Rifle Marksmanship M16/M4 Series Weapons, FM 3-22.9 w/Chang 1 (Publication date 10 Feb 2011) Flashcards

1
Q

What Publication Covers Rifle Marksmanship M16/M4 Series Weapons?

A

FM 3-22.9 dated 10 Feb 2011

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2
Q

What does FM 3-22.9 Cover?

A

Rifle Marksmanship M16/M4 Series Weapons

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3
Q

What does ACOG Stand for?

A

advanced combat optical gunsight

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4
Q

What does PMI stand for?

A

preliminary marksmanship instruction

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5
Q

Para 1-4

What are the two primary components of a marksmanship training strategy?

A

initial training and sustainment training

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6
Q

Para 1-9

What are the Five Key elements to maintain a good Unit Marksmanship Program?

A
  1. The training of trainers.
  2. Refresher training of nonfiring skills.
  3. The use of the Engagement Skills Trainer (EST) 2000, Laser Marksmanship Training System (LMTS), or other devices.
  4. Sustainment training.
  5. Remedial training.
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7
Q

Para 1-10

What Seven additional skills should Soldiers be trained on for a good unit level Marksmanship Program?

A
  1. Semiautomatic and automatic fires.
  2. Night fire.
  3. Mission-oriented protective posture (MOPP) firing.
  4. Firing using aiming devices.
  5. Moving target training techniques.
  6. Squad designated marksman (SDM) training.
  7. Short-range marksmanship (SRM).
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8
Q

Para 1-12 What are perishable skills?

A

General marksmanship knowledge and weapon proficiency

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9
Q

Para 1-13

How many phases of rifle marksmanship training are there?

A

Five

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10
Q

Para 1-13

What are Five phases of rifle marksmanship training?

A

Phase I—Basic Rifle Marksmanship Preliminary Marksmanship Instruction.
Phase II—Basic Rifle Marksmanship Downrange Feedback Range Firing.
Phase III—Basic Rifle Marksmanship Field Firing.
Phase IV—Advanced Rifle Marksmanship.
Phase V—Advanced Optics, Lasers, and Iron Sights.

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11
Q

Para 1-21

What is Grouping?

A

Grouping is a form of practice firing with two primary objectives: firing tight shot groups and consistently placing those groups in the same location

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12
Q

Para 1-21

What are the two primary objectives of Grouping?

A

firing tight shot groups and consistently placing those groups in the same location

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13
Q

Para 1-21

What will greatly reduce Live Fire Grouping times?

A

Frequent use of the EST 2000 or LMTS

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14
Q

Para 1-22

What is Zeroing?

A

Zeroing aligns the sights of the weapon with the weapon’s barrel

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15
Q

Para 1-25

What does the Acronym ARM stand for?

A

Advanced Rifle Marksmanship

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16
Q

Para 1-28
What three tools should NCO’s and Commanders use to develop a training plan and assess the marksmanship program in a unit?

A
  1. Direct observation of training.
  2. Spot checks.
  3. Review of past training
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17
Q

Para 1-30

What is Direct observation of training?

A

Observing and accurately recording performance reveals the status of weapon maintenance, Soldier zero and qualification results, and each Soldier’s ability to hit targets

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18
Q

Para 1-31

What do Spot Checks provide NCO’s and Commanders?

A

Spot checks of individual marksmanship performance, such as interviews and evaluations of Soldiers, provide commanders and leaders with valuable information about Soldier proficiency and knowledge of the marksmanship tasks

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19
Q

Para 1-32

What should be assessed when Reviewing Past Training?

A
  1. The frequency and results of training.
  2. The basic and advanced record fire results.
  3. The frequency of unit-conducted collective CBRN or night fire training
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20
Q

Para 1-40

What Six attributes must the unit Trainers have to develop a good Unit Marksmanship Program?

A
  1. Knowledge.
  2. Patience.
  3. Understanding.
  4. Consideration.
  5. Respect.
  6. Encouragement
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21
Q

Para 1-51
What three things does the instructor/trainer do to ensure that firers are aware of their firing errors, understand the causes, and apply remedies?

