Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

Eye side effects of hydroxychloroquine

A

Retinopathy
Severe and permanent
“Bull eye retinopathy” -> severe and permanent visual loss
More commonly causes keratopathy, considered fairly benign
Hydroxychloroquine can be used in pregnancy

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2
Q

Previous chemo now develop R hip pain, worse on exercising. O/E passive movement of the hip is painful in all directions esp internal rotation. X-ray normal
Most likely dx
A. trachanteric bursitis
B. AVN of femoral head
C. metastatic deposits

A

B
Causes: long term steroid use, previous chemo, alcohol excess, trauma

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3
Q

Urate lower therapy indication

A
  • ≥ 2 attacks in 12 months
  • Tophi
  • Renal disease
  • Uric acid renal stones
  • Prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics
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4
Q

ARBs beneficial in gout

A

Losartan: specific uricouric action
Suitable for co-existing gout and HTN

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5
Q

MOA of colchicine

A

Inhibit microtubules polymerisation by binding to tubulin, interfering with mitosis. Also inhibits neutrophil motility and activity

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6
Q

Investigations of osteomalacia

A
  • Low vit D
  • Low Ca and phosphate (30%)
  • Raised ALP (95-100%)
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7
Q

When do use pred / methylpred in GCA

A

Oral pred 40-60mg in uncomplicated GCA (no visual involvement +/- jaw/tongue claudication)
IV methylpred 50–1000mg for 3 days before pred for complicated GCA (with visual involvement +/- jaw / tongue claudication)

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8
Q

What autoAb screen returns if diagnosis of PAN
A. Anti-CCP
B. RF
C. Anti-RNP
D. No autoAb
E. anti-smith

A

No AutoAbs

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9
Q

Which drug least likely to cause gout
Lithium, bendroflumethiazide, alcohol, pyrazinamide, furosemide

A

Lithium

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10
Q

Organism most commonly a/w reactive arthritis

A

Post-dysenteric form
- Shigella flexneri
- Salmonella typhimurium
- Salmonella enteritidis
- Yersinia enterocolitica
- Campylobacter
Post-STI form
- Chlamydia trachomatis

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11
Q

Radiological features of ankylosing spondylitis
A. chondrocalcinosis B. osteolysis C. osteophytes, D. subchondral sclerosis E. syndesmophytes

A

Syndesmophytes - classification or heterotopic ossifications inside a spinal ligament or of the annulus fibrosus
Other features: sacroiliitis, squaring of lumbar vertebrae, bamboo spine (late and uncommon)

Chondrocalcinosis: pseudogout, gout, OA, hypoMa
Osteophytes: aging, degeneration, mechanical instability, OA
Subchondral sclerosis: OA

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12
Q

McArdle’s disease

A

Autosomal recessive type V glycogen storage disease
- Muscle pain and stiffness following exercise
- Muscle cramps
- Myoglobuinuria
- Low lactate level during exercise

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13
Q

Which one least a/w Sjogen
A. RTA
B. Xerostomia
C. Sensory polyneuropathy
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy
E. Raynaud’s phenomenon

A

D

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14
Q

Which is not a risk factor for osteoporosis
A. smoking B. obesity C. sedentary lifestyle D. premature menopause E. F

A

Obesity (Low body mass is risk factor)

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15
Q

Mechanism of mycophenolate mofetil

A

Inosin-5’ - monophosphate dehydrogenase inhibitor -> reduce lymphocyte production

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16
Q

Combination of prolonged APTT + thrombocytopenia suggestive of

A

APS

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17
Q

Instruction on taking alendronate

A

Take at least 30 minutes before breakfast with plenty of water + sit up right for 30 minutes following

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18
Q

Secondary causes of raynaud

A

CTD (Scleroderma - most common, SLE, RA)
Leukaemia
Type 1 cryoglobulinaemia, cold agglutinins
Use of vibrating tools
Drugs: OCP, ergot
Cervical rib

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19
Q

Factors suggest primary raynaud

A
  • Present in young women (onset before 40) with bilateral symptoms
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20
Q

Clinical manifestations of fibromyalgia

A
  • Chronic pain: at multiple site
  • Lethargy
  • Cognitive impairment: ‘fibro fog’
  • Sleep disturbance, headaches, dizziness
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21
Q

Poor prognostic factors of RA

A
  • RF positive
  • Anti-CCP
  • Poor functional status at presentation
  • X-ray: early erosions
  • Extra articular features e.g. nodules
  • HLA DR4
  • Insidious onset
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22
Q

Neurological disorder a/w PAN

A

Mononeuritis multiplex (painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas)

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23
Q

Marfan’s syndrome - dural ectasia

A
  • Affects around 60% of patients with Marfan’s
    A/W bladder and bowel dysfunction
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24
Q

