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Fall Y3 > Rheum Test 2 > Flashcards

Rheum Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these are ways that an antibody can cause autoimmunity?
a. Opsonize penicillin on a RBC
b. Bind to a pathogenic toxin
c. All of these can be true
d. Bind and stimulate a self-receptor

A

Bind and stimulate a self-receptor

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2
Q

Antibody to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor causes:
a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b. Myasthenia Gravis
c. Graves disease
d. Lupus

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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3
Q

In lupus, the antigens are from
a. the nucleus
b. the liver

A

the nucleus

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4
Q

The mechanism of type 1 diabetes mellitus is:
a. None of these are true
b. CD8 T cells kill pancreatic alpha cells
c. CD8 T cells kill pancreatic beta cells
d. Antibodies block insulin production

A

CD8 T cells kill pancreatic beta cells

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5
Q

When a macrophage eats a self-antigen and then is stimulated by a pathogen to produce CD867, it’s called
a. bad luck
b. antigen redirecting
c. bystander effect
d. epitope spreading

A

bystander effect

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6
Q

Multiple sclerosis happens when:
a. There is acute ascending inflammatory demyelination that starts in the lower extremities and ends in the upper limbs and face
b. Antibody to acetylcholine receptor blocks transmission leading to numbness and tingling
c. A toxin causes paralysis, starting in the intestines and moving into the extremities
d. There are numerous areas of demyelination within the brain and spinal cord without axonal degeneration

A

There are numerous areas of demyelination within the brain and spinal cord without axonal degeneration

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7
Q

In MS, the cell responsible for killing the oligodendrocyte is the
a. Inflammatory macrophage
b. Natural Killer T cells
c. CD8 T cell
d. Complement

A

CD8 T cell

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8
Q

THe major cytokines involved in Rheumatoid Arthritis joint damage are:
a. TGF beta and IL-17
b. IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
c. TNF alpha and IL-1
d. IFN gamma and IL-2

A

TNF alpha and IL-1

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9
Q

Your patient is a 38 year-old Hispanic executive director of a local non-profit. She is tired and fatigued. She’s a little overweight, but not excessively so. She is married and has 4 children. She has been tested for anemia, common infections, and Lyme disease, and those tests have been negative. After examining her dry skin and peripheral neuropathy, you test for Hashimoto’s. If she’s in the early stages of Hashimoto’s, which of the following would you expect to find?

a. High T3, low TSH
b. Anti-TPO
c. High TNF alpha
d. Antinuclear antibodies

A

Anti-TPO

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10
Q

Your patient comes in complaining of anxiety and irritability. You notice her hands are shaking, and she drops the pen when she’s filling out her paperwork. She seems hot to the touch, when you put your hand on her shoulder. You suspect autoimmunity. Which test would you run for which disease?

a. Look for anti-TSH for Graves disease
b. Look for anti-acetylcholine for Myasthenia Gravis
c. Look for anti-MBP for MS
d. Look for anti-TPO for Hashimoto’s

A

Look for anti-TSH for Graves disease

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11
Q

Astragalus mongolicus is contraindicated in
a. Those prone to infection
b. Children
c. Those with autoimmune conditions
d. Geriatric populations
e. Those with cancer

A

Those with autoimmune conditions

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12
Q

Astragalus mongolicus is an example of a
a. Immunostimulant
b. Immunomodulator
c. Immunosuppressant

A

Immunomodulator

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13
Q

Which of the following are active constituents of Astragalus mongolicus?
a. Caffeic acid esters
b. Baicalin
c. Wogonoside
d. Triterpene saponins

A

Triterpene saponins

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14
Q

What are the mechanisms of immunostimulants
a. Increased phagocytosis
b. Increased production of white blood cells
c. Modulation of cytokines
d. All of these are mechanisms

A

All of these are mechanisms

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15
Q

Immunomodulators are
a. Heating, stimulating and drying
b. Cooling and tonifying

A

Cooling and tonifying

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16
Q

Echinacea purpurea may be used for the following conditions

a. Meningitis
b. Sepsis
c. Arthritis
d. GERD
e. Treatment of URI’s
f. Prevention of URI’s

A

Prevention of URI’s
Meningitis
Sepsis

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16
Q

Echinacea purpurea
a. Increases the Th2 response
b. Decreases the Th1 response
c. Decreases the Treg response
d. Increases the Treg response

A

Decreases the Treg response

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17
Q

Echinacea purpurea’s effects on the body are
a. Anti Inflammatory
b. Proinflammatory
c. Neither
d. Both

A

both

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18
Q

What is the effect of Scutellaria baicalensis on cytokines?

a. Inhibition of IFN alpha
b. Inhibition of IFN gamma
c. Stimulation of IL-10 and IL-12
d. All of these are true

A

All of these are true

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19
Q

Scutellaria baicalensis has been found to
a. Stimulate TNF alpha
b. Inhibit TNF-alpha
c. Both
d. Neither

A

both

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20
Q

What are the actions of Scutellaria baicalensis
a. Nephroprotective
b. Hepatoprotective
c. Cardioprotective
d. Neuroprotective
e. Pulmoprotective

A

Cardioprotective, Neuroprotective, Hepatoprotective

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21
Q

Echinacea purpurea has a dose dependent response
Select one:
True
False

A

true

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22
Q

The price of DMARDs creates challenges of affordability and access to many patients with rheumatological conditions (the ethical area of “pharmacoeconomics”). This barrier may be mitigated by providing advocacy to a patient by

a. Considering if there is a cheaper method of administration of the medicine besides oral administration
b. Provide contact information to the drug company who may offer discounts
c. Provide contact information to agencies that help with drug costs

A

a. Considering if there is a cheaper method of administration of the medicine besides oral administration
b. Provide contact information to the drug company who may offer discounts
c. Provide contact information to agencies that help with drug costs

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23
Q

When working with a patient with an advanced rheumatological condition that has led to disability, it is important to recognize and work to mitigate the health impact of additional health disparities they may face. Research indicates persons with disabilities can also experience

a. Lower rates of heart disease
b. Higher rates of smoking
c. Lower rates of obesity
d. Higher rates of regular exercise

A

Higher rates of smoking

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24
Q

Dual relationships between doctor and patient (such as the doctor hiring the patient for a service) can be problematic because

a. It may lead to less favorable patient care if the service is poor
b. It may lead to the doctor feeling more obliged to the patient
c. It may negatively affect the professional boundary of the dr-pt relationship

A

a. It may lead to less favorable patient care if the service is poor
b. It may lead to the doctor feeling more obliged to the patient
c. It may negatively affect the professional boundary of the dr-pt relationship

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25
Q

Ethical issues that can arise in rheumatology/immunology include:

a. Confidentiality: Duty to Warn a third party of serious risk of disease
b. Diagnostic uncertainty: treating without knowing the diagnosis

A

Confidentiality: Duty to Warn a third party of serious risk of disease
Diagnostic uncertainty: treating without knowing the diagnosis

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26
Q

In a medical setting, maintaining patient confidentiality is essential and governed by HIPAA laws. In a medical-teaching setting, discussing patients is often part of the learning environment. How can HIPAA confidentiality be maintained in the teaching setting?

a. Ensure that individually identifying medical information is not revealed when discussing a case
b. Allow access to chart information to ONLY students on the shift
c. Restrict chart information access to a “need to know for patient care” ONLY

A

Restrict chart information access to a “need to know for patient care” ONLY
Ensure that individually identifying medical information is not revealed when discussing a case

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27
Q

Based on the lecture, an example of a HIPAA violation is

a. Viewing the chart of a patient when not involved in their case
b.Commenting about a patient on Facebook, revealing PHI
c. Using a schedulingsoftware that allowed patients to see other patients’ appointments

A

a. Viewing the chart of a patient when not involved in their case
b.Commenting about a patient on Facebook, revealing PHI
c. Using a schedulingsoftware that allowed patients to see other patients’ appointments

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28
Q

As part of standard ethical practice and professional duty, mandatory reporting covers the following

a. Suspected child abuse
b. Suspected elder abuse
c. Domestic violence between adults
d. Suspected impairment of another licensee

A

a. Suspected child abuse
b. Suspected elder abuse
Suspected impairment of another licensee

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29
Q

A conflict of interest can arise when a rheumatologist treating patients is also a clinical researcher because s/he

a. has conflicting agendas as doctor and as researcher
b. may be paid by a drug company, thus may feel beholden to the funder
c. may have patients with serious disease who are in the placebo group

A

a. has conflicting agendas as doctor and as researcher
b. may be paid by a drug company, thus may feel beholden to the funder
c. may have patients with serious disease who are in the placebo group

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30
Q

Researcher hypothesize rheumatoid arthritis to be a new disease in the development of mankind sighting the only evidence of RA to be 2000 years old.

