Rheumatoid Arthritis Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the basic pathophysiology of RA.

A

infiltration of synovium by immune cells that release cytokines that proliferate damaging immune response in joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define pannus.

A

A pannus is a proliferating, inflamed joint that eventually invades/destroys cartilage and bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diagnosis of RA is determined by a score of ___ points or more in what 4 diagnostic criteria?

A

6 points or more

1) joint involvement
(2) serology
(3) duration of symptoms
(4) acute phase reactants (CRP and ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

5 most common joints affected by RA

A

hips, knees, ankles, elbows, shoulders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name some extra-articular manifestations of RA.

A

(1) rheumatoid nodules
(2) ocular
(3) cardiac
(4) pulmonary
(5) vasculitis
(6) Felty’s syndrome (splenalomegaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which two serologic measures are most specific to RA and are most often present in someone with the disease?

A

anti-CCP and RF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is joint aspiration?

A

turbidity of synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What kinds of characteristics generally indicate a poor prognosis in somebody with RA?

A

low socioeconomic status, poor education, psychosocial stress, extra-articular manifestations, elevated CRP/ESR, high RF titers, erosions observed in x-ray, present in >20 joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Contrast RA from OA.

A

see table in notes: differentiating criteria include age of onset, disease distribution, ESR, inflammation level, morning stiffness, osteophyte/pannus presentation, swelling, and typical presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify non-pharmacological treatment options for RA.

A

(1) rest
(2) splints/prosthetics (for deformities)
(3) PT/OT
(4) emotional support
(5) weight reduction
(6) surgery
(7) pt. education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the role of NSAIDs/COX-2 inhibitors in RA pharmacotherapy?

A

adjunct therapy: only help with pain, but do not alter disease progression, therefore should not be used as monotherapy

use anti-inflammatory doses (generally 2x analgesic doses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dosing of Celebrex (celecoxib)

A

100-200 mg PO BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Patients with what allergy should be carefully monitored with Celebrex use?

A

those with a sulfa allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 4 different ways that corticosteroids can be used in RA patients?

A

(1) burst therapy: to treat an acute flare-up
(2) bridge therapy: in combination with a DMARD while you wait for its onset
(3) long term low dose: for advanced disease
(4) for patients with extra-articular manifestations

note: NOT as monotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Using prednisone as an example, what would be considered a short term, low dose regimen of oral CS?

A

< 10 mg QD for less than 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the max recommendation of a high daily dose of prednisone?

A

60 mg QD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

adverse effects of oral CS

A

(1) hyperglycemia
(2) irritability
(3) elevated BP
(4) gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

monitoring parameters for oral CS use

A

BP and glucose ever 3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which class of drugs can be used as monotherapy in RA due to their ability to decrease and prevent joint damage and preserve joint integrity?

A

DMARDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the DMARD of choice in RA patients? How is it dosed?

A

Rheumatrex (methotrexate)

initial dose is 7.5 mg weekly, but can be increased to 15 mg weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What supplementation is recommended with methotrexate use?

A

folic acid (MOA of drug is inhibition of dihydrofolic acid reductase, depleting folate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which two DMARDs cannot be used in pregnancy?

A

Sulfasalazine, Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

monitoring parameters for MTX use

A

CBC, SCr, LFT

frequency depends on duration of therapy:
<3 months: every 2-4 weeks
3-6 months: every 8-12 weeks
>6 months: every 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

