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1 - FunMed > REVISION > Flashcards

REVISION Flashcards

1
Q

What is the size difference in the two lungs?

A

Right is larger but left is longer

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2
Q

Which lung has 3 lobes?

A

Right

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3
Q

What are the fissures between the lobes in the lung

A

Horizontal between superior and middle and oblique between middle and inferior on the right and between inferior and superior on the left

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4
Q

What cancer does HIV cause?

A

Lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma

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5
Q

What cancer does alcohol cause?

A

Heptocellular carcinoma

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6
Q

What cancer does H. pylori cause?

A

Stomach

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7
Q

What cancer does EBV cause?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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8
Q

What disease does EBV cause?

A

Glandular fever

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9
Q

What disease does VZV cause?

A

Chickenpox and shingles

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10
Q

In what quadrant does one feel pain during gallstones?

A

Right hypochondriac

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11
Q

In what quadrant does one feel pain in an appendicitis?

A

Right inguinal/iliac

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12
Q

What three planes separate the abdominal regions?

A

Midclavicular vertically, subcostal/transpiloric and transtubercular horizontally

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13
Q

What type of joint is interphalangeal?

A

Hinge

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14
Q

What type of joint is metacarpal 1 and trapezium?

A

Saddle

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15
Q

What type of joint is the metacarpal one and the proximal thumb phalanx?

A

Hinge

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16
Q

What type of joint is the sternoclavicular?

A

Saddle

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17
Q

What type of joint is distal and proximal radioulnar?

A

Pivot

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18
Q

What type of joint is intercarpal/intertarsal?

A

Plane

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19
Q

What type of joint is the acromioclavicular?

A

Plane

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20
Q

What two substances do basophils mostly produce?

A

Histamine and anticoagulants

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21
Q

What are types of autosomal dominant disorders?

A

Marfan syndrome, Huntingdons, Achondroplasia (dwarfism) and Neurofibromatosis

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22
Q

What are types of autosomal recessive disorders?

A

Cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs, sickle cell anaemia, thalassaemias, haemochromatosis

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23
Q

What are types of X linked recessive disorders?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy, haemophillia, red-green colour blindness

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24
Q

What are types of X linked dominant disorders?

A

vitamin D resistant rickets

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25
Q

What spinal nerves are included in the cervical plexus?

A

C1-5

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26
Q

What spinal nerves are included in the brachial plexus?

A

C5-T1

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27
Q

What spinal nerves are included in the lumbar plexus

A

T12-L4

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28
Q

What spinal nerves are included in the sacral plexus

A

L4-S4

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29
Q

Where does the cauda equina begin?

A

L2

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30
Q

What condition is associated with trisomy 21?

A

Downs syndrome

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31
Q

What condition is associated with trisomy 19?

A

Edwards syndrome

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32
Q

What condition is associated with trisomy 13?

A

Patau syndrome

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33
Q

What condition is associated with 45, XO

A

Turner syndrome

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34
Q

What condition is associated with 47, XXY

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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35
Q

What are characteristics of Downs syndrome?

A

Learning difficulties, distinctive facial appearance, heart abnormalities

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36
Q

What are characteristics of Edwards syndrome?

A

Heart malformations and clenched fists

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37
Q

What are characteristics of Patau sydrome?

A

Midline defects

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38
Q

What are characteristics of Turner syndrome

A

Webbed neck

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39
Q

What are characteristics of Klinefelter syndrome

A

Female shaped hips, breasts, no secondary sexual characteristics

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40
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 pairs

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41
Q

How many spinal nerves are there and how can they be categorised?

A

31 pairs - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal

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42
Q

How can the vertebrae be categorised?

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 fused sacral and 4 fused coccygeal

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43
Q

What is found on the C6 dermatome?

A

Thumb

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44
Q

What is found on the C7 dermatome?

A

Middle finger

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45
Q

What is found on the C8 dermatome?

A

Little finger

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46
Q

What is found on the T4 dermatome?

A

Nipples

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47
Q

What is found on the T10 dermatome?

A

Umbilicus

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48
Q

What is found on the C5 dermatome?

A

Clavicles

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49
Q

What is found on the T1 dermatome?

A

Armpit

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50
Q

What is found on the S1 dermatome?

A

Sole of the foot and little toe

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51
Q

What is found on the L4 dermatome?

