Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sophie’s Flash Cards > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Capsofungin

A

Class of Echinocandins
Inhibit glucan synethase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infection suspect in patients with cardiac surgery with fever, pain, redness, fatigue, heat/pus at surgical site, night sweats, weight loss, abdo pain, nausea or vomiting

A
  • Non-tuberculous mycobacterium identified amycobacterium chimaera
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

IRIS - organisms

A

Organisms: CMV, herpes zoster, mycobacterium alium complex, pneumocystis pneumonia, mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome - scenarios

A

1) unmasking of an occult opportunistic infection
2) Paradoxical symptomatic relapse of a prior infection despite microbiologic treatment success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

COVID treatment - Dexamethasone

A

Reduced mortality with covid-19 requiring oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

COVID - Prone positioning

A

Potential treatment strategy for refractory hypoxaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

COVID - Remdesivir

A

Reduce time to clinical recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Covid - Baricitinib

A

Janus kinase inhibitor - reduce recovery time and accelerate improvement in clinical status esp when combined with remdesivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

COVID - Tocilizumab

A

Reduce likelihood of progression to need for mechanical ventilation, not improved survival
Did not result in significantly better clinical status or lower mortality for severe covid-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antibiotics do not cross BBB (so not for brain abscess)

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Erythromycin
  • Tetracyclines
  • Clindamycin
  • First gen cephalosporin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Brain abscess or subdural empyema

A

IV metronidazole and ceftriaxone
Ceftazidime - when complicate a neurosurgical procedure or abscess culture grew P.aeruginosa
Vancomycin - abscess follow penetrating head trauma or craniotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carbapenums (imipenum, meropenum, Ertapenum)

A
  • Against aerobic and anaerobic gram -ve bacilli including p.aeruginosa
  • Excellent against anaerobic and gram +Ve
    Ertapenum HAS no activity against P.aeruginosa
  • Carbapenum generally inactive against MRSA, VRE, Enterococcus faecium, mycoplasma, chlamydia and stenotrophonomas maltophilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fidaxomicin

A

First line treatment for c.diff as an alternate to vancomycin
(Metronidazole is not longer first line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Multi-drug resistant TB

A
  • Isoniazid
  • Rifampicin
  • Rifabutin
  • Thioacetazone
  • Amoxicillin - clavulanate
  • Macrolide antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Xpert MTB/RIF (GeneXpert)

A

Automated molecular test for mycobacterium tuberculosis and resistance to rifampin
- sens 98.2% for smear positive TB
- 72.5% for smear negative TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

S.pneumoniae

A

For meningitis
- IV vancomycin + ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
- If allergic -> IV moxifloxacin + vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gram negative resistance with linezolid

A

Efflux pump

18
Q

Addition of metronidazole in aspiration pneumonia indication

A
  • Putrid sputum
  • Severe periodontal disease
  • History of chronic hazardous alcohol consumption
  • Development of lung abscess, empyema or necrotising pneumonia
  • Do not respond to initial therapy
19
Q

Addition of metronidazole in aspiration pneumonia indication

A
  • Putrid sputum
  • Severe periodontal disease
  • History of chronic hazardous alcohol consumption
  • Development of lung abscess, empyema or necrotising pneumonia
  • Do not respond to initial therapy
20
Q

Daptomycin

A

inhibit by surfactant so not useful for pneumonia

21
Q

Beta-lactamases class

A

Class A: plasmid-mediated resistance
Class B: metalloenzymes (MBL) -> can hydrolyze penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems
Class C: intrinsically resistant to betalactamase inhibitor
Class D: Oxacillin hydrolysing enzyme

22
Q

Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS)

A
  • Cough, fever, SOB
  • Mortality rate 30%
  • Recommend BAL, sputum, tracheal aspirates

Management mainly supportive

23
Q

Bordetella pertussis

A

Gram negative coccobacilli

24
Q

Specific test for pertussis

A

Culture from nasopharyngeal secretions - gold standard

25
Q

Dex in meningitis

A
  • diminish rate of hearing loss and other neuro complications
  • Only continue if CSF reveals S.pneumonia
26
Q

Right sided IE
- Indication for surgery

A
  • Large vegetation ≥ 20mm
  • Recurrent septic pulmonary emboli
  • Presence of a highly resistant organism
  • Persistant bacteriaemia
27
Q

Most consistently observed RF for hospital acquired VRE

A
  • Previous treatment of antimicrobials
28
Q

Most common cause of aseptic meningitis

A
  • Enterovirus
29
Q

Necrotising fasciitis secondary to a GAS

A
  • Clindamycin + penicillin G
30
Q

IE organisms

A
  • Dental disease - strep viridans
  • Prolonged Indwelling vascular catheter + IVDU - S.aureus
  • Procedures involving gut and perineum - enterococcus faecalis
  • Bowel - S. bovis
  • Soft tissue infection - Staphlococci
31
Q

Culture negative endocarditis

A
  • Coxiella
  • Burnetti
  • Bortenella
  • Chlamydia
  • Legionella
32
Q

Prophylaxis against endocarditis indication

A
  • A prosthetic heart valve
  • History of IE
  • Many congenital (from birth) heart abnormalities e.g. single ventricle states, TGA, and TOF, even if the abnormality has been repaired.
  • PFO, the most common congenital heart defect, does not require prophylaxis
33
Q

Most common fungal infection in immunosuppresive

A

Candida

34
Q

Highest mortality rate in immunocompromised

A

Invasive aspergillosis

35
Q

Fever in traveller fever

A
  • Malaria
  • Dengue fever
  • Enteric fever
36
Q

Most common in returned traveller

A
  • Malaria
37
Q

Most virulent form of malaria

A
  • Plasmodium falciparum
38
Q

36M with swallowing difficulty. Been traveled to Argentina, Brazil, Bolivia. Has had swollen R eye which now resolved. Barium swallow showed a bird’s beak appearance of the oesophagus
A. African trypanosomiasis
B. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Giardiasis
D. Cryptosporidiosis
E. American Trypanosomiasis

A

E

39
Q

General S/B of NRTI

A

Peripheral neuropathy

40
Q

Tenofovir side effects

A

Renal impairment and osteoporosis

41
Q

Integrase inhibitors (-gravir)

A

Raltegravir, dolutegravir
Block integrase (enzyme inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell)

Sophie’s Flash Cards (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions