Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DIT > Rheum And Derm > Flashcards

Rheum And Derm Flashcards

1
Q

Drug endings:

  • olo
  • oxin
  • pril
  • tidine
  • tropin
A 
Beta-blocker
Digoxin 
ACE inhibitor 
H2 blockers
Pituitary hormone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alpha-adrenergic treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

Phentolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do the kidneys retain fluid in patients with heart failure?

A

Renal hypoperfusion leads to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bone metastasis

A 
Prostate
Renal cell carcinoma
Testes
Thyroid 
Lung
Breast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common malignant primary tumor in children

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common benign bone tumor

A

Osteochondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

11;22 translocation

A

Ewing sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rb mutation

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sunburst pattern on x-Ray

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Soap bubble appearance on x-Ray

A

Osteoclastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Onion skin appearance of bone

A

Ewing sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

May actually be a hamartoma

A

Osteochondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Codman’s triangle on x-Ray

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Achondroplasia mutation

A

Fibroblast growth factor 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drugs that inhibit acetylcholinesterase and function:

A

Echothiophate - glaucoma
Edrophonium - diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
Neostigmine - myasthenia gravis, ileus, urinary retention
Pyridostigmine - myasthenia gravis
Physostigmine - anticholinergic drug overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mechanisms by which heart contractility can be increased?

A

Catecholamines
Increased intracellular calcium
Decreased extracellular sodium
Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Osteoclasts are similar to:

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Reversible when vitamin D is replaced

A

Osteomalacia/Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Excess osteoclastic activity results in disorganized bony architecture

A

Paget disease of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bone is replaced by fibroblasts, collagen, and irregular bony trabeculae

A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Soft bones due to defective mineralization of osteoid

A

Osteomalacia/rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Failure of bone resorption leads to thickened and dense bones

A

Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Genetic deficiency of carbonic anhydrase II

A

Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bone enlargement, bone pain, arthritis

A

Paget disease of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vertebral compression fractures

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug endings:

  • dronate
  • chol
  • mustine
  • statin
  • bendazole
A 
Biphosphonates 
Cholinergic agonists
Nitrosureas
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors 
Antihelminthic drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Side effects of Amiodarone

A 
Pulmonary fibrosis 
Hepatotoxicity
Hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism 
Corneal deposits 
Photosensitivity 
Neurologic effects 
Constipation 
Cardiovascular effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Conditions associated with diastolic murmurs:

A

Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Pulmonic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dislocated shoulder

A

Head of the humorous rotates out of the glenoid cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Separated shoulder

A

Clavicle separates from the acromion and coracoid process of the scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Structures damaged in an anterior shoulder dislocation

A

Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery
Supraspinatus tendon
Anterior glenohumeral ligaments and glenoid labrum separation from the articular surface of the anterior glenoid neck (Bankart lesion)
Posterolateral humeral head defect due to forceful impact against the anterior rim of the glenoid (Hill-Sachs lesion)

32
Q

Most common type of hip dislocation:

A

Posterior dislocation

33
Q

Structures injured in a posterior hip dislocation:

A

Medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries
Femoral vein
Sciatic nerve
Head of femur

34
Q

Ankle sprain treatment:

A 
"RICE"
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation 
NSAIDs 
Range of motion exercises
35
Q

Initial 15 degrees of arm abduction
External rotation of arm
Internal rotation of arm

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus, teres minor
Subscapularis

36
Q

Ligaments that are typically injured during an ankle sprain:

A

Anterior talofibular ligament
Calcaneofibular ligament
Posterior talofibular ligament

37
Q

Positive anterior drawer sign

A

ACL injury

38
Q

Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox

A

Scaphoid fracture

39
Q

Competitive antagonist

A

Decreased potency

No change in efficacy

40
Q

Treatment of benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil (competitive antagonist)

41
Q

80 y/o man with a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur.

A

Aortic stenosis

42
Q

Antibodies useful in diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid factor

Anti-citrullinated protein antibody

43
Q

How do NSAIDs cause renal disease?

A

Block prostaglandin synthesis
Constrict renal vessels
Decrease renal blood flow
Can cause acute interstitial nephritis

44
Q

Swollen, hard, painful finger joints

A

Osteoarthritis

45
Q

Swollen, boggy, painful finger joints

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

46
Q

Cartilage erosion with polished bone beneath

A

Osteoarthritis

47
Q

Medications for acute gout exacerbation:

A

NSAIDs (indomethacin, ibuprofen, naproxen)
Colchicine
Steroids

48
Q

Medication for chronic gout:

A

Allopurinol
Probenecid
Colchicine
NSAIDs

49
Q

Swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

Gout

50
Q

Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

A

Pseudogout

51
Q

Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

A

Gout

52
Q

Bamboo spine on x-Ray

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

53
Q

HLA-B27

A

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

54
Q

Pencil-in-cup deformity on x-Ray of the finger

A

Psoriatic arthritis

55
Q

Carbachol
Bethanechol
Pilocarpine

A

Direct cholinergic agonists

56
Q 
Atropine
Ipratropium
Scopolamine 
Benztrapine
Oxybutynin
Glycopyrnolate
A

Cholinergic antagonists

57
Q

Neostigmine
Echotiophate
Donepezil
Edrophonium

A

Indirect cholinergic agonists (anti-acetylcholinesterases)

58
Q

Epinephrine

A

Alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2 agonist

59
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1 agonist

60
Q

Dopamine

A

D1 = D2 > B1 > a1 agonists

61
Q

Isoproterenol

A

B1 = B2 agonists

62
Q

Terbutaline

A

B2 > B1 agonist

63
Q

Phenylephrine

A

a1 > a2 agonist

64
Q

Pralidoxime

A

Cholinesterase regenerator

65
Q 
Terazosin
Prazosin
Doxazosin 
Phenoxybenzamine 
Phentolamine
A

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists (a-blockers)

66
Q

Propranolol
Timolol
Labetalol

A

Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonists (beta-blockers)

67
Q

Atenolol
Esmolol
Metoprolol

A

B1 selective blockers

68
Q

Treatment of an acute gout exacerbation

A

NSAIDs
Colchicine
Steroids

69
Q

Treatment of chronic gout

A

Allopurinol
Probenecid
Colchicine or NSAIDs

70
Q

Teen presents with pink-eye, arthritis of the left knee, and dysuria.

A

Reactive arthritis

71
Q

Swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint.

A

Gout

72
Q

Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

A

Pseudogout

73
Q

Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

A

Gout

74
Q

Bamboo spine on x-ray

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

75
Q

HLA-B27

A

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

76
Q

Pencil-in-cup deformity on x-Ray of the finger

A

Psoriatic arthritis

DIT (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions