food from the stomach and plays a vital role on the chemical digestion of chyme in

A

duodenum

131
Q

thing outer layer and produces melanin

A

epidermis

132
Q

thick underlying layer that stores much of body’s supply of water, regulates temp, contains glands, nerves and blood vessels for skin

A

dermis

133
Q

fatty layer for insulation and shock absorption

A

hypodermis

134
Q

process of collecting organic materials on a surface of an activated carbon filer. inovlve an action that takes place at the surface of the absobent material where gas and solid make contact.

A

adsorption. most common is activate carbon

135
Q

key characteristic of a organic chemical

A

containts carbon. sugar, methand, dna, proteins, nucleic acids, assoicated with living organisms

136
Q

ph of 7 means, anything less means, and anything more means

A

netural, acidic, basic

137
Q

scaffold planks required to hold how much and ropes must be capable of holding ?

A

planks 4 times and ropes 6 times the expected load

138
Q

safety sampling measures the effectivess of the __ safety activities but not in terms of accidents. based on quality control princples of random sampling inspections. measures how safely employees are working

A

safety sampling

139
Q

set of procedures used for collecting firsthand observations of human behavior that have critical signfigance and meet methodicall defined criteria. respondets are asked to tell a story about an experience they had

A

critical incident technique

140
Q

most important aspect of critical incident technique

A

evaluation to see if solution selected will solve the problem

141
Q

one that makes a sigfnigant contribution either positively or negatively to an activity or pehnomenon and to understand the relationship between competencies and reasons for accidents

A

critical incident

142
Q

in ansi z10 there are two critical components: top mgmt leadership and

A

employee participation

143
Q

one who studies harmful, or toxic, properties of substances and determine does thresholds

A

industrial toxicolgist

144
Q

one devoted in the art, science of anticipation, reconginiton evaluation, and control of those envionmetnal factors in the workplace that may cause sickness impaired health and well being

A

industrial hygientist

145
Q

studies the field of science cocenred with radiation physcis and radiation biology with the goal of providing technical information and proper tecnigues regaring safe use of ionziing radiation.

A

health physicist

146
Q

physicans who diagnose and characterize disease in living patients by examining biposies or bodily fluid

A

patholigists

147
Q

iso 19001 is standard for

A

quality mgmt systems auditing and environmental mgmt systems auditing

148
Q

for chemical and petroleum industries, causal factors for major events have often been relatedd to these four mgmt processes

A

maintenance of integrtiy, action item follow up, mgmt of change, process safety training,

149
Q

within oshas 18001 a compilatin of documents that form the basis for the mgm system is normall called

A

master list

150
Q

a determiniation of the extent to which program operations have contributed to acheving an objective related to accident or innjury reducion

A

effectivenss evaluation

151
Q

the order of jsa analysis should be

A

frequency of incidents, rate of disabling injuries, severity of potential and new jobs

152
Q

Ansi z10 blue print

A

mgmt leadership, employee participation, planning, implemenation/operation, evaluation, corrective action, mgmt review

153
Q

when ansi standards are developed or revised what bust be identified

A

an explanation for the need of the project, identification of the stakeholders likely to be directedly impacted by the standard

154
Q

NSC says some effective elements of a good safety culture are

A

CEO express support, mgmt consistently supports safe work conditions, front line superisors need to correct behaviors, workers want to work safely, union makes safety a role

155
Q

wokr bust be performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions is called

A

project scope

156
Q

first step in improving behavior in an organization is to establish an _ program

A

ethics

157
Q

status, job security, salary, fringe benefits, work conditons. that do not give positive satisfaction though dissatisfaction results from absence.

A

hygiene factors. motivtors are challenging work, responisbility, reconginiton, etc.

158
Q

primary style that reacts to outside influences.