SLE abs a/w congenital heart block

A

Anti-Ro

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25
What type of collagen is primarily affected by Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Collagen type 3 - Autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder that mostly affects type III -> tissue being more elastic - Elastic, fragile skin - Joint hypermobility, recurrent joint dislocation - Easy bruising - AR, MVP, aortic dissection - SAH - Angioid retinal streaks
26
Sulfasalazine (cautions and S/E)
Safe in pregnancy and BF Cautions - G6PD deficiency - Allergy to aspirin or sulphonamides S/E - Oligospermia - SJS - Pneumonitis/lung fibrosis - Myelosupression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia - May colour tears -> stained contact lenses
27
Paget disease of the bone
bony pain, unilateral hearing loss, isolated raised ALP
28
Meralgia paraesthetica
Affecting lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
28
Meralgia paraesthetica
Affecting lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
29
Pain on wrist extension against resistance
Lateral epicondylitis
30
Late chest finding of ankylosing spondylitis
Apical fibrosis
31
Organism of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anaemia
Salmonella predominant
32
Dermatomyositis AutoAbs
ANA positive in 60%, anti-Mi-2 highly specific%
33
S/E of AZA
Safe in pregnancy Cause - BM depression - N/V - Pancreatitis - Increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer
34
US finding of gout
- Double contour sign
35
Osteogenesis imperfecta Abnormality in which type of collagen
Type 1 Present in childhood, fractures following minor trauma, blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, dental imperfections are common - Ca, PO4, PTH, ALP usually normal
36
TNF inhibitors in ankylosing spondylitis improve all except A. QoL B. Radiological progression C. spinal mobility D. Extra-articular features E. Early morning stiffness
B It improves radiological progression in RA and psoriatic arthritis
37
Chondrocalcinosis occurs in pseudogout or gout
Pseudogout
38
Which one is elevate in paget's disease A. urinary coproporphyrin B. urinary delta-aminolevulinic acid C. Urinary hydroxyproline D. Urinary porphyobilinogen E. urinary Uroporphyrin
C
39
Management of discoid lupus erythematous
Topical steroid -> hydroxychloroquine Avoid sun exposure
40
Complications of paget's disease
- Deafness cranial nerve entrapment) - Bone sarcoma - Fractures - Skull thickening - High output cardiac failure
41
Drug induced lupus, least common seen - GN - Arthralgia - Myalgia - Malar rash - Pleurisy
GN Common drugs: hydralazine, procainamide
42
Which least a/w Behcet's syndrome A. Mouth ulcers B. Genital ulcers C. Conjunctivitis D. DVT E. Aseptic meningitis
C. More a/w anterior uveitis Diagnosis: positive pathergy test (puncture site following needle prick becomes inflamed with small pustule forming) A/W HLA B51
43
Chronic back pain, which most suggest a dx of AS A. reduced lateral flexion of lumbar spine B. Pain worsening during the day C. Accentuated lumbar lordosis D. Pain on straight leg raising E. Loss of thoracic kyphosis
A Reduced lateral flexion Reduced forward flexion (Schober's test) Reduced chest expansion The A's - Apical fibrosis - Anterior uveitis - AR - Achilles tendonitis - AV node block - Amyloidosis - And Cauda equina syndrome - Peripheral arthritis
44
Sjogren syndrome increased risk of which malignancy
Lymphoid malignancies
45
What is RF
IgM against the Fc portion of IgG
46
Most common cause of death in Ssc
Respiratory involvement - ILD and PAH
47
Which ROM of shoulder is classically impair in adhesive capsulitis
External rotation
48
Which is not typically seen in adult onset still's disease A. Maculopapular rash B. RF C. Pyrexia D. High ferritin E. Lymphadenopathy
B Normally RF and ANA negative
49
Interactions of MTx
- Avoid trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole -> risk of marrow aplasia - Avoid high dose aspirin -> risk of MTx toxicity secondary to reduced excretion
50
Percentage of psoriasis develop associated arthropathy
10-20%
51
Correct about discoid lupus A. commonly progress to SLE B. Causes non-scarring alopecia C. Characterised by follicular keratin plugs D. Is rarely photosensitive E. Typically presents in older males
C
52
S/E of leflunomide
C/I: pregnancy, caution in pre-existing lung and liver disease S/E: GI, HTN, weight loss/anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, pneumonitis Stopping: very long wash out period up to 1 year which requires c co-administration of cholestyramine
53
MOA of AZA
Inhibit purine synthesis
54
If confirm diagnosis of dermatomyositis, what would be the most important next step?
Urgent malignancy screen
55
Features of lateral epicondylitis
Pain worse with wrist extension or supination of forearm with elbow extended
56
Features of medial epicondylitis
Pain with wrist flexion and pronation +/- numbness in 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement
57
Features of radial tunnel syndrome
Compression of posterior interosseuous branch of radial nerve - similar to lateral epicondylitis - Pain tends to be around 4-5cm distal to the lateral epicondyle
58
Feature of cubital tunnel syndrome
Compression of ulnar nerve - Intermittent tingling of 4th and 5th finger
59
Common eye disorder in Marfan
Superotemporal ectopic lentis
60
Most useful marker to monitor disease activity in SLE?
Anti-dsDNA titres
61
EAM of eye signs in RA A . keratoconjunctivitis sicca B. Anterior uveitis C. Mucus fishing syndrome D. Peripheral ulcerative keratitis E. Scleromalacia perforans
A, D, E
62
High risk Abs in scleroderma a/w renal crisis
RNA polymerase III Abs