Select one:
True
False

A

F

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31
Q

Rheumatic diseases include over 100 different conditions.

Select one:
True
False

A

T

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32
Q

The number one cause of disability in the United States is

a. Musculoskeletal related
b. Heart disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Cancer

A

Musculoskeletal related

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33
Q

The most common comorbidity associated with arthritis is

a. Infectious disease
b. Diabetes
c. Respiratory disease
d. Heart disease

A

Heart disease

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34
Q

The prevalence of arthritis is decreasing in the United States.

Select one:
True
False

A

f

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35
Q

This population is 3 times as likely as white females to have severe symptoms associated with lupus.

a. African American males
b. White males
c. African American females
d. Asian American females

A

African American females

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36
Q

Which of the following conditions are more likely to be diagnosed in males than females?

a. Scleroderma
b. Diabetes Mellitus
c. Sjogren’s
d. Lupus

A

DM

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37
Q

Which of the following is associated with increased exposure to estrogen?

a. Increased frequency of lupus flares
b. Increased risk of developing lupus over a lifetime

A

Increased risk of developing lupus over a lifetime

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38
Q

Higher income and education protect individuals from developing arthritis

Select one:
True
False

A

T

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39
Q

Which of the following costs our health care system more?

a. All cancer types combined
b. Arthritis and rheumatic diseases

A

Arthritis and rheumatic diseases

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40
Q

A 45 year-old female comes in complaining of fatigue and arthralgias. Her ANA drawn 2 weeks ago was 1:2560. What does the ANA titer tell?

a. Prognosis
b. Likelihood of response to treatment
c. The type of autoimmune disease
d. Serum antibody concentrations

A

Serum antibody concentrations

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41
Q

A 23-year-old woman is referred to your clinic to “rule out lupus”. History is notable for no photosensitivity, no unusual rashes, no oral ulcers, no pleurisy, no hair loss, or arthralgias. On family history, she has an aunt with Sjögren’s disease and a cousin with lupus. Physical exam completely within normal limits. Outside lab work: ANA 1:40.

This woman meets the diagnostic criteria for SLE

Select one:
True
False

A

F

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42
Q

A positive RF (Rheumatoid Factor) is specific and diagnostic for rheumatoid arthritis.

Select one:
True
False

A

F

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43
Q

A 60 year old female comes to clinic to establish care. She has no major complaints, however on careful ROS, you elicit that she often feels like she has gravel in her eyes, and uses eye drops four times a day. She also has a history of numerous dental caries. Her exam reveals: parotid gland enlargement, conjunctival erythema and extremely dry oral mucosa. You suspect she has Sjogren syndrome. Which test results, if positive, help to confirm your suspicion?

a. Anti-Scl
b. Anti Ro, Anti La
c. Rheumatoid Factor
d. ANA

A

Anti Ro, Anti La

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44
Q

HLA-B27 is frequently positive in reactive arthritis.

Select one:
True
False

A

T

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45
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests are recommended for an early RA diagnosis? (two correct answers)

a. RF and anti-CCP antibodies?
b. Radiographs of the hands, wrists, and feet
c. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) testing
d. Complete blood count (CBC
e. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and serum C-reactive protein (CRP) levels

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and serum C-reactive protein (CRP) levels
RF and anti-CCP antibodies

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46
Q

What information might a rheumatologist use to diagnose a patient?

a. Physical exam
b. Patient’s history
c. laboratory testing
d. radiographic testing (X-ray, ultrasound CT scan, MRI)

A

a. Physical exam
b. Patient’s history
c. laboratory testing
d. radiographic testing (X-ray, ultrasound CT scan, MRI)

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47
Q

An individual with sjogren’s disease is at a significantly increased risk of developing

a. lymphoma
b. type 2 diabetes
c. infections
d. incontinence

A

a. lymphoma

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48
Q

What is the complication or comorbidites associted with juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
a. heart attack
b. vision loss
c. pneumonia
d. anemia

A

vison loss

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49
Q

What is the complication or comorbidites associted with psoriatic arthritis?
a. heart attack
b. giant cell arteritis
c. pneumonia
d. diabetes

A

diabetes

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50
Q

which conditons are associated with kidney disease?
a. lupus
b. scleroderma
c. RA
d. both A and B

A

both A and B

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51
Q

which conditon are associated with stroke?
a. Lupus
b. RA
c. giant cell arterits
d. all of the above

A

all

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52
Q

which disease causes the complication of anemia?
a. lupus
b. RA
c. vasculits
d. all of the above

A

all

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53
Q

which conditons are worse with high estrogen?
a. MS
b. SLE
c. IgA nephropathy
d. autoimmune hepaitis
e. mixed connective tissue diease
f. myasthenia gravis
g. thyroididts
h. dermatitis herpeiformis
i. coeliac disease
j. all

A

all

54
Q

which conditons are associated with low estrogen making it worse?
a. pephigus vulgaris
b. primary biliary cirrhosis
c. RA
d. all of the above

A

all

55
Q

what dose ESR measure?
a. inflammation
b. distance the erythrocyte layer move in 1 hr
c. both

A

both

56
Q

what is CRP?
a. marker of inflammation
b. an actue phase reactant made by liver in repsonse to macrophages producing IL-6
c. binds to phosphocholine on dead cells and pathogens to activate complement acts
d. activated by IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a
e. all of the above

A

all

57
Q

when dose CRP peak?
a. 48 h
b. 24h
c. 1 h
d. 6 h

A

48

58
Q

which one rises slowly?
a. CRP
b. ESR
c. neither
d. both

A

ESR

59
Q

Which one falls quickly?
a. CRP
b. ESR
c. neither
d. both

A

CRP

60
Q

which is a direct marker of inflammation?
a. CRP
b. ESR
c. neither
d. both

A

CRP

61
Q

which is affected by age, gender, anemia, RBC shape, and plasma protien?
a. CRP
b. ESR
c. neither
d. both

A

ESR

62
Q

What is the diagnostic crtieria for RA?
a. small joint involment, bilateral
b. high pos RF or high pos ACPA
c. >6 week duration
d. abnormal CRP or ESR
e. all of the above

A

all

63
Q

what is rheumatoid factor?
a. IgM bound to IgG
b. measure of inflammation
c. specifc for RA
d. A and C

A

A and C

64
Q

which RF is more specifc for RA?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

IgG

65
Q

what rheumatoid factor indicates more severe disease?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

IgA

66
Q

what is the indications for RF?
a. screening
b. diagnosis
c. not used

A

diagnosis

67
Q

what is Anti-CCP?
a. meauring the number of citulinated protiens/peptides
b. measuring inflammation
c. measuring IgM and IgG
d. none of the above

A

meauring the number of citulinated protiens/peptides

68
Q

what is the difference between RF and anti-CCP?
a. anti-CCP detects RA sooner than RF
b. anit-CCP detects erossive disease better than RF
c. anti-CCP detects RA better than RF
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

69
Q

How is ANA testing done?
a. immunofluroesence
b. sweat
c. urine
d. saliva

A

immunofluroesence

70
Q

how is immunofluroesence conducted?