A

Big toe

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52
Q

What is found on the L1 dermatome?

A

Inguinal region

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53
Q

What is found on the S2 dermatome?

A

Back of the leg

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54
Q

What is found on the L5 dermatome?

A

Middle toes

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55
Q

What is found on the L3 dermatome?

A

Knee

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56
Q

What is found on the S3 dermatome?

A

Buttocks

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57
Q

What dermatome is the perineum?

A

S2,3,4

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58
Q

What does the M1 muscarinic receptor do?

A

excitatory - increases gastric acid secretion

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59
Q

What does the M2 muscarinic receptor do?

A

inhibitory - decreases heart rate and force

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60
Q

What does the M3 muscarinic receptor do?

A

excitatory - increases gut motility, bladder contraction, bronchial constriction and pupil constriction

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61
Q

What cells are within the adrenal medulla

A

Chromaffin cells

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62
Q

What neurotransmitter is released at the sympathetic nerve to sweat glands?

A

Acetylcholine

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63
Q

What neurotransmitter is released at ganglions?

A

Acetylcholine

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64
Q

What are the three stop codon?

A

UAA, UAG and UGA

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65
Q

What codon codes for methionine?

A

AUG

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66
Q

What are the ketogenic amino acids?

A

Leucine and lysine

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67
Q

What amino acids are both ketogenic and glucogenic?

A

Phenylalanine, isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, tyrosine

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68
Q

What are the aromatic amino acids?

A

Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan

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69
Q

What are the positively charged amino acids?

A

Lysine, histamine and asparagine

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70
Q

What are the negatively charged amino acids?

A

Glutamic acid and aspartic acid

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71
Q

What is suxamethonium?

A

Nicotininc ACh agonist used as a short term neuromuscular block

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72
Q

What is hexamethonium?

A

Nicotinic ACh antagonist used as an antihypertensive

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73
Q

What is pancuronium?

A

Nicotinic ACh antagonist used as a long term neuromuscular block

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74
Q

What is bethanechol?

A

Muscarinic ACh agonist used to increase GI and bladder contractility

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75
Q

What is pilocarpine?

A

Muscarininc ACh agonist used in eyedrops for glaucoma

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76
Q

What is atropine?

A

Muscarinic ACh antagonist used to reduce bronchial secretions and dilation as well as increasing heart rate

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77
Q

What is pirenzipine?

A

Muscarinic ACh antagonist used to reduce gastric acid secretions

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78
Q

What is darifenacin?

A

Muscarinic ACh antagonist used to treat incontinence

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79
Q

What does a noradrenaline B1 agonist treat?

A

Cardiac arrest

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80
Q

What does a noradrenaline B2 agonist treat?

A

Asthma

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81
Q

What does a noradrenaline A1 antagonist treat?

A

Hypertension

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82
Q

What does a noradrenaline B1 antagonist treat?

A

Angina and hypertension

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83
Q

What does sulfamethoxozole target?

A

Conversion of PABA into DHF

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84
Q

What does trimethoprim target?

A

Conversion of DHF into THF

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85
Q

What does polymyxin target?

A

Bacterial cell membranes

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86
Q

What do tetracyclines target?

A

30s ribosome portion

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87
Q

What do aminoglycosides target?

A

30s ribosome portion

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88
Q

What are 3 tetracyclines?

A

tetracyclin, minocycline, doxycycline

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89
Q

What are 3 aminoglycosides?

A

Steptomycin, gentamycin, tobramycin

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90
Q

What do macrolides and lincosamides target?

A

50s ribosome portion

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91
Q

What are some examples of macrolides and lincosamides?

A

Erythromycin, clarithromycin, lincomycin, clindamycin

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92
Q

What do beta-lactams target?

A

Bacterial cell wall

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93
Q

What are some beta-lactam examples?

A

Penicillin, amoxicillin

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94
Q

What do glycopeptides target?

A

Bacterial cell wall

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95
Q

What are some glycopeptide examples?

A

Vancomycin and teicoplanin

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96
Q

What does rifampicin target?

A

Bacterial RNA polymerase

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97
Q

What do quinolones target?

A

DNA Topisomerase and DNA gyrase

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98
Q

What are some examples of quinolones?

A

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

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99
Q

What cytokines controls T cell clonal expansion?

A

IL-2

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100
Q

What cytokines controls Th1 activation?

A

IL-12 and IL-23

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101
Q

What cytokines controls Th2 activation?

A

IL-4

102
Q

What cytokines controls IgE class switching?

A

IL-4

103
Q

What antibody forms a pentamer?

A

IgM

104
Q

What antibody forms a dimer?

A

IgA

105
Q

What antibody is the first to be produced?

A

IgM

106
Q

What antibody is second to be made?

A

IgG and this can cross the placenta

107
Q

What is IgE responsible for?

A

Parasitic worms and allergic reactions

108
Q

Which antibody is commonly found in the gut and around glands?

A

IgA

109
Q

Define polymorphic

A

multiple forms of each HLA gene in a given population – multiple alleles

110
Q

Define polygenic

A

many different genes that code for each type of MHC – more than 1 type of MHC 1 and MHC 2

111
Q

Which TLR recognises LPS?

A

4

112
Q

Which TLR recognises flagella?

A

5

113
Q

Which TLR recognises dsRNA

A

3

114
Q

Which TLR recognises dsDNA

A

9

115
Q

Which cytokines are released by Th1 cells?

A

TNF-a and INF-g

116
Q

Which cytokines are released by Th2 cells?

A

IL-4 and IL-5

117
Q

Which are inflammatory cytokines?

A

IL-1, IL6, TNF-a

118
Q

Which cytokines are anti-inflammatories?

A

IL-10, TGF-b

119
Q

Which antibodies activate complement?

A

IgG and IgM

120
Q

What enzymes do cytotoxic T cells and NK cells release?

A

Perforin and granzymes

121
Q

What are Th17 cells

A

T cells important in response to extracellular bacteria that develop in response to IL-6, IL-21 and TGF-b. They cause the release of IL-17

122
Q

How do iT-reg T cells develop and what do they release?

A

When exposed to TGF-b and cause more to be made

123
Q

Chemokine important in neutrophil migration?

A

CXCL8/IL-8

124
Q

Cytokine that increases adhesion of WBCs to membrane

A

TNF-a

125
Q

Level where the abdominal aorta bifurcates?

A

L4

126
Q

Level of coeliac artery?

A

T12

127
Q

Level of superior mesenteric artery?

A

L1

128
Q

Level of inferior mesenteric artery?

A

L3

129
Q

Level of the renal arteries?

A

L1/2

130
Q

Primary cartilaginous joints

A

Those that ossify with age - ossification centres in long bones

131
Q

Secondary cartilaginous joints

A

Usually occur along the midline - pubic symphesis, intervertebral discs, manubriosternal joint

132
Q

Sternocostal joints (except the first) are…

A

Planar

133
Q

Which tarsal articulates with both the tibia and fibula?

A

Tallis

134
Q

What carpal articulates with the radius?

A

Scaphoid

135
Q

Which carpal articulates with the ulna?

A

Lunate

136
Q

Which is the largest tarsal?

A

Calcaneus

137
Q

Which system has long preganglionic fibres?

A

Parasympathetic

138
Q

Which system has short preganglionic fibres?

A

Sympathetic

139
Q

Location of sympathetic nerves?

A

T1-L2

140
Q

Locations of parasympathetic nerves?

A

4 cranial and 3 pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4)

141
Q

4 cranial nerves of the parasympathetic system?

A

III - occulomotor - from accessory occulomotor nucleus to the eye
VII - facial - from superior salivary nucleus to lacrimal and salivary glands
IX - glossopharangeal - from inferior salivary nucleus and nucleus ambiguus to salivary glands
X - vagus - from nucleus ambiguus and dorsal vagal nucleus to heart, lungs and enteric nervous system

142
Q

Layers of enteric nervous system

A

Myenteric plexus - between longitudinal and circular smooth muscle - controls motility
Submucosal plexus - between circular smooth muscle and submucosa - controls secretion

143
Q

Parasympathetic –> enteric

A

Receives preganglionic fibres

144
Q

Sympathetic –> enteric

A

Receives postganglionic fibres

145
Q

Sympathetic nerves with paravertebral ganglia

A

T1-T4

146
Q

Sympathetic nerves with prevertebral ganglia

A

T5-L2

147
Q

Hierachy of intercellular junctions

A 
Tight
Adhesin 
Desmosome
Gap
Hemidesmosome
148
Q

Number of carpals

A

8

149
Q

Number of tarsals

A

7

150
Q

Type of epithelium in epidermis

A

Stratified squamous

151
Q

Type of epithelium in oesophagus

A

Stratified squamous

152
Q

Type of epithelium in mouth

A

Stratified squamous

153
Q

Type of epithelium in vagina

A

Stratified squamous

154
Q

Type of epithelium in alveoli

A

Simple squamous

155
Q

Type of epithelium in blood vessels

A

Simple squamous

156
Q

Type of epithelium in body cavity linings

A

Simple squamous

157
Q

Type of epithelium in mammary glands

A

Stratified cuboidal

158
Q

Type of epithelium in sweat glands

A

Stratified cuboidal

159
Q

Type of epithelium in male urethra

A

Stratified columnar

160
Q

Type of epithelium in pharynx

A

Stratified columnar

161
Q

Type of epithelium in urinary system

A

Transitional

162
Q

Type of epithelium on ovary surface

A

Simple cuboidal

163
Q

Type of epithelium in kidney tubules

A

Simple cuboidal

164
Q

Type of epithelium in ducts of small glands

A

Simple cuboidal

165
Q

Type of epithelium in the digestive tracts

A

Simple columnar - non-ciliated

166
Q

Type of epithelium on fallopian tubes and uterus

A

Simple columnar - ciliated

167
Q

Type of epithelium in small bronchi

A

Simple columnar - ciliated

168
Q

Type of epithelium in trachea and upper respiratory tract

A

Pseudostratified - ciliated

169
Q

Type of epithelium in sperm ducts

A

Pseudostratified - non-ciliated

170
Q

Type of CT in perichondrium

A

Dense irregular CT

171
Q

Layers of serosa

A

Simple squamous epithelium with underlying lamina propria

172
Q

Layers of mucosa

A

Simple columnar epithelium
Loose CT lamina propria
Muscularis mucosae
Submucosa - loose CT

173
Q

Type of cartilage in trachea and costal cartilage

A

Hyaline

174
Q

Type of cartilage on articular surfaces of synovial joints

A

Hyaline

175
Q

Type of cartilage in the outer ear

A

Elastic cartilage

176
Q

Type of cartilage in the epiglottis

A

Elastic cartilage

177
Q

Type of cartilage in intervertebral discs

A

Fibrocartilage

178
Q

Type of CT in lamina propria

A

Loose

179
Q

Type of CT surrounding capillaries

A

Loose

180
Q

Type of CT in dermis

A

Dense irregular

181
Q

Type of CT in joint and organ capsules

A

Dense irregular

182
Q

Type of CT in tendons and ligaments

A

Dense regular

183
Q

Type of CT in liver

A

Reticular

184
Q

Type of CT in spleen

A

Reticular

185
Q

Type of CT in lymph nodes

A

Reticular

186
Q

White adipose

A

Unilocular - around kidneys and in breast

187
Q

Brown adipose

A

Multilocular - thermoregulation in babies

188
Q

Location of type 1 collagen

A

Loose and dense CT, bone, dentin, fibrocartilage

189
Q

Location of type 2 collagen

A

Hyaline and elastic cartilage and vitreous body of the eye

190
Q

Location of type 3 collagen

A

Reticular CT, blood vessels

191
Q

Location of type 4 collagen

A

Basement membranes

192
Q

Hypokalemia

A

Low potassium

193
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Low sodium

194
Q

Amatidine

A

Antiviral - inhibits M2 protein so prevents uncoating of virus

195
Q

Rimantidine

A

Antiviral - inhibits M2 protein so prevents uncoating of virus

196
Q

Ribavirin

A

Antiviral - guanosine analog so prevents DNA replication

197
Q

Neuraminidase

A

Antiviral - prevents release of virions out of the host cell and causes the aggregation of virions

198
Q

Action of sympathetic nervous system on bladder

A

Relaxes it

199
Q

Action of sympathetic nervous system on bronchial dimater

A

Dilation

200
Q

Action of sympathetic nervous system on lacrimal and salivary sectretions

A

Decreased

201
Q

Action of sympathetic nervous system on the eyes

A

Dilated pupils, relaxes ciliary muscles to make the lense thinner (long range vision)

202
Q

Action of sympathetic nervous system on the liver

A

Stimulates glycogenolysis

203
Q

Action of parasympathetic nervous system on bladder

A

Contracts it

204
Q

Action of parasympathetic nervous system on bronchial dimater

A

Constriction

205
Q

Action of parasympathetic nervous system on lacrimal and salivary secretions

A

Increased

206
Q

Action of parasympathetic nervous system on the eyes

A

Pupils constrict, ciliary muscles contract to thicken the lense (short range vision)

207
Q

Action of parasympathetic nervous system on the liver

A

Stimulates bile release

208
Q

Action of parasympathetic nervous system on the penis

A

Erection

209
Q

Action of sympathetic nervous system on the penis

A

Ejaculation

210
Q

Outer layer of blood vessels

A

Tunica extrema/adventitia - connective tissue containing collagen and elastin for protection and strengthening

211
Q

Middle layer of blood vessels

A

Tunica media - circular smooth muscle and collagen (and elastic fibres in arteries) allowing for vasoconstriction and dilation

212
Q

Inner layer of blood vessels

A

Tunica intima - basement membrane with simple squamous epithelium on the most inner surface - vasoactive and minimises friction

213
Q

Thickest layer in arteries

A

Tunica media

214
Q

Thickest layer in veins

A

Adventitia

215
Q

Elastic layers in arteries

A

Internal and external elastic lamina

216
Q

Elastic layers in veins

A

Only internal elastic lamina between the tunica intima and media

217
Q

Types of capillaries

A

Continuous - most capillaries - minimal diffusion with many tight junctions
Fenestrated - small pores but complete BM - liver, kidneys, gut
Sinusoid - large pores and incomplete BM - bone marrow, spleen, liver

218
Q

Valve between left atrium and ventricle

A

Mitral/bicuspid

219
Q

Valve between left ventricle and aorta

A

Aortic

220
Q

Valve between right atrium and ventricle

A

Tricuspid

221
Q

Valve between right ventricle and pulmonary trunk

A

Pulmonary

222
Q

Anterior surface of the heart

A

Right ventricle

223
Q

Right margin of the heart

A

Right atrium

224
Q

Posterior surface of the heart

A

Left atrium

225
Q

Apex of the heart

A

Left ventricle

226
Q

Number of pulmonary arteries

A

2

227
Q

Number of pulmonary veins

A

4

228
Q

Innervation of vascular smooth muscle

A

Sympathetic only

229
Q

What separates the atria and ventricles

A

Coronary sulcus

230
Q

Which is lateral- carotid or jugular

A

Jugular veins run lateral to the carotid arteries in the neck

231
Q

Where does the aorta pass through the diaphragm?

A

T12

232
Q

Are reflexes somatic or autonomic?

A

Somatic as they involve skeletal muscle

233
Q

Origins of phrenic nerve?

A

C3,4,5

234
Q

H zone

A

Just myosin - shortens in contraction

235
Q

Lymphatic system function

A

Balance excess tissue fluid
Transport fatty acids from the gut
Transport bacteria away from tissues
Transport antigen presenting cells for immune responses

236
Q

What forces fluid out of vessels?

A

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

237
Q

What pulls fluid back into vessels?

A

Capillary colloid osmotic (colloid) pressure

238
Q

Lymph from the lower body drains to…

A

The thoracic duct by the cisterna chyli

239
Q

Lymph from the upper right quadrant drains to…

A

Right lymphatic trunk which enters the venous system at the right venous angle

240
Q

The thoracic ducts enters the venous system at…

A

Left venous angle (junction between left jugular and subclavian veins)

241
Q

Radiograph view giving caridac enlargement

A

AP

242
Q

Most commonly used radiograph view

A

PA

243
Q

White and dark areas of X rays

A

Bone = white

Less dense = dark

244
Q

Use of barium meal/enema

A

Meal for upper GI

Enema for lower GI

245
Q

MRI T1 weighting

A

Fat = white

246
Q

MRI T2 weighting

A

Water = white

247
Q

MHC class 1

A

Types - A, B, C
Present on all cells except RBCs
Present endogenous ligands to CD8 cells

248
Q

MHC class 2

A

Types - DP, DQ, DR
Present on all APCs
Present exogenous ligands to CD4 cells

249
Q

Action of Th1 T cells

A

Signals for macrophages, NK cells and CD8 cells to kill pathogen infected cells

250
Q

Action fo Th2 T cells

A

Signals for B cells and plasma cells to make antibodies

1 - FunMed (3 decks)

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