Risk Flashcards
1
Q
1. You are working on the Plan Risk Management process to decide how to approach, plan, and execute risk management activities. All of the following are inputs to the Plan Risk Management process EXCEPT: A. Stakeholder register B. Project charter C. Risk register D. Project management plan
A
- C: The risk register is an output of the Identify Risks process.
2
Q
- You are delivering specialized medical equipment, which is worth $600,000. You have
been delivering equipment for a while without much hassle or accidents in the past.
This time you estimate that there is a 5 percent probability that the equipment could be
damaged or lost. While exploring the possibility of transferring this risk to an insurance
company, you found out the insurance premium is $15,000. What will be your BEST
course of action?
A. You do not have much information to make a decision.
B. Do not buy the insurance premium.
C. Develop a contingency plan.
D. Buy the insurance premium.
A
- D: The cost of probable loss or damage is $600,000 times 5 percent, which equals
$30,000. The cost of the insurance premium is $15,000; therefore, you should purchase the insurance premium.
3
Q
3. Which one of the following is contained in the risk management plan and describes a risk category? A. Risk response plan B. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) C. Risk register D. Watch list
A
- B: Risk categories are a group of potential causes for risk and can be grouped into categories, such as technical, political, external, project, and environmental. In order to systematically identify risks to a consistent level of detail, we can use the form of a simple list of categories or a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS). It’s a comprehensive way of ordering risks according to their source.
4
Q
- You are working on a very critical and strategic project to develop a robust dynamic
website, which will be available to approximately five million users your company
has around the globe. You decided to survey the experts within your organization
on any foreseeable risks with the design, structure, and intent of the website with an
anonymous, simple form. You later sent out subsequent anonymous surveys to a group of experts with the collected information. This is an example of:
A. A Delphi technique
B. Identify Risks process
C. Nominal group technique
D. SWOT analysis
A
- A: The Delphi technique is mainly focused on preventing group thinking and finding out the true opinions of the participants. This is done by sending a request for information to experts who are participating anonymously, compiling their responses, and sending the results back to them for further review until a consensus is reached.
5
Q
- You are the project manager of a data center project. You have just completed an
analysis of project risks and have prioritized them using a probability and impact matrix.
The approach you used to prioritize the risks is:
A. Qualitative analysis
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Earned value analysis
A
- A: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact to the project if they occur. This fast, relatively easy to perform, and cost effective process ensures that the right emphasis is on the right risk areas as per their ranking and priority and helps to allocate adequate time and resources for them. This process utilizes the experience of subject matter experts, functional managers, best practices, and previous project records. Even though numbers are used for the rating in Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, it is a subjective evaluation and should be performed throughout the project.
6
Q
6. Which one of the following is a comprehensive way of ordering risks according to their source? A. Product description B. Risk categories C. Assumptions D. Constraints
A
- B: Risk categories are a group of potential causes for risk that can be grouped into
categories, such as technical, political, external, project, and environmental. In order
to systematically identify risks to a consistent level of detail, we can use the form of a
simple list of categories or a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS). Assumptions are information not generally considered to be based on factual data items and should be verified. Constraints are limitations that should be considered when developing project plans. The product description provides details about the complexity of the product to be delivered.
7
Q
- You are overseeing a project to implement an accounting application and are currently
in the Identify Risks process of identifying and documenting the project risks. All of the
following are tools & techniques for the Identify Risks process EXCEPT:
A. Information gathering techniques
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Diagramming techniques
D. Monte Carlo simulation
A
- D: Monte Carlo simulation is associated with the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process and determines the impact of identified risks by running simulations to identify the range of possible outcomes for a number of scenarios.
8
Q
- Your team is performing a quantitative risk analysis using the Monte Carlo simulator. Which one of the following statements is FALSE about this Monte Carlo analysis?
A. It translates the uncertainties specified at a detailed level into their potential impact on project objectives at the level of the whole project.
B. It is a modeling technique that computes project costs one time.
C. It involves determining the impact of the identified risks by running simulations to identify the range of possible outcomes for a number of scenarios.
D. It usually expresses its results as probability distributions of possible costs.
A
- B: Monte Carlo simulation generates information through iterations. Project information at the activity level is chosen at random during the process and produces data that illustrates the likelihood of achieving specific cost or schedule targets.
9
Q
- One of your hardware vendors sends you an e-mail stating that due to severe weather
she may not be able to deliver the networking equipment on time. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. This is a residual risk.
B. This is a risk trigger.
C. This is a risk event.
D. This is a secondary risk.
A
- B: Risk triggers are symptoms or warning signs that a potential risk is about to occur
within the project. For instance, a key team member searching for a better job opportunity is a warning sign that the person may be leaving the team soon, causing schedule delay, increased cost, and other issues. Risk events are actual occurrences of an identified risk event. Residual risks are the remaining risks after the execution of risk response planning and for which contingency and fallback plans can be created. Secondary risks are new risks created by implementing the selected risk response strategies.
10
Q
- You have identified several problems along with their causes in your web-based
application development project. Which one of the following have you probably used to
show the problem and its causes and effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. System flow diagram
C. Process diagram
D. Histogram
A
- A: The Ishikawa diagram, also called a cause and effect flow chart or a fishbone diagram, shows the relationship between the causes and effects of problems.
11
Q
- Your team is performing a risk probability and impact assessment for each risk to
investigate the likelihood and potential effect on the project objectives, such as time,
cost, scope, and quality. What process are you in:
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor Risks
A
- C: Perform qualitative risk analysis is done by looking at the risk likelihood and effect to rank them.
12
Q
- Expected Monetary Value (or simply expected value) is a statistical concept that
calculates the average outcome of a decision. The two dimensions of risk used to
determine this expected value are:
A. Probability and threshold
B. Probability and tolerance
C. Consequence and contingencies
D. Probability and impact
A
- D: Risk ratings are determined by the product of probability and impact or consequences when using qualitative analysis and to determine Expected Monetary Value (EMV) when utilizing a decision tree (quantitative analysis). EMV is the product of the probability and consequences of an event or task.
13
Q
13. While overseeing a complex software project to develop a sophisticated golf simulator for a local golf club, you realize that the team is lacking the required technical expertise and experience. You also do not have the required tools and development environment for this kind of complicated software development. After discussing with the sponsor, you decide to give the design and development work to a vendor who specializes in the specific technical area. This is an example of: A. Passive acceptance B. Active acceptance C. Risk avoidance D. Risk transfer
A
- D: Transferring is shifting the negative impact of a threat, along with the ownership of the response, to a third party to make it their responsibility. It only gives another party responsibility for its management but does not eliminate the risk. It nearly always involves payment to the third party for taking on the risk. Risk mitigation simply means
a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event to an acceptable
threshold. Since it is seldom possible to eliminate all risks and also since the cost or impact of avoid, transfer, and mitigate is too high, acceptance can be the preferred strategy. It indicates that the project team is simply accepting the risk and will continue with the project. Passive acceptance requires no action. The active acceptance strategy aims to establish contingency reserves to handle threats. Avoid indicates that you are eliminating the threat by eliminating the root cause of the threat.
14
Q
- Steve, a project manager, has a robust risk response plan for his ERP implementation project. The team has utilized all of the appropriate tools & techniques and has executed
the predefined preventive and contingency actions to respond to identified project risks. He finds out that some of the risks have been reduced in impact but still remain as potential threats. Steve decides to develop additional contingency and fallback plans for
these risks as soon as possible. These risks are called:
A. Secondary risks
B. Residual risks
C. Primary risks
D. Workarounds
A
- B: Residual risks are the risks that remain after the execution of risk response planning and for which contingency and fallback plans can be created. Their probability and impact have been reduced through mitigation. These risks are included in the outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process and are expected to remain as threats. Primary risks included in the initial risk identification process are generally most obvious. Secondary risks are new risks that are created due to the implementation of selected risk response strategies. Workarounds are unplanned responses developed to deal with the occurrence of unanticipated risk events.
15
Q
15. You are in the Monitor Risks process of identifying, analyzing, and planning for newly arising risks, keeping track of identified risks, reanalyzing existing risks, monitoring trigger conditions, monitoring residual risks, and reviewing the execution and effectiveness of risk responses. Outputs from the Monitor Risks process include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Variance and trend analysis B. Work performance information C. Change requests D. Project management plan updates
A
- A: Variance and trend analysis are tools & techniques used in the Monitor Risks process.