A

contingency mgmt style

159
Q

iso 45001=, iso 31001=, iso9001=, iso 14001=, iso 19011=

A

health and safety mgmt system, risk mgmt system, quality mgmt system, environmental mgmt system, auditing mgmt system

160
Q

most of the behavior based safety experts define continuous improvement as consisting of following

A

specifying standards, measuring compliance and providing feedback on improvements

161
Q

organizes and defines the total scope of the project. a deliverable oriented hierarchical decomposition of work to be executed by the project team to accomplish project objectives and create the required deliverables is

A

work break down structure

162
Q

give power to the safety pro to shut down construction site

A

line authority or functional authority

163
Q

at the bottom of maslows hierarchy of needs are the___

A

physiological biological food water shelter warmth sex sleep after that is protection safety needs

164
Q

first three needs in the maslow model are called___

A

lower order needs concerns for persona physical and and social well being

165
Q

top two in Maslow’s pyramid are

A

higher order needs like psychological development and growth. transcendences and self actualization

166
Q

incident rate

A

of incidents *200,000/total hours worked

167
Q

pareto diagrams evaluate categories that represent greatest??—–it identifies the vital few.

A

frequency of cases or incidents. category that accounted for the greatest % of cases is put to the left of the diagram

168
Q

_ is one of the ways of risk reduction

A

loss prevention

169
Q

loss prevention can be classified into four basic categories

A

preconditions for loss (faults in premises, badly insulated wire), prevention of loss(cut of switches, early discovery (sprinkler system), limitation of loss (fir doors)

170
Q

involves reasoning from general to specific

A

deductive reasoning (fault tree analysis)

171
Q

the probability that a substance or situation will cause harm under a specified conditions

A

risk

172
Q

risk a combination of two factors

A

probability and consequence

173
Q

semi quantitative method of risk assessment characterized by the blended us of qualitative process hazard analysis and quantitative risk analysis method is ___“order of magnitude estimate of risk”.

A

layer of protection analysis -process industry

174
Q

would be a good choice of risk assessment where higher degree of risk quantification is required due to the potential severity of consequences but no need for a full quantitative assessment.

A

layer of protection analyis

175
Q

layer of protection analysis provide clear linkage between

A

causes, controls, outcomes

176
Q

key aspect of the LOPA layer of protection analysis is it involves identifying the ___refered to as the layers of protection

A

preventative controls and the mitigating controls.

177
Q

instrument standards that lopa has proven safety integrity for

A

isa s84 and iec 61511

178
Q

failure mode and effect analysis is a top or bottom approach

A

bottom up system safety technique

179
Q

first step of a system reliability test

A

failure mode and effect analyis

180
Q

involves reviewing as many components, assemblies, and subsystems as possible to identify failure modes and their causes/effect

A

failure mode and effect anaylsis

181
Q

failure mode and effect can be sometime extended to____when mathematical failur rate models are combined with a statistical failure mode ratio

A

FEMCA (failure mode, effects, criticality analyis)

182
Q

FMEA is and _reasoning (forward logic) single point of failure analysis and is a core task in realiblity engineering , safety engineering and quality engineering .

A

inductive reasoning (involves reasoning from specific to general)

183
Q

FMEA is is widely used in what industry

A

development and manufacturing industries in various phases of product life cycle

184
Q

refers to studying those consequences of those failures on differen system levels

A

effect analysis

185
Q

are needed as an input to determine correct failure modes at all system levels both for functional FMEA or piece part hardware

A

functional analysis

186
Q

abc anaylsis has three fundamental steps

A

anaylze at risk behavior, anaylze the safe behavior, draft the action plan

187
Q

which tests product perforamnce against the manufactuere sellers representations.

A

express warranty or breach of warranty

188
Q

express warranty can be refered as

A

breach of warranty

189
Q

indicates the variability of the data about the mean

A

standard deviation

190
Q

____ is the measure of the variation around the mean and is computed by dividing the standard deviation by the mean

A

coefficient of variation

191
Q

conerngin corellation, a result near _indicates that the values have a strong linear relationship. a result of _indicates values are only slightly related. a value of _indicates tha there related but in negative way. in safety work correlation of less than + or _is discounted

A

1, 0, -1. -.06

192
Q

different than cost benefit, deals with hard numbers,anayyzes several methods of accomplishing a given project

A

cost effectiveness analysis

193
Q

when hypothesis is rejected but it is in fact correct….what type of error

A

type I, type II is when it was accepted but should have been rejected

194
Q

preferred angle for fixed ladders is, preferred angle for fixed industrial stairs and angle for ramps

A

75-90, 30-35, 15 degrees

195
Q

_are probailities that can be specificed by the obvious and evident nature of the events from which they emerge. example chance of getting a 7 on a dice roll. _porbabliity is developed by conducting an expirment and observing the outcome

A

priori and posteriori

196
Q

acetytle reacts with the following metals

A

copper, silver, mercury

197
Q

ames test measures

A

mutagincity

198
Q

rickettsia+ organism that infects meat and livestock handlers.

A

q-fever

199
Q

similar to tick fever, contracted by those exposed to larger concentrations of cotton or flax dust

A

byssinosis

200
Q

nonspecific disturbance of the central nervous system

A

nuropathy

201
Q

condition where light causes pain in the eye

A

photophobia

202
Q

disease associated in the wool industry

A

anthrax

203
Q

infection caused by drinking unpasterized milk from cows with bangs diseas

A

brucellosis

204
Q

movement and magnification of metals in the food chain

A

bioaccumulation

205
Q

perchloric acide is a very strong oxidizing agent that can cause fire and explosion hazards…..best way to evaporate it

A

under a hood with a water fall cause fire and explosion hazards are negated.

206
Q

the term consideration in a legal contract is best defined as

A

a value, legal tender. (money)

207
Q

method to measure leading and lagging indicators to achieve management goals. its a reporting system for safety performance. data advising mgmt on whether performance goals with respect to safety mgmt process are being met

A

the balanced scorecard

208
Q

dot requies to drug test what % of drivers annually. what about alcohol? what does the FAA or FTA OR PHMSA say

A

50%. alcohol is 10%. 25%

209
Q

according to dot drivers should not use alcohol how many hours before going on duty or being drunk. or drink on duty. if they are found to be under influence how long are they out of service for

A

4 hours. drivers cannot buy alcohol at a store and trasnported unless it is part of shipment/manifest. 24 hours and report to employer within 24hrs and state 30 days

210
Q

Class I, II, III, IIII asbesots work?

A

class I: removal of TSI, surfacing ACM, PACM, class 2, is removal of ACM, which is not thermal system insulation or surfacing material including (wall board, floor til, sheeting, roofing,siding), class 3=maintenance repair where acm is likely to be disturbed, class 4=maintenance custodial employees do not disturb asbestos

211
Q

technique where the analyst identifies each and every component, investigates the ways each component could possibly fail then lists all possible results results are usually put on a form similar to account form

A

failure mode and effects analysis

212
Q

flammable liquid storage room requirements

A

one clear aisle 3ft wide, self closing doors, raised 4 inch sill, gravity or mechanical exhaust system

213
Q

nfpa specifics that underground stroage tanks should be placed not less than _ foot from building foundations. however the distance for property lines you may build is _ the one foot rule only applies to what type of liquids

A

1ft…..3ft…..class 1

214
Q

dike walls must be greater than_ for regulatory requirements

A

83 meters or 3.28 ft=1 meter

215
Q

when calculate with two hearing devices i.e. ear muffs and ear plugs

A

calculate for most effective and then add 5 to the equation of nrr-7/2

216
Q

slope for class a, b and c soil

A

a=3/4:1, 53 degrees, type b 1:1 45 degrees and type c -=1 1/2:1 34 degrees. stable rock vertical 90 degrees

217
Q

basic components of a safety plan

A

list of actions, implementation schedule, cost

218
Q

basic principle of estimating uninsured costs

A

lost time cases, doctors cases, first aid cases, no injury accidents

219
Q

octave band analyzers measure what range

A

500-2000 hz they break the noise into smaller frequency

220
Q

who developed RELS, PELS,

A

NIOSH and OSHSA

221
Q

most tlvs and pel,s are defined has _hr time weighted averages. many rels are based on _hrs..STELS are how long?

A

8hr, 10hrs 15 min.

222
Q

voluntarily guidelines published by the AIHA

A

WEELS work place exposure evaluation levels

223
Q

if noise levels are too variable to follow with a sound level meter a __can be used. can average the change of noises levels over a period of time to produce a time average noise level.

A

integrating meter

224
Q

cohesive soil with an unconfined compressive strength of 1.5 ton per sqft tsf or greater. clay, silty clay, clay loam and

A

type a

225
Q

cohesive soil with an unconfined compressive strength greater than .5 tsf but less than 1.5 tsf. similar to crusehd rock.

A

type be soil

226
Q

cohesive soil with an unconfined compressive strength of .5 tsf or less granular soils including gravel, sand, soil in which water is seeping.

A

type c soil

227
Q

used to clean up spills of hiv infected blood

A

commercial grade germicide

228
Q

energy expenditure for light work, medium work, heavy work, very heavy, extremely heavy

A

2.5, 5, 7.5, 10, 15 per min.

229
Q

what radiation cannot be detected by film badges or pocket dosimetors

A

alpha radiion

230
Q

theory x and theory y manager

A

theory x motivation external reward and punishment. theory y =are interested and motivated to work and don’t need rewards.

231
Q

osha standard 1904.4 …says supplementary records (OSHA form 301) for injuries and illnesses must be available for inspection how many days after the employer receives info that an injury/illness has occured

A

6 days. osha 301 form can be used for this purpose. osha has accetepd wc first report of injury, insurance forms, local company forms

232
Q

dictates that an individual who keeps, maintains transports, or stores a dangerous creature, device or substance is liable for injury or damage, regardless of fault

A

dangerous instrumentality

233
Q

common insurance coverage parts: CGL, OL&T, M&C, OCP, SL, GL

A

comprehensive gl, owners landords/tenants, manfuactueres & contractors, owners and contractor protection, storekeeping liability, garage liability

234
Q

osha 1910.134 (D) states that compresses air or oxygen, liquid air, used for respiration must meet at least the requirements of the specification for grade? breathing air as described in the____

A

Grade D, compresses gas association.

235
Q

major shortcming of the behavioral approach to safety involves the lack of

A

attenting to the design and engineering aspects of haard prevention

236
Q

is designed to provide liability protection to individuals and commerical enterprises whos exposure is largely away from the premises i.e. consulting engineers, remediation specialists, fire fighters.

A

manufacturers and contractors. insurance coverage consist of:

  1. premsises
  2. contractual liability incidental contracts
  3. liability for operations perfomred away from the premise
  4. liability for operations performed by the insured or indpendent contractors involving maintenance and repairs at premises owned or rented the the inusred and sturucturl alterations
237
Q

workers only have the right to cotest the ____ of osha citations

A

abatement date

238
Q

specific detailed analytical method of evaluation of developing a safety program. it can also be used an investigative tool to determine wrong with accidents prevention effort. three main focuses include?

A

MORT (mgmt oversight and risk tree). specific oversights and omissions, assumed risks and mgmt system weaknesses

239
Q

three sources to establish that a chemical is a carciongen

A

national toxicology program annual report on carcinogens, international agency for research on cancer IARC, 29 cfr 1910 subpart Z toxic and hazardous chemicals

240
Q

IARC classification of carcinogens 1, 2a, 2b, 3, 4

A

is carcinogen to humans, probably a cacrigen, possibly, not classifiable, probably not.

241
Q

IARC groups 1 and 2a must be included where

A

on label and on msds group 2b only on MSDS

242
Q

process of lowering the temp of the incoming air to change the vapor to liquid state

A

condensation

243
Q

process used for removal or gas or vapors if it can be oxidized to harmless or odor free state

A

combustion

244
Q

tables are constructed as time saving devices and always show

A

exact answers

245
Q

dry powder is for ?? and dry chemical is for what type of fire extinguishers

A

class d combustible metal fires, a:B:C or B:C fires

246
Q

electric arc welding produces

A

ozone hazardous gas

247
Q

defined as the obstruction or pooling of blood in some part of the body. in the study of human actors and ergonomics tool designs are often developed to avoid this affliction

A

ischemia. blocks blood in ulnar artery

248
Q

enviovnemtnal technique used to rank enivormental issues. system safety technique that selects an undesired event whose possibility or probability is to be determined an then reviews system requirements, functions, and designs to determine how the top event could occur

A

fault tree anaylsis

249
Q

the ames test uses what bacteria

A

salmonella. measure mutagenicity of a chemical. potential for carciongen.

250
Q

per osha coe, firewals seperating fuel and oxygen cylinders must have what rating how long?

