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Anatomy and Physiology > Revision Q's > Flashcards

Revision Q's Flashcards

1
Q

The cell organelle which is the site responsible for protein synthesis is…

A

Ribosomes

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2
Q

Negative feedback control systems are involved in the control of:

A

Body temperature

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3
Q

Haemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a…

A

Hypotonic solution

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4
Q

In negative feedback control systems involved in homeostasis…

A

The effector tissue is often a muscle or gland

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5
Q

Prokaryotic cells…

A

Lack a nucleus

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6
Q

Extracellular fluid differs from intracellular fluid, in adults, in that its…

A

Volume is smaller

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7
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium is found…

A

In the thyroid gland

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8
Q

Homeostasis…

A

Usually involves continuous activity of sensory receptors

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9
Q

Relative to the elbow, the wrist is…

A

Distal

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10
Q

The plasma membrane is freely permeable to:

A

Steroid hormones

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11
Q

The three basic FIBRE types in connective tissue are…

A

Collagen, reticular and elastic

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12
Q

Collagen is NOT present in the matrix of…

A

Blood

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13
Q

During the depolarization of the nerve cell plasma membrane…

A

Sodium channels open and sodium ions moves in to the cell

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14
Q

Name an endocrine gland

A

Adrenal gland

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15
Q

The anterior pituitary gland…

A

Seretes ACTH

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16
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the reabsorption of water only in the nephron?

A

ADH

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17
Q

The cell membrane is…

A

More negatively charged than the exterior

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18
Q

Regarding the autonomic nervous system…

A

The main neurotransmitter substance released at target organs of the parasympathetic nerves is acetylcholine

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19
Q

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) will cause…

A

An increase in pupil diameter

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20
Q

Thyroxine is an example of…

A

An amine hormone

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21
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system…

A

The pre-ganglionic nerve fibres leave the spinal chord at thoraco-lumbar levels

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22
Q

Arterial baroreceptors…

A

Increase their discharge rate when there is an increase in arterial blood pressure

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23
Q

On the electrocardiogram (ECG)

A

There is normally no wave associated with atrial repolarisation

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24
Q

Cardiac output is determined by…

A

Heart rate x stroke volume

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25
Q

How is Mean Cell Haemoglobin (MCH) calculated?

A

Haemoglobin concentration (g/l) of whole blood / red cell count

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26
Q

An increase in mean arterial blood pressure may result from…

A

An increase in cardiac output

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27
Q

What hormone stimulates red blood cell production and where is it released from?

A

Erythropoetin, is released in response to hypoxia from the kidneys

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28
Q

Homeostasis means…

A

Maintaining a stable internal environment

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29
Q

Chemical synapses in the nervous system…

A

Release neurotransmitter from pre-synaptic vesicles

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30
Q

Where is the primary sensory cortex located?

A

Parietal lobe

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31
Q

Which bone cells maintain the matrix?

A

Osteocytes

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32
Q

Which bone cells develop into osteoblasts?

A

Osteogenic stem cells

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33
Q

Which type of bone marrow can transfer back to produce RBC and why?

A

Yellow bone marrow, in the case of severe anaemia

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34
Q

Why does growth of bones halt in puberty?

A

During puberty, there is an increase in sex, growth and thyroid hormones that increase osteoblast formation and catch up with cartilage formation

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35
Q

During inspiration…

A

Pressure in alveoli is less than atmospheric pressure

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36
Q

The proximal tubule of the nephron…

A

Reabsorbs more sodium ions in the glomerular filtrate

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37
Q

The wall of the trachea possesses…

A

C shaped hyaline cartilage rings

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38
Q

Formation of HCO3 in systemic blood…

A

Result in formation of H+

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39
Q

Renin release…

A

Inhibits aldosterone release

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40
Q

ADH…

A

Makes the collecting ducts more permeable to water

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41
Q

What are the 2 functional parts of the somatic NS?

A

Motor and sensory

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42
Q

Striated muscle is found in the…

A

Diaphragm

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43
Q

Nociceptors…

A

Are sensitive to chemical substances released by damaged cells/tissue

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44
Q

Analgesic morphine…

A

Can cause respiratory depression

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45
Q

What is not a function of the skeleton?

A

Stores ion

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46
Q

NSAIDS are usually associated with…

A

Constipation

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47
Q

The shoulder joint…

A

Permits flexion, extension, adduction and abduction, circumduction and rotation

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48
Q

Osteoblasts…

A

Secrete osteoid, responsible for mineral deposition

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49
Q

Aspirin…

A

Is effective against mild pain

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50
Q

Skeletal muscle…

A

Is under voluntary control

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51
Q

Hydrochloric acid in the stomach is secreted from the…

A

Parietal cells

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52
Q

The layers of the digestive tract in the correct order, from the interior to outward are…

A

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

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53
Q

Glucagon is…

A

A hormone that increases blood glucose levels

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54
Q

What is an example of a micronutrients?

A

Minerals

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55
Q

Which hormone stimulates gastric motility and secretion?

A

Gastrin

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56
Q

Which class of lipoproteins removes the cholesterol from the blood and returns it to liver for elimination?

A

High density lipoproteins

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57
Q

Which is the mucous membrane that changes during menstrual cycle in response to hormones:…

A

Endometrium

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58
Q

Which cell is diploid?

A

Spermatogonia

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59
Q

Progesterone…

A

Levels increase substantially after ovulation

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60
Q

What is not an example of a non-specific defense?

A

Vaccination

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61
Q

The following pathway describes lymphatic flow …

A

Capillaries, larger vessels, lymph nodes, larger vessels, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein, systemic circulation

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62
Q

Which cell is involved in the humoral response?

A

B cells

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63
Q

What is the role of the immune system?

A

To distinguish the host from everything foreign
To protect against infections
Battle against pathogens

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64
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

The natural non-specific defence mechanisms that come into play soon after an antigen has entered the body

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65
Q

What are the 3 cardinal characteristics of adaptive immune responses?

A

Memory, specificity, discrimination between self and non-self

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66
Q

What is the function of T-killer cells?

A

Kill virus infected cells

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67
Q

Which hormone stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids?

A

T3 and T4

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68
Q

Which hormone is responsible for lowering blood calcium levels?

A

Prolactin

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69
Q

Which hormone is responsible for lowering bone calcium levels?

A

Calcitonin

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70
Q

What is a ganglion?

A

A group of nerve cell bodies in the PNS

71
Q

In neurotransmission, at the NMJ which two substances are involved?

A

Acetylcholine and calcium

72
Q

What are myofibrils?

A

Long, protein rich structure, thin = actin, thick = myosin

73
Q

What 2 elements are necessary for muscle contraction?

A

ATP and calcium

74
Q

What destroys acetylcholine?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

75
Q

The somatic PNS is…

A

Voluntary

76
Q

Which bone forms part of the hard palate?

A

Maxillary bone

77
Q

During the cough reflex…

A

Intra-abdominal pressure rises

78
Q

Air inhaled through the mouth would be

A

Dirtier than air inhaled through the nose

79
Q

What is a correct role of the plasma membrane?

A

Defines cell boundries

80
Q

Anti-cancer drugs are likely to aim for which part of a cell?

A

Nucleus

81
Q

What is the role of cholesterol in the cell?

A

Maintain fluidity of the cell

82
Q

Oxytocin release in pregnancy is controlled by which feedback mechanism?

A

Positive feedback

83
Q

What are the components of a negative feedback mechanism?

A

Receptor, coordinator, effector

84
Q

What is the correct definition of osmolality?

A

Number of osmoles/kg of water

85
Q

Water is being seen to leave a cell causing the cell to shrivel. What state is the cell in?

A

Hypertonic

86
Q

Muscle cramps are caused by a deficiency of what electrolyte?

A

Calcium

87
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system is part of which main nervous system?

A

Peripheral

88
Q

Balance, posture and muscle tone is maintained by which part of the brain?

A

Cerebellum

89
Q

Most spinal nerves are found in which section of the spine?

A

Thoracic

90
Q

Which substance is found in the subarachnoid space?

A

CSF

91
Q

Motor neuron disease is caused by the destruction of what cells?