adverse effects of methotrexate

A

hepatic issues, hematologic, gastrointestinal, dermatologic, ocular, teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
contraindications to methotrexate therapy
pregnancy, immunodeficiency, pre-existing blood dyscrasia, chronic liver disease
26
leflunomide dosing
100 mg PO QD for 3 days, then 20 mg QD | can reduce to 10 mg QD if adverse effects
27
leflunomide time to onset
1 month
28
Use caution with leflunomide if:
patient is also using methotrexate (increased risk of liver toxicity)
29
leflunomide adverse effects
diarrhea, teratogenic, rash, alopecia, increased LFTs
30
Which two DMARDs are prodrugs?
leflunomide and sulfsasalazine
31
leflunomide monitoring parameters
CBC, SCr, LFTs every < 3 months: every 2-4 weeks 3-6 months: every 8-12 weeks > 6 months: every 12 weeks
32
sulfasalazine dosing
500 mg PO QD up to 1 g 2-3x QD
33
sulfasalazine time to onset
1-2 months
34
sulfasalazine adverse effects
dermatologic, gastrointestinal, hematologic
35
sulfasalazine monitoring
CBC, SCr, LFTs < 3 months: every 2-4 weeks 3-6 months: every 8-12 weeks > 6 months: every 12 weeks
36
Use caution with sulfasalazine in patients who:
have a sulfa allergy
37
Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) dosing
200 mg PO BID
38
Hydroxychloroquine time to onset
2-4 months
39
Plaquenil adverse events
ocular, gastrointestinal, dermatologic
40
Plaquenil monitoring
advantage: no extensive regular lab work required, just an ocular exam ever 6-12 months
41
What are some of the risks associated with BRM therapy?
(1) can exacerbate existing heart failure (2) increased susceptibility to infections, particularly TB (3) demyelinating disorders (4) malignancies (5) no concurrent vaccine treatment
42
adverse effects of BRM therapy
(1) injection site reactions (2) headache and rash (3) CHF exacerbations (4) risk of malignancy and demyelinating disease
43
Etanercept (Enbrel) dosing
50 mg SC weekly
44
These anti TNFs do not require lab monitoring.
Enbrel, Remicade, Humira, Cimzia
45
This anti TNF does require lab monitoring (which labs?)
Simponi (Golimumab) CBC with platelets, LFTs
46
Which anti TNF agents are only indicated for RA in combination with MTX?
Remicade, Golimumab
47
What testing is recommended before initiation of an anti-TNF agent?
TB skin test
48
Which anti-TNF agents can be used either alone or in combination with a non-BRM DMARD?
Enbrel, Humira, Cimzia
49
Anakinra (Kineret) MOA
IL-1 receptor antagonist
50
Anakinra (Kineret) indication
for patients with moderate to severe RA with an inadequate response to one or more DMARD can be used alone or in combination with DMARDs other than BRMs
51
Humira dosing
40 mg SC every other week
52
Simponi dosing
50 mg SC monthly
53
Infliximab dosing
3 mg/kg at 0, 2, 6 weeks, then every 8 weeks
54
Certolizumab dosing
2 200 mg SC injections at 0, 2, and 4 weeks, then either: (1) 200 mg SC every 2 weeks (2) 400 mg SC every 4 weeks
55
Anakinra dosing (normal and CrCl < 30 mL/min)
100 mg SC QD if CrCl < 30 mL/min, 100 mg SC QOD
56
Kineret should not be used with what other class of drugs?
anti-TNF or T-cell costimulation modifier (abatecept)
57
How is Kineret dosed?
by weight, but all doses are given IV over 30 minutes doses given at 0, 2, and 4 weeks, then every 4 weeks thereafter
58
Anakinra adverse effects
HA, nausea, upper respiratory issues, infusion rxns, serious infection, malignancy
59
Anakinra precautions/warnings
not for use with with TNF antagonist or IL-1 antagonist increased risk for infections (caution in COPD patients) no concurrent live vaccination administration
60
Which BRM is an IL-6 receptor antagonist?
Tocilizumab (Actemra)
61
Actemra dosing
4 mg/kg IV over 1 hour
62
Actemra monitoring parameters
neutrophil count, platelet count, LFTs all every 4-8 weeks lipid panel after 4-8 weeks, then every 6 months thereafter
63
Tocilizumab adverse effects
(1) infections (2) liver toxicity (3) thrombocytopenia (4) neutropenia (5) lipid abnormalities (6) intestinal perforations
64
Rituximab is indicated for use in combination with ____
methotrexate
65
Rituximab dosing
two infusions separated by two weeks, can repeat dosing in 6 months
66
Rituximab is indicated for use in which type of patients?
moderate to severe RA in patients with inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist
67
What are the three most common combinations of therapy in RA treatment?
(1) MTX + HCQ/SSZ (or all three) (2) MTX + leflunomide (3) MTX + BRM