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CompTIA Network+ > Network+ Part 2 > Flashcards

Network+ Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the signal rate for DS0?

A

64Kbps

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2
Q

ADSL can run up to what speed?

A

15Mbps

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3
Q

What is the popular Microsoft Remote Access server program called?

A

Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)

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4
Q

What device is used to connect a T1 line?

A

CSU/DSU

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5
Q

BRI ISDN uses ______

A

2 B Channels and 1 D Channel

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6
Q

The V.90 standard defines a modem speed of ___

A

56Kbps

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7
Q

You have just had DSL installed at your house. Although the Internet connection is fast, your phones no longer work. What is the problem?

A

The installer failed to install the POTS filters on the phones.

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8
Q

What protocol do cable modems use?

A

DOCSIS

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9
Q

What is SONET used for?

A

Long-Distance, High-Speed, Fiber-optic transmission

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10
Q

What does SIP stand for?

A

Session Initiation Protocol

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11
Q

Which Wireless networking technology used the 5.0GHz frequency range?

A

802.11a

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12
Q

Which Technology enables use of a WAP without directly connecting the WAP to an AC power outlet?

A

PoE (Power over Ethernet)

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13
Q

What is known as a Basic Service Set in Infrastructure model?

A

A WAP

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14
Q

What feature enables 802.11n networks to minimise dead spots?

A

Transit Beamforming

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15
Q

To achieve maximum Wi-Fi coverage in a room, where should you place the WAP?

A

To achieve maximum coverage, place the WAP in the centre of the room

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16
Q

Which two pieces of hardware enables wireless PCs to connect to resources on a wired network segment in infrastructure mode?

A
  • Wireless Access Point

- A Wireless Bridge

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17
Q

What type of server supports EAP-encrypted passwords in accordance with 802.1x standard?

A

A RADIUS Server

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18
Q

What is the most secure method of Wireless encryption?

A

WPA2

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19
Q

Upgrading which component of a host machine would most likely enable you to run more virtual machines simultaneously?

A

RAM

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20
Q

What enables two VMs hosted on the same physical machine to communication without leaving the machine itself?

A

Virtual Switch

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21
Q

What feature lets you save a VM’s state so you can quickly restore to that point?

A

Snapshot

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22
Q

What do you need to install a legal copy of Windows 10 into a virtual machine using VMware Workstation?

A

Valid Windows 10 installation media

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23
Q

What is the advantage of a Virtual Machine over a physical machine?

A

Hardware consolidation

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24
Q

Janelle wants to start a new photo-sharing service for real pictures of bigfoot, but doesn’t own any servers. How can she quickly create a new server to run her service?

A

Public Cloud

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25
Q

Janelle has a new idea for a new service to report Loch Ness Monster sightings. What service would help keep her from having to play system administrator?

A

Platform as a Service

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26
Q

John has two sets of machines that need to be on their own subnet. What should he use to subnet each group of virtual machines without moving or re-cabling hardware?

A

Virtual Router

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27
Q

What would enable you to use iSCSI to read and write data over the network?

A

Storage Area Network

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28
Q

Which Cellular WAN technology introduced the concept of the SIM card?

A

GSM (Global System for Mobile)

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29
Q

GSM, EDGE and LTE all use what?

A

Sim cards and TDMA (Time-Division Multiple Access)

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30
Q

A thermostat that you can control from your smart phone, fits under which category?

A

IoT (Internet of Things)

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31
Q

You can reduce the vulnerability of your cell phone when automatically connecting to open SSIDs by ___

A

Requiring HTTPS

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32
Q

In order to pair another Bluetooth device, it must be set into _______ Mode

A

Discoverable

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33
Q

A Bluetooth PIN Code is at least ____ digits long

A

four

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34
Q

NFC tags are always ____

A

Passive

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35
Q

All tap-to-pay services use which networking technology?

A

NFC (Near Field Communication)

36
Q

A TV remote control most likely uses which network technology?

A

Infrared Technology

37
Q

Which network technology uses the least power?

A

ANT+

38
Q

In which deployment model does the company own all devices, issue whichever device it chooses to a given employee, and retain control of which apps are installed?

A

COBO (Corporate-Owned Business-Only)

39
Q

When designing a basic network, what two factors should you consider?

A
  • List of Requirements

- Equipment limitations

40
Q

Network authentication is a unique server function, True or False?

A

True

41
Q

What standard is used by most NAS devices, enabling them to connect easily to almost any network?

A

CIFS - Common Internet File System

42
Q

Adding a generator to a Server room is an example of what?

A

Power Redundancy

43
Q

H.323 uses which TCP Port number?