A

Schwann cells, insulate and protect the nerve cells by creating a myelin sheath

92
Q

Nervous signals from the receptors on the skin are carried to the spinal cord by which nerve?

A

Afferent nerves

93
Q

Which neurotransmitter produced from glutamate that functions as an inhibitory molecule?

A

GABA

94
Q

What is the substance that acts as a supportive network for the neurones?

A

Glia

95
Q

A structure containing a number of cell bodies, typically linked by synapses is known as what?

A

Ganglion

96
Q

When a threshold potential is reached, there will be an influx of which electrolyte?

A

Sodium

97
Q

An action potential will only be achieved if a threshold voltage is reached. What is this response known as?

A

All or nothing

98
Q

Sodium potassium pumps maintain a cells resting potential. Three of which electrolyte are pumped out by this pump?

A

Sodium

99
Q

Which is the process by which neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft?

A

Exocytosis

100
Q

Name a hormone that promotes growth

A

Human growth hormone

101
Q

Name a hormone that maintains metabolism

A

Human growth hormone

102
Q

Name a hormone that stimulates cortisol release

A

Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

103
Q

Name an essential hormone in pubertal development

A

Follicle stimulating hormone

104
Q

Name a hormone that controls production of sex steroids

A

LH

105
Q

Hormones are chemically classed into what 3 groups?

A

Peptides, amines and steroids

106
Q

What is the correct name for a ductless gland that secretes hormones directly into the blood?

A

Endocrine

107
Q

What is the name given to a hormone that stimulates the secretion of another hormone?

A

Trophic hormone

108
Q

Which organ is responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3?

A

Kidney

109
Q

A lack of vitamin D will result in a poor uptake of which electrolyte from food?

A

Calcium

110
Q

Hormones that increase plasma Ca2+ concentrations are released from where?

A

Parathyroid gland

111
Q

What is the name of the negative feedback process responsible for triggering the production of red blood cells?

A

Hypoxia

112
Q

What causes haemorrhagic anaemia?

A

Sufficient red blood cell loss caused by major blood loss

113
Q

A red blood cell with a mean corpuscular volume below 80FL is known as what?

A

Microcytic

114
Q

A parasitic infection or allergy such as asthma, is usually accompanied by a rise in which type of white blood cell?

A

Eosinophils

115
Q

Which step in blood clotting comes first?

A

Vasoconstriction

116
Q

Which antigen would be found on the red blood cells of somebody who is Rhesus positive?

A

D

117
Q

A clot is removed when fibrinolysis occurs. This process breaks down fibrin to soluble products that can be removed by phagocytosis. Which enzyme initiates this process?

A

Plasmin

118
Q

Which of these processes will occur in a hypoglycaemic patient?

A

Gluconeogenesis

119
Q

What is the name of the sac surrounding the heart?

A

Pericardium

120
Q

Which vein empties oxygen rich blood from the lungs into the left atrium of the heart?

A

Pulmonary vein

121
Q

Which of these words best describes cardiac muscle?

A

Autorhythmic

122
Q

On an ECG, the QRS complex represents which part of a heart contraction?

A

Ventricular depolarisation

123
Q

What is the name of the conducting fibres that cause ventricular contraction?

A

Purkinje fibres

124
Q

Process that allows blood to be pumped into the ventricle from the top of the heart

A

Atrial depolarisation

125
Q

Responsible for P wave on an ECG trace

A

Atrial depolarisation

126
Q

Responsible for T wave on ECG

A

Ventricular repolarisation

127
Q

The electrical activity that pumps blood out of the heart around the body

A

Ventricular depolarisation

128
Q

What is the correct term for the volume of blood pumped per minute by each ventricle of the heart?

A

Cardiac output

129
Q

What is the correct formula for calculating blood pressure?

A

Cardiac output x total peripheral resistance

130
Q

What part of the respiratory tract is responsible for providing a resonating chamber for speech sounds?

A

Pharynx

131
Q

How many lobes are present in the right lung?

A

3

132
Q

What is the volume measurement for air inhaled or exhaled in a single resting breath?

A

Resting tidal volume

133
Q

By what method is carbon dioxide most abundantly transported by?

A

As bicarbonate (HCO3-_ ion in plasma

134
Q

The partial pressure of O2 and percent O2 saturation curve will shift to the right in what circumstance?

A

Higher partial pressure of CO2

135
Q

Respiratory acidosis occurs when the pH of the blood is below what value?

A

7.35

136
Q

Which part of the urinary system is responsible for the production of vitamin D?

A

Kidney

137
Q

Which part of the nephron is responsible for reducing the pressure of blood flow?

A

Glomerulus

138
Q

Which hormone is responsible for increasing blood volume by stimulating sodium reabsorption in the nephron?

A

Aldosterone

139
Q

Which endogenous substance stimulates a release of ADH?

A

Angiotensin II

140
Q

Which part of the digestive tract has both endocrine and exocrine functions?

A

Pancreas

141
Q

What substance is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into disaccharides and trisaccahrides?

A

Pancreatic amylase

142
Q

What is the role of the gall bladder?

A

Store and concentrate bile

143
Q

A deficiency of which nutrient is likely to cause loose, poorly formed stool?

A

Fibre

144
Q

What type of lipoproteins will transport cholesterol to the vessels?

A

Low density lipoproteins

145
Q

Which vitamins is water soluble?

A

Vitamin C

146
Q

Which of the statements below is true for vitamins?

A

Cannot be obtained from foods

147
Q

Which type of muscle is small in length and made of spindle shaped cells with tapered ends?

A

Smooth muscle

148
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of type IIB muscle fibres?
A

Fast contraction, high force but low endurance

149
Q

A tendon jerk reflex involves what components?

A

Spinal chord and muscle

150
Q

What defence is part of the innate immune response?

A

Mucus

151
Q

Which of the blow is a type of T cell?

A

CD4

152
Q

Plasma cells manufacture and export large amounts of what immunity related substance?

A

Antibodies

153
Q

What process is facilitated by antibodies?

A

Phagocytosis

154
Q

What infection leads to the depletion of mature T lymphocytes?

A

HIV

155
Q

What is the role of trypsin in the GI tract?

A

Released by pancreatic duct, activates pro-peptidases in the duodenum

156
Q

What is the role of CCK in the GI tract?

A

Involved in bile release, stimulates contraction of gall bladder

157
Q

What is the role of parietal cells in the stomach?

A

Secrete HCl, contain carbonic anhydrase

158
Q

What is the role of saliva?

A

Initiates the digestion of carbohydrates

159
Q

Role of HCl in GI tract?

A

Kills microbes eaten by food

160
Q

By what process do oogenia turn to oocytes?

A

Meiosis

161
Q

What is ovulation and when does it occur?

A

The release of an ovum, on day 14 of menstrual cycle

162
Q

What is the name given to a mature follicle in the female reproductive system?

A

Graafian follicle

163
Q

What do the remains of the ovulated follicle become?

A

Corpus luteum

164
Q

What are the 3 layers of the uterus called?

A

Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium

165
Q

Where is the primary sensory cortex located?

A

Parietal lobe

166
Q

When a cell is bathed in a hypotonic solution…

A

Water moves into the cell

167
Q

The antibodies found in the blood of a person with group O positive are…

A

anti-A and anti-B

168
Q

During quiet inspiration…

A

Air enters the lungs until intrapulmonary pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure

169
Q

Low density lipoproteins found in the plasma…

A

Transport cholesterol from liver to the tissues

170
Q

How is child birth an example of positive feedback?

A
  1. head of foetus pushes against cervix
  2. nerve impulses from cervix transmitted to the brain
  3. brain stimulates pituitary gland to release oxytocin
  4. oxytocin carried in bloodstream to uterus
  5. oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and pushed foetus towards cervix
171
Q

What does proximal mean?

A

Directional term that means nearer to the point of attachment

172
Q

What does lateral mean?

A

Structure further from the midline of the body

173
Q

What is the only moveable bone of the skull?

A

Mandible

174
Q

What are the 3 bones called in the middle ear?

A

Malleus, incus and stapes

Anatomy and Physiology (16 decks)

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