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CompTIA Network+ > Review Questions > Flashcards

Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which layer of the OSI Seven-layer model keeps track of a system’s connections to send the right response to a computer?

A

Session Layer (Layer 5 (L5)

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2
Q

Which layer of the TCP/IP model controls the segmentation and reassembly of data?

A

Transport Layer (Layer 4 (L4))

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3
Q

A frame ends with a special bit called the Frame Check Sequence (FCS). What does the FCS do?

A

Verifies that the data arrived correctly.

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4
Q

Which MAC Address begins a frame?

A

Receiving System

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5
Q

A NIC sends data in discrete chunks called ____

A

Frames

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6
Q

What Windows Utility do you use to find the MAC address for a system?

A

ipconfig /all

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7
Q

What Uniquely identifies every NIC?

A

MAC Address

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8
Q

A MAC Address is known as a ___ address

A

Physical

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9
Q

Where does a hub send data?

A

To all the systems connected to the hub

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10
Q

Which Topology required termination?

A

Bus Topology

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11
Q

Star-bus is an example of a ___ Topology

A

Hybrid Topology

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12
Q

Which Topology is fault tolerant?

A

Star Topology

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13
Q

What term is used to describe the interconnectivity of network components?

A

Topology

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14
Q

Coaxial cables all have an ___ rating

A

Ohm

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15
Q

An RG-59 is an example of what type of cable?

A

Coaxial

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16
Q

Which network topology connected nodes with a ring of cable?

A

Ring Topology

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17
Q

Which network topology is most commonly seen only in wireless networks?

A

Mesh Topology

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18
Q

LC is what type of connection?

A

Duplex Fiber-Optic Connection

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19
Q

What is the most common category of UTP used in new cabling installations?

A

Cat 6

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20
Q

Ethernet hubs take an incoming packet and ___ it out to the other connected ports

A

Repeat

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21
Q

What is appended to the beginning of an Ethernet Frame?

A

Preamble

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22
Q

What type of bus does 10BaseT use?

A

Star-Bus Topology

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23
Q

What is the maximum distance that can separate a 10BaseT node from its hub?

A

100 Meters

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24
Q

When used for Ethernet, UTP uses what type of connector?

A

RJ-45

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25
Q

What is the maximum number of nodes that can be connected to a 10BaseT hub?

A

1024 Nodes

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26
Q

What type of connectors are used by 10BaseFL cables?

A

SC and ST

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27
Q

Which networking devices can use the Spanning Tree Protocol? (STP)

A

Switches

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28
Q

What device directs packets based on MAC Addresses?

A

Switches

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29
Q

With 100BaseT, what is the maximum distance between the hub/switch and the node?

A

100 Meters

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30
Q

What type of cable and connector does 100BaseFX use?

A

Multimode Fiber with ST or SC Connectors

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31
Q

How many pairs of wires do 10BaseT and 100BaseT use?

A

Two Pairs

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32
Q

What standard does IEEE 802.3ab describe?

A

1000BaseT

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33
Q

What is the big physical difference between 1000BaseSX and 100BaseFX?

A

100BaseFX doesn’t allow the use of SC Connector

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34
Q

What is the maximum distance of 1000BaseLX without repeaters?

A

5km/5000m

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35
Q

What is the big advantage to using fiber-optic cable?

A

Fiber is not affected by EMI

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36
Q

How many wires does 1000BaseT use?

A

Four Pairs

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37
Q

What is the maximum cable length of 10GBaseT on Cat 6?

A

55 Meters

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38
Q

What is ‘bonding’ used for?

A

Allows the use of multiple NICs to achieve faster Network Speeds

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39
Q

How many pairs of wires are in a Cat 5e rated cable?

A

Four pairs

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40
Q

A ___ organizes and protects the horizontal cabling in the telecommunications room

A

Patch Panel

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41
Q

What are Patch cables used for?

A

To connect the patch panel to the switch and to connect PCs to Outlet boxes

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42
Q

Which network technology uses UTP cabling in a star topology?

A

100BaseT

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43
Q

Jane needs to increase network throughput on a 10BaseT network that consists of 1 hub and 30 users. Which of the following hardware solutions would achieve this most inexpensively?

A

Replace the hub with a Switch

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44
Q

What two devices together enable you to pick a single cable out of a stack of cables?

A

Tone Generator and Tone Probe

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45
Q

Rack mounted equipment has a height measured in what units?

A

U = units

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46
Q

How many bits does an IPv4 address consist of?

A

32 bits

47
Q

Identify the network ID section of the following IP Address and Subnet Mask: 10.14.12.43/255.255.255.0

A

10.14.12

48
Q

What does ARP stand for?

A

Address Resolution Protocol

49
Q

Identify the class of the following IP Address: 146.203.143.101

A

Class B

50
Q

What does IANA stand for?

A

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

51
Q

What is the maximum number of hosts in a /19 subnet?

A

8190

52
Q

What is the number 138 in binary?

A

10101010

53
Q

When DHCP fails, what process will the client use to generate an address for itself?

A

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

54
Q

127.24.0.1 is an example of what?

A

A valid Loopback address.

55
Q

What is a router?

A

A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP Address

56
Q

Routers must use the same type of connection for all routers, such as Ethernet to Ethernet or ATM to ATM. True or False?

A

False. A router can interconnect different layer 2 technologies

57
Q

What technology allows you to share a single public IP address with many computers?

A

Port Address Translation

58
Q

Distance vector routing protocols such as RIP rely on what metric to determine the best route?

A

Hop Count

59
Q

What are two big advantages to using OSPF over RIP?

A

OSPF chooses routes based on link speed, not hop count and OSPF sends only routing table changes, reducing Network traffic.

60
Q

What is ‘Area 0’ called in OSPF?

A

Backbone

61
Q

What is the name of the cable that you use to connect to the console port on Cisco Routers?

A

Yost cable (This was invented to standardize the serial console interface, to connect to the console port on Cisco routers)

62
Q

When first setting up a new router, you should never plug it into an existing network. True/False?

A

True. Never plug a new router into an existing network.

63
Q

Traceroute utility is useful for?

A

Traceroute is useful for discovering information about routers between you and the destination address.

64
Q

The protocol developed by Netscape for transmitting private documents over the internet is known as…

A

SSL (Secure Socket Layer)

65
Q

An SSL/TLS URL connection starts with which prefix?

A

HTTPS

66
Q

Why might you use the netstat utility?

A

To see the endpoints of your sessions

67
Q

Why might you use a Telnet client?

A

To issue commands to a remote server

68
Q

Port 110 (POP) is what kind of port?

A

Well-known Port

69
Q

What ports does FTP use traditionally?

A

Port 20 and 21

70
Q

Which two protocols are used to receive email from servers?

A

IMAP and POP

71
Q

NetBIOS uses what type of name space?

A

Flat name space

72
Q

The DNS root directory is represented by what symbol?

A

A dot

73
Q

What command do you run to see the DNS cache on a Windows system?

A

ipconfig /displaydns

74
Q

The users on your network haven’t been able to connect to the server for 30 minutes. You check and reboot the server, but you’re unable to ping either its own loopback address or any of your client systems. What should you do?

A

Replace the NIC because it has failed.

75
Q

A User calls to say she can’t see the other systems on the network when she looks in ‘my network places’. You are not using NetBIOS. What are your first two troubleshooting steps?`

A

Ping the loopback address to test the NIC and Ping several neighbouring systems using both DNS names and IP Addresses.

76
Q

What is checked first when trying to resolve an FQDN to an IP Address?

A

Hosts File

77
Q

What type of DNS record is used by mail servers to determine where to send email?

A

MX Record

78
Q

Running which command enables you to reset the DNS cache?

A

ipconfig /flushdns

79
Q

Running which command enables you to query the functions of a DNS Server?

A

nslookup

80
Q

Any encryption that uses the same key for encryption and decryption is called

A

Symmetric Key encryption

81
Q

RC4 is a ___ cipher

A

Stream

82
Q

In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data?

A

Public Key

83
Q

The Process of verifying with a high degree of confidence that the sender is who the receiver thinks he or she should be is called ____

A

nonrepudiation

84
Q

A hash function is by definition a _____

A

One-way function

85
Q

In order to have a PKI you must have a ____

A

Root authority

86
Q

Which type of access control requires a label to define its sensitivity?

A

Mandatory Access Control must use a label to define sensitivity

87
Q

If you saw some traffic running on UDP ports 1812 and 1813, what AAA standard would you know was running?

A

RADIUS uses UDP ports 1812 and 1813

88
Q

Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive?

A

Kerberos

89
Q

Which VPN Technology enables direct connections between satellite locations?

A

DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network)

90
Q

A static VLAN assigns VLANs to _____

A

Ports

91
Q

Which of the following is the trunking protocol used in today’s VLAN’s?

A

802.1Q

92
Q

A content switch always works at least at which layer of the OSI Model?

A

Layer 7 (Application)

93
Q

When the network is very busy, VoIP calls start to sound badly clipped. What solution might improve the quality of the VoIP calls?

A

Traffic Shaping

94
Q

What are the two benefits of caching on a web proxy?

A

Response Time

Virus Detection

95
Q

802.1X is a great example of _____

A

Port authentication

96
Q

What’s the most common method used to configure a VLAN-Capable switch?

A

Log into the switch using SSH and use the CLI

97
Q

What is an IDS?

A

An IDS inspects a copy of all traffic in a network and can respond to detected intrusions with actions.

98
Q

DHCP is required to receive an IPv6 address automatically?

A

False

99
Q

What kind of DNS records do IPv6 addresses use?

A

AAAA

100
Q

Is NAT needed for IPv6

A

NAT is no longer needed because of the massive size of the IPv6 address space.

101
Q

What does a client need to access IPv6 content on the internet?

A

A global unicast address

102
Q

What is the /16 prefix for all 6to4 address?

A

The /16 prefix designated by the IANA for all 6to4 addresses is 2002

103
Q

Which Operating System has Teredo built in?

A

Windows

104
Q

What service do tunnel brokers provide?

A

A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 internet routers

105
Q

What is the /48 prefix of the address 2001:0480:b6f3:0001::0001

A

2001:480:b6f3

106
Q

What is the signal rate for DS0?

A

64Kbps

107
Q

What provides the fastest throughput?

A

ADSL (can run up to 15Mbps)

108
Q

What is the popular Microsoft Remote Access Server program called?

A

RRAS (Routing and Remote Access Service)

109
Q

What device do you use to connect to a T1 line?

A

CSU/DSU is required to connect to a T1 Line

110
Q

BRI ISDN uses ____

A

2 B channels and 1 D channel

111
Q

The V.90 standard defines a modem speed of ____

A

56Kbps

112
Q

You have just had DSL installed at your house. Although the internet connection is fast, your phones no longer work. What is the Problem?

A

The installer failed to fit the POTS filters on the phones.

113
Q

What protocol do cable modems use?

A

DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification)

CompTIA Network+ (3 decks)

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