A

1720

44
Q

The RTP Protocol runs on top of which protocol?

A

SIP

45
Q

What is medianet’s primary tool to ensure bandwidth for VTC?

A

Quality of Service

46
Q

The centrepiece of any ICS will be what?

A

ICS Server

47
Q

What differentiates a PLC from a DCS controller?

A

A PLC traditionally uses ordered steps to control a machine (Sequential control)

48
Q

What should be found in a security policy?

A

Acceptable use policy

49
Q

Through what mechanism is a change to the IT structure initiated?

A

Users submit a change request to the change management team

50
Q

Users need training from the IT department to understand what?

A

How to secure workstations with screen-locking and password-security techniques

51
Q

When is a memorandum of understanding used?

A

When a legal contract is not appropriate

52
Q

The best way to know the vulnerabilities of an IT Infrastructure is to run what?

A

Vulnerabilities scanner

53
Q

What is succession planning?

A

Identifying personnel who can take over certain positions in response to an incident

54
Q

During and after a change to the IT infrastructure, what must be done?

A

The changes must be documented

55
Q

What is the job of a first responder?

A

React to the notification of a computer crime

56
Q

When working inside of equipment, what should Jane do?

A

Wear a properly connected anti-ESD wrist strap

57
Q

The placement of the rack should optimize what?

A

Airflow

58
Q

A hacker who sends an email but replaces his return e-mail address with a fake one is _____ the email address

A

Spoofing

59
Q

What is a tool to prevent ARP Cache Poisoning?

A

DAI (Dynamic ARP Inspection)

60
Q

A computer compromised with malware to support a botnet is called _____

A

A Zombie

61
Q

The goal of this aspect of a DoS attack is to make the attacked system process each request for as long as possible.

A

Amplification

62
Q

A user’s machine is locked to a screen telling her she must call a umber to unlock her system. What kind of attack is this?

A

Ransomware

63
Q

An attack where someone tries to hack a password using every possible password permutation is called what?

A

Brute force

64
Q

Which Windows utility displays open ports on a host?

A

Netstat

65
Q

Which two protocols are notorious for cleartext passwords?

A

Telnet and POP3

66
Q

The NSA’s TEMPEST security standards are used to combat which risk?

A

RF Emanation

67
Q

Bob is told by his administrator to go to www.runthisantimalware.com and click ‘Run the Program’ to check for malware. What form of anti-malware delivery is this called?

A

Cloud-Based

68
Q

Which PDU does an SNMP manager use to query agents?

A

Get

69
Q

In an SNMP managed network, which software does a managed device run?

A

Agent Software

70
Q

How does an SNMP managed system categorise data that can’t be queried?

A

MIBs (Management Information Bases)

71
Q

An SNMP manager listens on which port when used with TLS?

A

10162

72
Q

Jason is concerned about the communication between two workstations and wants to capture and analyse that traffic to see if anything illicit is going on. Which tool would best serve his needs?

A

Packet Flow Monitor

73
Q

Where does a packet sniffer put information it collects?

A

A Capture File

74
Q

An analysis of a network capture packet shows a lot of traffic on one machine on port 161. What kind of machine is it?

A

Managed Device

75
Q

What should you create when a network is running correctly?

A

A baseline (So you can compare network performance later on)

76
Q

What tool enables you to compare current network performance with correctly functioning network performance?

A

A Performance monitor

77
Q

When should you use a cable tester to troubleshoot a network cable?

A

When you have a dead connection and you suspect a broken cable

78
Q

What are tone probes and tone generators used for?

A

Locating a particular cable

79
Q

What does NSLOOKUP do?

A

Queries DNS for the IP Address of the supplied host name

80
Q

What is WireShark?

A

Protocol Analyzer, Packet Sniffer and Packet analyzer

81
Q

What will the command route print return on a windows system?

A

The current systems route table

82
Q

When trying to establish symptoms over the phone, what kind of questions should you ask of a novice or confused user?

A

You should ask open-ended questions and let the user explain the problem in their own words

83
Q

While you are asking the user problem-isolating questions, what else should you be doing?

A

Asking yourself if there is anything on your side of the network that could be causing the problem.

84
Q

Which command shows you detailed IP information, including DNS server addresses and MAC Addresses?

A

ipconfig /all

85
Q

What is the last step in the troubleshooting process?

A

Documenting the solution

86
Q

One of your users calls you with a complaint that he can’t reach www.google.co.uk. You try and access the site and discover you can’t connect but you can ping the site with its IP Address. What is the most probable culprit?

A

The DNS Server is down.

CompTIA Network+ (3 decks)

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