A
  1. Observe the firer.
  2. Question the firer.
  3. Analyze the shot group
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22
Q

Para 1-57

What are the Four Phases that All Trainers must complete before they can be certified in the Train the Trainer Program?

A

Phase I—Program Orientation.
Phase II—Preliminary Marksmanship Training.
Phase III—Basic Marksmanship Training.
Phase IV—Advanced Marksmanship Training

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23
Q

Para 1-57

How many Phases are there for the train-the-trainer program?

A

Four

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24
Q

Para 1-64

What does a refresher training program prevent?

A

prevents Soldiers from becoming frustrated and losing confidence, and conserves ammunition and training time

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25
Q

Para 1-64

Who must attend the refresher training program?

A

All Soldiers

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26
Q

Para 1-64

What can Live and virtual simulators be used to reinforce?

A
  1. PMI
  2. Grouping
  3. Zeroing
  4. Practice record fire
  5. Record fire
  6. CBRN fire
  7. Assisted and Unassisted night fire by simulating the LFXs
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27
Q

Para 1-64

What individual marksmanship tasks do not require live-firing?

A
  1. Operation Checks
  2. Function Checks
  3. Immediate Action
  4. Target Detection
  5. Dry-Fire
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28
Q

Para 1-69

What is The intent of record fire?

A

The intent of record fire is to facilitate the commander’s evaluation of several individual tasks and integrated marksmanship skill performances, and to provide unit readiness indicators

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29
Q

Para 1-70

What remedial training is conducted for firers who need additional training to meet the requirements?

A

remedial training is conducted using the EST 2000 or LMTS

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30
Q

Para 1-70

What does LMTS stand for?

A

Laser Marksmanship Training System

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31
Q

Para 1-70

What does EST 2000 stand for?

A

Engagement Skills Trainer 2000

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32
Q

Para 1-71

What does LFX stand for?

A

Live Fire Exercise

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33
Q

Para 2-1

Describe the M16-/M4-series weapons?

A

All M16-/M4-series weapons are magazine-fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, shoulder-fired 5.56-millimeter weapons

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34
Q

Para 2-1

What is the weight of a M4 with 30 round magazine?

A

7.5 lbs

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35
Q

Para 2-1

What is the weight of a M16A2/A3 with 30 round magazine?

A

8.79 lbs

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36
Q

Para 2-1

What is the maximum range of a M16/M4 series weapons?

A

3,600 meters

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37
Q

Para 2-1

What is the maximum effective range of a M16A2/A3 series weapons?

A

550 Point Targets and 800 for Area Targets

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38
Q

Para 2-1

What is the maximum effective range of a M4 series weapon?

A

500 Point Targets and 600 for Area Targets

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39
Q

Para 2-1

What is the muzzle velocity of a M16A2/A3 series weapons?

A

3,100 fps

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40
Q

Para 2-1

What is the muzzle velocity of a M4 series weapon?

A

2,970 fps

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41
Q

Para 2-2

What are the different versions of the M4 Carbine?

A

M4, the M4A1, and the M4 modular weapon system (MWS)

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42
Q

Para 2-2

When does an M4 Carbine become a M4 MWS?

A

The M4 carbine becomes the M4 MWS when the M4 adapter rail system (ARS) is installed

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43
Q

Para 2-2

What is different between the M4 or M4 MWS and the M4A1?

A

the M4 or M4 MWS fire 3 round burst and the M4A1 is fully automatic

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44
Q

Para 2-3

How do you Mechanically Zero the M4 Series Weapons?

A

(1) Adjust the front sightpost until the base of the front sightpost is flush with the front sightpost housing.
(2) Turn the elevation knob counterclockwise until the rear sight assembly rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the carrying handle.
(3) Position the apertures so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
(4) Turn the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly

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45
Q

Para 2-4

How do you Battlesight Zero the M4 Series Weapons?

A

(1) Turn the elevation knob counterclockwise until the rear sight assembly rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the detachable carrying handle
(2) Position the apertures so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
(3) Turn the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly.

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46
Q

Para 2-7

When is it only necessary to Mechanical Zero a Weapon?

A

Mechanically zeroing the weapon is only necessary when the weapon zero is questionable, the weapon is newly assigned to the unit, or the weapon sights have been serviced

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47
Q

Para 2-7

How do you mechanically zero an M16A2/A3 rifle?

A

(1) Adjust the front sightpost until the base of the front sightpost is flush with the front sightpost housing.
(2) Turn the elevation knob counterclockwise until the rear sight assembly rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the carrying handle.
(3) Position the apertures so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
(4) Turn the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly.

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48
Q

Para 2-8

How do you battlesight zero an M16A2/A3 rifle?

A

(1) Turn the elevation knob counterclockwise until the rear sight assembly rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the carrying handle.
(2) Turn the elevation knob one more click clockwise.
(3) Position the apertures so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
(4) Turn the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly.

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49
Q

Para 2-18

What does ARS stand for?

A

Adapter Rail System (ARS)

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50
Q

Para 2-18

Who is authorized to remove the ARS from a weapon?

A

Only the armorer

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51
Q

Para 2-18

What may the user remove only to perform preventive maintenance checks and services (PMCS)?

A

only the lower assembly

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52
Q

Para 2-21

Why do the recoil grooves on each rail of the ARS have numbers?

A
  1. Assist the user in remounting an accessory in the same position.
  2. Allow standardization in the location of mounted accessories.
  3. Identify reference points for discussions on accessory mounting locations
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53
Q

Para 2-21

What are the threaded ¼-inch deep holes in the ARS?

A

for a camera tripod adapter

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54
Q

Para 2-23

Which rail of the ARS will not maintain a zero with rail grabbers?

A

the bottom rail will not maintain zero

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55
Q

Para 2-29

Do all devices in a unit have to be mounted in the same location?

A

No; only when command directed to do so. However it should be remembered that each firer is different and may need devices differently than other Soldiers so the Command should limit directing soldiers to do so only during formal proceedings such as parades or boards but the Soldier should mark
where they are zeroed with paint or grease pen

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56
Q

Para 2-30

What is the M68 CCO?

A

The M68 Close Combat Optic (CCO) is a reflex (nontelescopic) sight that is designed for the “two eyes open” method of sighting, but can be shot with only one eye open

57
Q

Para 2-66

What does the Acronym BUIS stand for?

A

Back Up Iron Sights

58
Q

Para 2-66

What is the purpose of the BUIS?

A

If the M68 fails, the prezeroed BUIS can be flipped up and used to continue the mission

59
Q

Para 2-68 What is the ACOG?

A

The Advanced Combat Optic Gunsight (ACOG) is designed to provide enhanced target identification and hit probability for the M4A1 or M16-series weapon when firing as far as 800 meters (approximately 870 yards) away

60
Q

Para 2-68

What is the dual illuminated technology of the ACOG?

A

fiber optics for daytime employment and tritium for nighttime and low-light use

61
Q

Para 2-79

What are the different types of Ammunition for the M4 & M16 Series weapons?

A
  1. Ball; M193; Plain Tip; standard cartridge for field use with the M16A1 rifle.
  2. Tracer; M196; Red or Orange Tip; use only in the M16A1 rifle.
  3. Dummy; M199; Six Grooves alongside; used during dryfiring and other training
  4. Blank; M200; used in all M16-/M4-series weapons.
  5. Ball; M855; Green Tip; used in the M16A2/3/4 and in M4-series weapons
  6. Tracer; M856; Red Tip; used in the M16A2/3/4 and M4-series weapons.
  7. Short Range; M862; used in all rifles and is designed exclusively for training.
  8. Armor Piercing; M995; conventional brass, Aluminum cup sits at the rear of the Projectile; used by the M249 (SAW), M16/A2/A3/A4, and M4-series weapons It is intended for use against light armored targets
62
Q

Para 3-1

What is a Stoppage?

A

A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of operation

63
Q

Para 3-1

What should Soldiers apply to clear a Stoppage?

A

Soldiers can apply immediate or remedial action to clear the stoppage

64
Q

Para 3-2

What is Immediate Action?

A

Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause

65
Q

Para 3-2

How many times do you apply Immediate Action?

A

only once for a stoppage

66
Q

Para 3-2

What key word is used to Apply Immediate Action?

A

SPORTS

67
Q

Para 3-2

What are the Actions for SPORTS?

A
  1. Slap gently upward on the magazine to ensure that it is fully seated and that the magazine follower is not jammed
  2. Pull the charging handle fully to the rear
  3. Observe the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge
  4. Release the charging handle; do not ride it forward
  5. Tap the forward assist assembly to ensure that the bolt is closed
  6. Squeeze the trigger and try to fire the rifle
68
Q

Para 3-2

What does the Acronym SPORTS stand for?

A

Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap, Squeeze Trigger

69
Q

Para 3-3

What is Remedial Action?

A

Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause of a stoppage or malfunction and attempt to clear the stoppage once it has been identified

70
Q

Para 3-3

What are the corrective steps for remedial action to perform Remedial Action?

A

(1) Try to place the weapon on SAFE.
(2) Remove the magazine.
(3) Lock the bolt to the rear.
(4) Place the weapon on SAFE (if not already done).

71
Q

Para 3-4

How are Malfunctions caused?

A

Malfunctions are caused by procedural or mechanical failures of the rifle, magazine, or ammunition

72
Q

Para 3-4

How different common Malfunctions are there?

A

Four

73
Q

Para 3-4

What are the Different Types of common Malfunctions?

A
  1. Failure to Feed, Chamber or Lock
  2. Failure to Fire
  3. Failure to Extract
  4. Failure to Eject
74
Q

Para 3-5

What Malfunction can occur when loading the rifle or during the cycle of operation?

A

Failure to Feed, Chamber or Lock

75
Q

Para 3-6

What are the Probable causes for a Failure to Feed, Chamber or Lock Malfunction?

A
  1. Excess accumulation of dirt or fouling in and around the bolt and bolt carrier.
  2. Defective magazine (dented, bulged, or a weak magazine spring).
  3. Improperly loaded magazine.
  4. Defective round (projectile forced back into the cartridge case, which could result in a stubbed round, or the base of the previous cartridge could be separated, leaving the remainder in the chamber).
  5. Damaged or broken action spring.
  6. Exterior accumulation of dirt in the lower receiver extension.
  7. Fouled gas tube (resulting in short recoil).
  8. A magazine resting on the ground or pushed forward (causing an improper lock).
76
Q

Para 3-11
What Malfunction occurs when the firing pin fails to strike the primer with enough force or when the ammunition is defective?

A

Failure to Fire

77
Q

Para 3-11

What are the Probable causes of Failure to Fire?

A
  1. Excessive carbon buildup on the firing pin
  2. A defective or worn firing pin
  3. Faulty ammunition
  4. Failure of the cartridge to fully seat in the chamber
78
Q

Para 3-15

Which Malfunction occurs when the cartridge case remains in the chamber of the rifle?

A

Failure to Extract

79
Q

Para 3-16

What are the Probable causes of Failure to Extract?

A
  1. Short recoil cycles
  2. Fouled or corroded rifle chambers
  3. Damaged extractor or a weak or broken extractor spring
80
Q

Para 3-21
Which malfunction occurs when the cartridge is not ejected through the ejection port and either remains partly in the chamber or becomes jammed in the upper receiver as the bolt closes?

A

Failure to Eject

81
Q

Para 3-21

What are the Probable causes of Failure to Eject?

A
  1. Buildup of carbon or fouling on the extractor
  2. Short recoil
  3. Carbon-coated or corroded chamber
82
Q

Para 3-28

Who can authorize the destruction of weapons?

A

Only the Commander

83
Q

Para 3-28

What are the Authorized Methods of Destruction of Weapons and how are they performed?

A
  1. Mechanical; Use an axe, pick, mattock, sledgehammer, crowbar, or other heavy implement
  2. Burning; Use gasoline, oil, incendiary grenades, other flammables, or a welding/cutting torch
  3. Demolition; Use suitable explosives, ammunition or, as a last resort, hand grenades
  4. Disposal; Bury essential parts, dump them in streams or marshes, or scatter them so widely that recovering them would be impossible
84
Q

Para 3-30

What is priority order in which weapon parts should be destroyed?

A

(1) Bolt carrier group.
(2) Upper receiver group.
(3) Lower receiver group

85
Q

Para 4-0

What is an Infantryman’s basic battlefield tool?

A

An Infantryman’s basic battlefield tool is his weapon

86
Q

Para 4-1

How do you properly clear an M16-/M4-series weapon?

A

(1) Point the muzzle in a designated safe direction or in a clearing barrel.
(2) Attempt to place the selector lever on SAFE. If the selector lever cannot be placed on SAFE because the weapon is not cocked, proceed to Step 3.
(3) Remove the magazine
(4) Lock the bolt open.
(5) Visually inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure that these areas contain no ammunition.
(6) Allow the bolt to move forward by pressing the upper portion of the bolt catch.
(7) Place the selector lever on SEMI.
(8) Squeeze the trigger.
(9) Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward position.
(10) Place the selector lever on SAFE.
(11) Close the ejection port cover

87
Q

Para 4-2

What are the eight cycles of functioning for the M16/M4 Series weapon?

A
  1. Feeding.
  2. Chambering.
  3. Locking.
  4. Firing.
  5. Unlocking.
  6. Extracting.
  7. Ejecting.
  8. Cocking.
88
Q

Para 4-12

What are three modes of fire for the M16/M4 series weapons?

A
  1. Semiautomatic.
  2. Automatic.
  3. Burst
89
Q

Para 4-32

What are the Four Fundamentals of Firing?

A
  1. Steady Position
  2. Aiming
  3. Breathing Control
  4. Trigger Squeeze
90
Q

Para 4-34

How can the Firer tell if they have a Good Steady Position?

A

If he can hold the front sightpost steady through the fall of the hammer

91
Q

Para 4-34

What are the Elements that make up a Good Steady Position?

A
  1. Nonfiring hand grip.
  2. Rifle’s buttstock position.
  3. Firing hand grip.
  4. Firing elbow placement.
  5. Nonfiring-side elbow placement.
  6. Cheek-to-stock weld.
  7. Support and muscle relaxation.
  8. Natural point of aim
92
Q

Para 4-42

What should be used to steady the position and support the weapon?

A

artificial support (for example, sandbags, logs, or stumps)

93
Q

Para 4-42

What should be used if No Artificial support is available?

A

The Bones of the upper body and Not the Muscles, using the muscles can lead to fatigue which will cause the weapon to move more

94
Q

Para 4-52

What are the Two breath control techniques practiced during dry-fire?

A
  1. Breath control for engaging single targets.

2. Breath control for engaging short-exposure targets

95
Q

Para 4-57

What are the Two reasons Trigger squeeze is important?

A
  1. Any sudden movement of the finger on the trigger can disturb the lay of the rifle and cause the shot to miss the target.
  2. The precise instant of firing should be a surprise to the Soldier. If a Soldier knows the exact instant that the rifle will fire, the Soldier will naturally compensate for the weapon’s noise and recoil, causing him to miss the target. Soldiers usually tense their shoulders when expecting the rifle to fire; it is difficult to detect since the Soldier does not realize that he is flinching
96
Q

Para 4-63

What is the “Wobble Area”?

A

Wobble area is the movement of the front sight around the point of aim when the rifle is in the steadiest position

97
Q

Para 4-66

What are the Four Basic Firing Positions?

A
  1. Individual foxhole supported
  2. Prone unsupported firing.
  3. Prone supported firing.
  4. Kneeling unsupported.
98
Q

Para 4-76

Describe the EST 2000?

A

The EST 2000 is a home station, indoor, multipurpose, multilane, small arms, crew-served, shoulderlaunched munitions gunnery simulator with superior
accuracy and state-of-the-art graphics

99
Q

Para 4-77

What is the EST 2000 is used to provide small arms weapon training on?

A
  1. Marksmanship.
  2. Squad tactical procedures.
  3. Close-range shoot/don’t shoot techniques and skills
100
Q

Para 4-78

Can certain Live-Fire events be authorized on the EST 2000?

A

Commanders should review DA Pam 350-38 for live-fire events that can be executed using the EST 2000

101
Q

Para 4-79

Describe the LMTS?

A

The LMTS large-company suite with the warrior kit is a home station or deployed, multipurpose, modular, scaleable, individual and unit small arms marksmanship sustainment simulator that accommodates the M16-series rifle and M4 carbine

102
Q

Para 5-1

What are the two primary objectives of Shot Grouping?

A

(1) Firing tight shot groups.

(2) Consistently placing those groups in the same location.

103
Q

Para 5-4

What is the Circle size for a Soldier to qualify for a good grouping?

A

4-centimeter circle

104
Q

Para 5-38

How can you coach each of the firing fundamentals?

A

(1) Aiming; Attach the M16 sighting device, and observe the Soldier while he fires.
(2) Breathing; Watch the rise and fall of the firer’s chest for consistency.
(3) Trigger Squeeze; Place your finger over the firer’s finger while he fires, feeling for jerking and smooth followthrough. Watch for jerking of the trigger and smooth follow-through.
(4) Position; Observe Placement of the tip of the nose, Placement of the trigger finger, Placement of the nonfiring hand, Placement of the legs, Cheek-to-stock weld, Positioning of equipment.

105
Q

Para 5-38

What are other potential things that a coach can look for other than the basic firing fundamentals?

A
  1. Nonfiring-side eye is not shuttering.
  2. Equipment is fitted properly.
  3. Soldier is not flinching when the trigger is pulled.
  4. Soldier is firing with the dominant eye.
  5. Soldier is wearing glasses (if applicable).
  6. Soldier is maximizing use of the supported position
106
Q

Para 5-39

What is the purpose of battlesight zeroing?

A

The purpose of battlesight zeroing is to align the sights with the weapon’s barrel given standard issue ammunition

107
Q

Para 5-84

What are the Three Categories in the study of ballistics in rifles and carbines?

A
  1. Internal ballistics.
  2. External ballistics.
  3. Terminal ballistics
108
Q

Para 5-85

What Internal Ballistics?

A

Internal ballistics deals with what happens to the bullet before it leaves the weapon’s muzzle

109
Q

Para 5-93

What is External Ballistics?

A

External ballistics deals with factors affecting the flight path of the bullet between the weapon’s muzzle and the target

110
Q

Para 5-94

What are the External Ballistics that affect Bullet Trajectory?

A
  1. Gravity.
  2. Muzzle velocity.
  3. Air resistance (drag).
  4. Altitude or air density.
  5. Temperature.
  6. Trajectory.
  7. Wind.
  8. Angles.
111
Q

Para 5-100

How does Cold Air impact the Ballistics of a bullet?

A

causes the bullet to lose velocity, causing the bullet to impact lower than intended

112
Q

Para 5-101

How does Hot or Warm Air impact the Ballistics of a bullet?

A

Warm or hot temperatures cause the strike of the round to move up

113
Q

Para 5-108

Which of the External Ballistics has the most impact on the bullet?

A

The Wind

114
Q

Para 5-113

What does Terminal Ballistics deal with?

A

Terminal ballistics deals with what happens to the bullet when it comes in contact with the target

115
Q

Para 5-114

What does Bullet penetration depend on?

A

the range, velocity, bullet characteristics, and target material

116
Q

Para 5-116

What does the Acronym MOA stand for?

A

Minute of Angle

117
Q

Para 5-116

What is MOA?

A

An MOA is the standard unit of measurement used in adjusting a weapon’s sights and other ballistic-related measurements.

118
Q

Para 6-1

What does the ability to locate a combat target depend on?

A
  1. Position.
  2. Skill in scanning.
  3. Ability to observe the area and recognize the type of indicators made by the target
119
Q

Para 6-1

What is Target Detection?

A

Target detection is the process of locating, marking, prioritizing, and determining the range to combat targets

120
Q

Para 6-2

What is considered the Selection of a “Good Position”?

A

A good position is one that offers maximum visibility of the area, while affording cover and concealment

121
Q

Para 6-4

What are the Three Methods used to Scan an Area?

A
  1. Self-preservation method.
  2. 50-meter overlapping strip method.
  3. Maintaining observation of the area
122
Q

Para 6-5

When would Soldiers use the self-preservation method of search?

A

When moving into a new area

123
Q

Para 6-5

What is the technique used to perform the self-preservation method of search?

A

(1) For approximately 30 seconds, quickly scan the area for enemy activity that may be of immediate danger.
(2) Make quick glances at specific points throughout the area, rather than just sweeping the eyes across the terrain in one continuous panoramic view

124
Q

Para 6-6

How is the 50-meter overlapping strip method of search performed?

A

(1) Begin the search with the area offering the greatest potential danger, the terrain nearest to your position.
(2) Beginning at either flank, systematically search the terrain to your front in a 180-degree arc, 50 meters in depth
(3) After reaching the opposite flank, search a second 50-meter strip farther out, but overlapping the first strip by approximately 10 meters.
(4) Continue in this manner until the entire area has been searched

125
Q

Para 6-7

What is the method used to maintain observation of the area?

A
  1. Glance quickly at various points throughout the entire area, focusing the eyes on specific features.
  2. Always search the area in the same manner to ensure complete coverage of all terrain
126
Q

Para 6-8

What is a Target Indicator?

A

A target indicator is anything that a Soldier (friendly or enemy) does or fails to do that reveals his position

127
Q

Para 6-8

What are the Three General Target Indicators?

A
  1. Sound.
  2. Movement.
  3. Improper camouflage.
128
Q

Para 6-11

What are the Three general indicators may reveal a camouflaged or concealed target?

A
  1. Shine.
  2. Regularity of outline.
  3. Contrast with the background
129
Q

Para 6-56

What are the Three Authorized reasons for Alibi Firing during practice record fire?

A
  1. Malfunction of the weapon.
  2. Malfunction of the target mechanism.
  3. Faulty ammunition
130
Q

Para 6-68

What is the minimum qualification standard for record fire?

A

23 out of 40 hits

131
Q

Para 6-68

What are the Three positions and how many rounds are fired from each during record qualification?

A
  1. Prone supported; 20 rounds
  2. Prone unsupported; 10 rounds
  3. Kneeling; 10 rounds
132
Q

Para 6-70

Can Soldiers Alibi fire for missing targets while performing SPORTS?

A

No; There are no alibis for Soldier-induced weapon malfunctions or for targets missed during the application of immediate action procedures

133
Q

Para 6-74

What are some reasons that Soldiers may not be firing at exposed targets during qualification?

A
  1. Failure to scan the designated area.
  2. Lack of ability to detect targets.
  3. Lack of ability to shift from one target to another.
  4. Failure to manage ammunition.
  5. A stoppage
134
Q

Para 6-76
If a Soldier fails to qualify on the First Attempt but then Qulaifies on their Second attempt as a Sharpshooter, what will they be awarded?

A

If a Soldiers fails to qualify the first attempt they cannot be awarded anything higher than Marksman for Qualification

135
Q

Para 6-76

What are the Qualification Standards for a mechanical range?

A
  1. Expert 36-40
  2. Sharpshooter 30-35
  3. Marksman 23-29
  4. Unqualified 22 and below
136
Q

Para 6-81

What are Qualification standards on Known Distance record fire range?

A
  1. Expert 38-40
  2. Sharpshooter 33-37
  3. Marksman 26-32
  4. Unqualified 25 and below
137
Q

Para 6-89

What are the Duties of a Firing Line Safety NCO?

A
  1. Perform as scorers.
  2. Inform the chief range officer of crossfires.
  3. Inform the chief range officer of allowable alibis.
  4. Accurately count hits and misses.
  5. Count only four hits for each silhouette for score.
  6. Complete the scorecard.
  7. Assist the Soldier with target repair.
  8. Total, sign, and return the completed scorecard to the chief range officer
138
Q

Para 6-94

What are the Qualification standards for 25 Meter Alternate course?

A
  1. Expert 36-40
  2. Sharpshooter 30-35
  3. Marksman 23-29
  4. Unqualified 22 and below