A

30 min and 5 ft high

251
Q

lowest point a liquid corresponds rouhgly to the lowest temperature at which vapor pressure of a liquid is sufficent to produce a flammbale mixture a the lower limit of flammability

A

flash point

252
Q

health hazard from chromium or workers expored to chromic acid

A

irritant (reaction to contact) and sensizter. ulcers on the skin and inflmmation and perfroation of nasal septume

253
Q

_is a nonpoisnous and mildly anesthetic gas. its very flammable and forms exposive mixtures with air or oxygen. it reacts extremely violently with chlorine and fluorine

A

acetylene

254
Q

written or oral statement by the manufacturer that a product will perform in a specific manner, a specific way, is suitbale for a specific purpose or contains specific safeguards

A

express warannty

255
Q

highly virulent bacterial infection contracted from animals and animal products

A

anthrax

256
Q

desired air velocity for an activity that produces; heavy work, moderate, light loads

A

3,000-4,000 2,000-3000, light 1000-2000

257
Q

sample strategy for determining if an exposure is above the ceiling concentration

A

15 min personal monitoring TLV C

258
Q

infrarerd radtion passes easily though the cornea and energy is absorbed by the lens and

A

retina

259
Q

is a pnuemoconoisis caused by the exposure to coal dust (black lung), _is a lung disease caused by inhaling iron oxide or other metallic particles. _is when u inhale iron and silica

A

anthracosis, siderosis, silicosiderosis

260
Q

most often used measuring device when taking IH measurements. cheap easy have a fairly long shelf life and easy to read

A

colorimetric tubes

261
Q

examples of strong acids

A

perchloric acid, sulfuric acid, hydrochloric acid, nitric acid

262
Q

PH Scale 0-14. 0 and 14 mean/

A

0=strong acidic and 14 strong base

263
Q

after a commerical car crash how many hours unitl driver has to get tested

A

no later than 32 hours. and even if car gets toed

264
Q

the ghas hazard definitions are criteria based and address 3 main classification criteria

A

health and environmental hazards, physical hazards, mixtures

265
Q

what is the starting point in hazard communication (category)

A

classification. there are 16 sections in SDS

266
Q

what color book is there for ghs implementation

A

purple book,

267
Q

new chemical labels have to display all of the following

A

pictogram, signal word, hazard statement, precautionary statement, product identifier, supplier identification, directions for use

268
Q

indentification and evaluation of relevant data regarding chemical hazards and comarison to ghs critera (GHS)

A

classifciaton

269
Q

the nature of the pyhsical hazard or health hazard (GHS)

A

hazard class

270
Q

division of criteria within each hazard class (GHS)

A

hazard category

271
Q

statement assigned to a hazard class and category that describes the nature and degree of hazard (GHS)

A

hazard statement

272
Q

indicated the relative level of severtiy of hazard (GHS)

A

signal word

273
Q

is the identification, assessment and prioritzation of risks (defined by iso 31000 as the effect of uncertainty on objectives

A

risk management

274
Q

to idenitfy hazardous conditons, assess their risk, and establish effective risk control measures is the primary function of

A

loss control system

275
Q

an employer cited by osha has a period of _ to contest the citation. The notice to contest is sent directly to?

A

15 working days and osha area director

276
Q

an unsafe act or condition iniates the accident sequence is what theory

A

dominoio theory of accident causation

277
Q

two levels of jurisdiction for the oshrc (osha review commission) that consists of_

A

administrative law judge and 3 committee members

278
Q

the committee members of OSHRC can overturn a law judge how

A

2 or members votes

279
Q

replacing guards on saws, install gfci and performing haz com training is considered what

A

loss prevention

280
Q

in insurance, this includes items such as fading, rusting, pollution, settling of foundations, walls, pavements, etc. n

A

natural wear and tear perils

281
Q

the 4 major elements of the us osha VPP programs are

A

mgmt comittmet/employee involvement, work sit analysis, hazard prevention and control and safety and health training

282
Q

single harmonized hazard statement is required for each hazard category within each hazard class. which is the greatest hazard

A
category 1 (extremely flammable), category 2
(highly flammable), category 3 flammable liquid and category 4 combustible liquid
283
Q

presentation of tasks, events, and activities on a network in sequential form with completion time estimates. can use to uncover bottlenecks and possible hazards that may arise from the order of work.calculates estimated time to complete a project.

A

program evaluation review technique

284
Q

cdc category of disease where there is ease of transmission between person to person; result in high mortality rates

A

category 1

285
Q

moderately easy to spread, result in moderate morbidity rates and low mortality rates

A

category 2

286
Q

emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissimination in the future because they are readily available, easy to product

A

category 3

287
Q

useful when an occurrence happens more than once i.e. industrial accident experience over a period of time where a worker may have more than one accident in a year or where the same type of accident may occur over and over

A

poison distribution

288
Q

national electric code hazard classification includes

A

class 1 gas vapors, liquids division 1 normally explose and division 2 not normally explosive, class 2 dusts division 1 ignitable quantities of dust present division 2 dust not normally ignitable, class 3 fibers division 1 easily ignitable division 2 stored or handled in storage

289
Q

different ceiling temp ranges for color code sprinkler head

A

uncolored 100, white 150, blue 225, red 300, green 375, orange 475=ordinary, intermediate, high extra high, very extra high, ultra high

290
Q

osha 1910.217 power presses require how much stopping time from point of operation devices to ensure operator safety

A

63 inches or 5.25 ft per second of stopping time

291
Q

in a combustbile gas meter, if a combustible mixture is present, a catalytic combustion increases the resistance of the wire and causes imbalance. (some meters an electrical circuit consisting of a series of resistors is used) curcuit is called?

A

Wheatstone bridge

292
Q

mgmt theory that encourages decisions at the lowest level possible

A

contemporary mgmt theory

293
Q

mgmt by _is a process developed to conserving the mgmt valuable time and energy by concentrating on problems and opportunities

A

mgmt by exception

294
Q

which is exact and which is an estimation with tables and graphs

A

tables are exact graphs are estimations. graphs are used less frequently, tables are harder to construct, graphs are easier to read

295
Q

process of _involves a scrubber where the material dissolves or reacts chemically with the gas or vapor that is to be removed

A

absorption

296
Q

guess the correct ansi standard: classification of injuries; occupational and educational eye and face protection, address floor and wall openings, railings and toboards, emergency eye wash and shower

A

ansi z16.1, ansi z87, ansi z12, ansi z358

297
Q

according the nsc IH, hydrogen sulfide is an interference agent with _sensors

A

carbon monixed.

298
Q

osha requires posting the citation at or near the location for how many days

A

3 days or until corrected whichever is longer

299
Q

technique to elicit information and judgements from participants to facilitate problem solving, planning and decision making. it does so without physically assembling contributors. there’s confidentility, sent through email and it requires short answers (helps bring out creativity of participants)

A

delphi technique

300
Q

the term caveat emptor (let the buyer beware) has changed to

A

caveat venditor

301
Q

a vertical standard appplies

A

to a single industry

302
Q

foot candles for the following operations; general construction, indoors (warehouses cooridors hallways), tunnels, shafts undergounder work areas,general construction in plant/shpes, electrical rooms, toilets), underground ops including mucking and scaling, drilling, first aid stations/offices/infirmeries

A

5,5,5,10,10,30

303
Q

standard for fire extinguishers. when selecting one, the highest priority is

A

nfpa 10. use of pressurized water and carbon dioxide.

304
Q

single most important factor influence amount of damage caused by electrical contact accident is

A

resistance of the body at the time of contact

305
Q

most common type of welders flash injury from ultraviolet rays and then infared damages what?

A

cornea from ultraviolet…….infrared damages retina.

306
Q

which is most time consuming, event tree, fault tree or failure mode effect

A

event tee, failure mode effect, fault tree

307
Q

requires the selection of iniating events both unwatend and wanted and evalutes the consequences again both wanted and unwated. alternate paths are then developed to consider each consequence of the different paths as independent iniating events

A

event tree analysis.

308
Q

identifies undesirable event and estblishes the fualts that would cause such situation

A

fault tree anaylsis

309
Q

GFCI will not detect

A

line to line faults

310
Q

fire detection control used for large open areas

A

photoelectric smoke detector