A

patient serum is diluted and dropped onto HEp-2 slides, incubated, washes, seconday antibody added, read by a tech using an IF scope

71
Q

when ANA is positve what dose it mean?
a. SLE and family members of SLE
b. healthy people
c. birth control, procainamide, and thaizide diuretics
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

72
Q

what dose speckled pattern on immunofluroesence indicate?
a. sjogrens
b. SLE
c. scleroderma
d. polymyositis

A

sjogrens

73
Q

what dose nucleolar/centromere pattern indicate on immunofluroesence?
a. scleroderma
b. polymyositis
c. SLE
d. a and b

A

a and b

74
Q

what dose outline pattern on immunofluroesence indicate?
a. SLE
b. Sjorgens
c. scleroderma
d. polymyositis

A

SLE

75
Q

what dose an homogenous pattern on immunofluroesence indicate?
a. diffuse SLE
b. Sjogerns
c. scleroderma
d. polymyositis

A

diffuse SLE

76
Q

what antibodies indicate SLE?
a. anti-ro(ss-a)
b. anti-dsDNA
c. anti-SM
d. b and c

A

b and c

77
Q

what antibodies indicate sjogren?
a. anti-ro(ss-a)
b. anti-jo-1
c. anti-la (ss-b)
d. a and c

A

a and c

78
Q

what antibodies indicate systemic sclerosis?
a. anti-scl-70
b. anti-u1-rnp
c. anti-centromere
d. a and c

A

a and c

79
Q

which antibody indicates polymyositis/dermatomyositis?
a. anti-dsDNA
b. anti-Jo-1
c. anti-Scl-70
d. anti-SM

A

anti-Jo-1

80
Q

which antibody indicated mixed connective tissue disease?
a. anti-U1-RNP
b. anti-Scl-70
c. anti-dsDNA
d. anti-Ro(SS-A)

A

anti-U1-RNP

81
Q

what are the symptoms associated with SLE?
a. photosenstive skin eruption
b. serositis
c. myocarditis
d. pneumoitis
e. nephritis
f. all of the above

A

all of the above

82
Q

what age do those with SLE get diagnosied at?
a. 15-25
b. 40-60
c. 20-30
d. 30-60

A

15-25

83
Q

whay are the symptoms associated with Sjogren?
a. dry eyes
b. dry mouths
c. fatugue
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

84
Q

how is sjogren diagnosis?
a. parotid biopsy
b. anti-RO-SS-A
c. anti-LA-SS-B
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

85
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for sjogren?

A

At least 4
1. dry eyes >3 mon, sensation of sand or gravel in eyes, or use of tear subsituies > 3 per day
2. dry mouth >3 mon, reccurent or perissent swollen salivary glands, or frequent drinking of liquids to aid in swallowing dry foods
3. schirmer-I tests <5 mm in 5 min or rose bengal score >4
4. >50 mononuclar cells/4mm glandular tissue
Need at least one
5. abnormal salivary scintigraphy or paroid sialography or unstimulates salivary flow
6. presence of anti-Ro/SS-A, anti-La/SS-b, antinuclar antibodies, or rheumatoid factor

86
Q

what is the diagnositc cirteria of scleroderma?

A

scleromatous skin changes proximal to the metacarpal-phalangeal joints
sclerodactyly
digital pitting scars
bibasilar pulmonary fibrosis on CXR

87
Q

what are the symptoms of scleroderma?
a. raynaud’s
b. edema fingers and hands
c. skin thickening
d. arthralgias and muscle weakness
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

88
Q

Which of th following is NOT included in CREST?
a. raynaud’s phenomenon
b. esophageal dysfunction
c. sclerodactyly
d. telanglectasias
e. constipation

A

constipation

89
Q

what is the age of diagnosis for those with polymyositis and dermatomyositis?
a. 40-60
b. 16-20
c. 5-15
d. a and c

A

a and c

90
Q

what are the symptoms of polymyositis and dermatomyositis?
a. proximal muscle weakness and inflammation
b. distal muscle weakness and inflammation
c. proximal and distal muscle weakness and inflammation
d. none of the above

A

proximal muscle weakness and inflammation

91
Q

which of the following is NOT included in diagnostic criteria for polymyositis and dermatomyositis?
a. distal mucle weakness
b. elevated serum creatine kinase
c. myopathic changes on electromyography
d. muscle biopsy with evidence of lymphocytic inflammation

A

distal mucle weakness

92
Q

whats conditon impacts men more than women?
a. RA
b. Lupus
c. polymyositis
d. spondyloarthropathy

A

spondyloarthropathy

93
Q

what are the symptoms associated with spondyloarthropathy?
a. inflammatory back pain
b. periarticular inflammation or bone marrow edema
c. psoriasis, IBD, uveitis, enthesis, dactylitis
d. all

A

all

94
Q

what HLA is implicated in spondyloarthropathy?
a. HLA-B27
b. HLA-DQB1
c. HLA-DR2
d. HLA-DR3

A

HLA-B27

95
Q

which of the following dose NOT contribute to autoimmunity occuring?
a. diet
b. epigenetics
c. chemical/toxins
d. low stress

A

low stress

96
Q

What is the link between infection and autoimmunity?

A
  1. person has an infection in their body
  2. macrophage pick the microbe up and present it on MHC
  3. the same macrophage picks up a apoptitic body (piece of self cell) and presents on MHC
  4. becuase the microbe is present the macrophage releases CD86 to a T cell
  5. The T cell binds to the macrophage near the self-cell presented on the macrophage and causes the danger signal to be released
97
Q

which of the following is a factor that affects autoimmunity?
a. genetics
b. enviroment
c. autoantigen
d. all of the above

A

all

98
Q

What are examples of type II autoimmunity?
a. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b. myasthania gravis
c. lupus
d. a and b

A

a and b

99
Q

what is type II autoimmunity?
a. IgE to surface antigen
b. IgG to surface antigen
c. IgG to soluble antigen
d. T cell mediated

A

IgG to surface antigen

100
Q

what is the mechaism of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
a. B cells make IgG specifc for RBC self-antigen causing macrophages and complement killing RBCs
b. B cells make IgM specifc for RBC self-antigen causing macrophages and complement killing RBCs
c. B cells make IgE specifc for RBC self-antigen causing macrophages and complement killing RBCs
d. B cells make IgA specifc for RBC self-antigen causing macrophages and complement killing RBCs

A

B cells make IgG specifc for RBC self-antigen causing macrophages and complement killing RBCs

101
Q

what is the mechanism of myasthania gravis?
a. IgG to acetylcholine receptor
b. IgM to acetylcholine receptor
c. T cell kill acetylcholine receptor
d. IgA to acetylcholine receptor

A

IgG to acetylcholine receptor

102
Q

What is the mechanism of graves disease?
a. IgM to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor stimulates T3 and T4
b. IgG to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor stimulates T3 and T4
c. IgE to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor stimulates T3 and T4
d. IgA to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor stimulates T3 and T4

A

IgG to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor stimulates T3 and T4

103
Q

what is the mechanism of Lupus?
a. B cells make IgG antibodies for intra-nuclear protiens which then deposit in other areas
b. B cells make IgM antibodies for intra-nuclear protiens which then deposit in other areas
c. T cells kill intra-nuclear protiens
d. none of the above

A

B cells make IgG antibodies for intra-nuclear protiens which then deposit in other areas

104
Q

which HLA is associated with DM type I?
a. HLA-DR3
b. HLADQB1*0302
c. HLADR2
d. HLA DR2

A

HLADQB1*0302

105
Q

what is the mechanism of DM?
a. B cells make IgG to insulin
b. CD4 T for insulin causing a Th1 response releasing IFN-gamma and
c. CD8 T for insulin kills beta cells
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

106
Q

what is the link between vitamin D and MS?
a. decreased Vit D increases risk for MS
b. increased Vit D increased risk of MS
c. decreased Vit D decreases risk for MS
d. increased Vit D has no connection with MS

A

decreased Vit D increases risk for MS

107
Q

which HLA is linked to MS?
a. HLADQB1
b. HLADR3
c. HLADR2
d. A and C

A

a and c

108
Q

What is the mechanism of MS?

A

with infx Myelin Basic Protein is presented on a macrophage w/ CD86 to CD4 T cells, Th1 activates CD8 T cells, CD8 T cells kill oligodendricytes, b cells make antibodies to MBP which kill more myelin sheaths

109
Q

how dose progestrone impact MS?
a. increases disease
b. decreases disease
c. no effect on disease
d. minimal increase in disease

A

decreases disease

110
Q

what dose estrogen trigger?
a. triggers TNF-alpha production by macrophages
b. triggers IFN-gamma production by macrophages
c. triggers IL-4 production by macrophages
d. triggers IL-6 production by macrophages

A

triggers TNF-alpha production by macrophages

111
Q

What is the mechanism behind RA?

A

IgG to IgG that cause damage via TNF-a and IL-1b

112
Q

Tanacetum parthenium action

A

antimicrobial, anti-inflammatory, febrifuge,

113
Q

Tanacetum parthenium indications

A

specific for migraine headache with internal heat, used for RA and other arthropathies for pain and inflammation, used in febrile illnesses

114
Q

Tanacetum panthenium energtics and part used

A

energetics: drying and dispersing
part used: leaf and flower

115
Q

Tanacetum panthenium MOA

A

Inhibition of phospholipase A2
Inhibits granule secretion in PMNs and platelets
Strong inhibition of platelet aggregation
Mast cell inhibition
Inhibition of eicosinoid synthesis: Thromboxane B2 and Leukotriene B4
Inhibits IkappaB kinase
modulation of genes involved in cytokine production cell migration and metabolism

116
Q

Boswellia serrata part used

A

gum resin

117
Q

Boswellia serrata actions

A

anti-inflammatory, circulatory stimulant, analgesic astringent

118
Q

Boswellia serrata indications

A

Inflammatory conditions of the joints, and bowels.

119
Q

Boswellia serrata MOA

A

Inhibits TNF-⍺
Inhibits MAP kinases
Inhibits NF-kappa B
Inhibits human leukocyte elastase
Inhibits 5-lipoxygenase

120
Q

Scutellaria biacalensis part used

A

root

121
Q

Scutellaria biacalensis actions

A

antineoplastic, antioxidant, cardioprotective, anxiolytic, GABAergic, antimicrobial, anti-inlfammatory and antiallergic, hepatoprotective, neuroprotective, anticonvulsant

122
Q

Scutellaria biacalensis indications

A

regulation of sleep cycle, anxiety, allergy, infection

123
Q

Scutellaria biacalensis MOA

A

inhibit IFN-α and IFN-γ and stimulate TNF-α and IL-12 & IL-10)
regulates the innate antiviral immunity by modulation of cytokine production and stimulation of human leukocyte resistance
inhibition of iNOS, COX-2, PGE2, IL-1beta, IL-2, IL-6, IL-12 and TNF-alpha expression through down-regulation of IKKalpha-beta, IkappaB-alpha, NF-kappaB activation via suppression of c-Raf-1/MEK1/2 (Mitogen-activated protein kinase/ERK kinase) and MAP kinase phosphorylation
Inhibition of IL-4, IL-5, and IgE and histamine release
Inhibition of Th17 cells by stimulating Treg cells and by inhibiting IL-6 and IL-23
inhibits Th1, Th2, Th17 by stimulatiing Treg

124
Q

Echinacea spp part used and energetics

A

Part Used: root and rhizome, whole plant
Energetics: Cooling, Drying, Stimulating

125
Q

Echinacea spp actions

A

immunostimulator, anti-inflammatory, antimicrobial, stimulates leukocytes, inhibits hyaluronidase, enhances phagocytosis, stimulates fibroblasts, lymphagogue, vulnerary

126
Q

Echinacea spp indications

A

Infection, sepsis, pharyngitis, prevention of upper respiratory infections, snake bites, ulcers

127
Q

Boswellia serrata CI

A

large doses may cause GI irritation – take with water.

128
Q

Echinacea spp CI

A

avoid prolonged use in inflammatory autoimmune diseases.

129
Q

Astragalus mongolicus part used and energetics

A

Part Used: Root
Energetics: mildly warming

130
Q

Astragalus mongolicus actions

A

Immunomodoulating, promotes tissue regeneration, anti-inflammatory, anti-viral, cardiotonic, helps preserve WBC counts in chemotherapy, hepatoprotective.

131
Q

Astragalus mongolicus indications

A

A gentle builder for those with low vitality. It is used for those who are prone to frequent infections, and for those with weak tissues and/or poor digestion. A good herb for children.

132
Q

Astragalus mongolicus CI

A

may be inappropriate in autoimmune conditions due to immuno-stimulating polysaccharides. Antagonized cyclosphosphamide, a drug used to prevent transplant rejection and in lymphomas and leukemias, and therefore inappropriate for use with this medication

Fall Y3 (10 decks)

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