Review Part 1 Flashcards

Get through this shit

1
Q

What form do you use to prescribe Controlled Substances?

A

DD 1289

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What 3 methods can you use to write prescriptions?

A

Ink

Indelible pencil

typewritten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If you need to prescribe multiple medications what form can you use?

A

NAVMED 6710/6 Poly-prescription

Poly is a prefix meaning more than one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must be written on the DD 1289?

8 items

A

1) Name
2) DOD ID
3) Date of prescription
4) Date of birth/Age
5) Drug-name/form/dosage/quantity dispensed
6) directions
7) signature
8) Refill authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In regards to drug/medication,

what must be included on DD 1289?

A

Full GENERIC name

Form of drug (tabs/capsule)

Dosage (written in metric)

Quantity to be dispensed

Directions on how to take meds

Refill Authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 principles of pharmacology?

factors

A

Factors that affect actions of drugs

Factors that affect drug reactions

Various types of drug interactions

Factors influencing drug response interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define Active absorption

Factor that affects an action of drug

A

Carrier molecule such as a protein or enzyme actively moves the drug across the membrane.

*The bouncer letting you in and preventing the ugly people in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define pinocytosis

Factor that affects an action of drug

A

Cell engulfs the drug particle across the cell membrane.

*It’s like when a Cheeto falls on my stomach and the rolls engulf it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Bioavailability?

A

The percentage of the administered drug does that reaches the systemic circulation.

*It’s like the people that make it through IDC school.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

6 Factors that alter Bioavailability?

A

Changes in liver metabolism cause by dysfunction

Route of administration

The drug forms

GI mucosa and motility

Food and drugs

Solubility -Drugs that are fat soluble are absorbed faster than water-soluble drugs.

*People love fat instead of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What disease would require a lower dose of a medication or different medication?

A

A patient with liver disease may require a lower dose or a different medication that is not metabolized by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The following are what type of pharmaceutical factors:

Adverse reaction

Allergic reaction

Drug idiosyncrasy

Tolerance

A

Factors that affect drug reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name four Factors that affect drug reactions

A

Cumulative Drug effect

Toxic

Pharmacogenetics reactions

Pharmaceutic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an additive (+) drug reaction?

Various type of drug interactions

A

A reaction that occurs when the combined effect of two drugs is equal to the sum of each drug given alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is synergism?

Various types of drug interactions

A

A drug interaction that occurs when drugs produce an effect that is greater than the sum of their separate actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an antagonist drug reaction?

Various types of drug interactions

A

When one drug interferes with the

action of another, causing neutralization or a decrease in the effect of one drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 5 factors that influence a drug response?

A

Age-metabolism is poor when young/old

Weight

Gender- women require smaller doses

Disease- damn liver again

Route of administration- IV is fast as f*** boy!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

a substance that may produce physical or functional defects in a human embryo

why not say causes birth defects…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is pregnancy categories

A

B

C

D

X

A

A- human studies SHOW NO risk

B-No EVIDENCE of risk

C-Risk CANNOT be ruled out

D-Positive evidence of risk

X- Contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which method is absorbed more slowly than IM injections?

A

Subcutaneous (SC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of parenteral administration is the Tuberculin test?

A

Intradermal (ID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which drug administration is a method that maintains a relatively blood concentration and reduces the possibility of toxicity?

A

Transdermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which method of drug administration may have a local effect on the lungs?

A

Inhalation

Drug droplets, vapors, and gas are administered through the mucus membranes of the respiratory tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What must you educate your patient when prescribing a Barbiturate (psychotherapeutic)?

A

Do not take it with alcohol because it will intensify the effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 4 patient managements for a Barbiturate?

A

(a) Check vital signs and record
(b) Assess patient after giving medication for effect
(c) Patient Education: Abuse potential
(d) Natural Remedies: Melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 6 classes of antidepressants?

A

TCAs

MAOI

SSRI

SNRI

Serotonin Reuptake inhibitor/Antagonist

Dopamine/Norepinephrine-Reuptake Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does TCA stand for?

Antidepressant

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does MAOI stand for?

Antidepressant

A

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does SSRI stand for?

Antidepressant

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does SNRI stand for?

Antidepressant

A

Serotonin Non-Epinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which drugs inhibit the reuptake of Norepinephrine and serotonin.

A

Antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are CNS stimulants used for? (2)

A

Narcolepsy -
*(decreased ability to regulate sleep wake cycles)

ADHD

*Speed!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the adverse effects of CNS stimulants?

A

Headache, dizziness, and apprehension

Over stimulation of the CNS

INSOMNIA, tachycardia, and blurred vision

Speed!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are anticonvulsants used for?

A

Decrease the incidence and severity of seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a psychomotor seizure?

A

May experience an AURA with perceptual alterations, and HALLUCINATION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

Alternate contraction and RELAXATION of muscles.

37
Q

What is a myoclonic seizure?

A

SUDDEN FORCEFUL contraction involving the musculature of the trunk, neck, and extremities.

I had a barbershop lady with his condition in Oki or maybe she was old.

38
Q

What is an absence seizure?

A

(Petit mal) brief loss of consciousness during which physical activity ceases.

Usually seen in children only

*(Absence of physical activity)

39
Q

Nystagmus is an adverse effect of?

Not on TG but told to add.

A

Anticonvulsants

40
Q

What is an example of an anticonvulsant?

A

1) Diazepam: (IV) Valium
2) Lorazepam: (0.1mg/kg IV) Ativan
3) Midazolam: (IM) Versed
4) Clonazepam: (IV) Klonopin

41
Q

What three drugs diminish motion sickness?

A

Meclizine

Scopolamine

Dimenhydrinate

42
Q

This drug inhibits the transport of ions across neuronal membranes,
thereby preventing initiation and conduction of normal nerve impulses

A

Local anesthetics

43
Q

Which drug causes neuro-inhibition and anesthesia,

where the patient is dissociated from the surrounding?

A

Ketamine,

an anesthetic.

44
Q

What are some examples of anesthetics?

A

Bupivacaine: Marcaine (local)

Lidocaine: Xylocaine (Local)

Ketamine: Ketalar (Induction of general)

Propofol (IV)

Etomidate (general)

45
Q

The intravenous (IV) induction drug of choice for most non-trauma patients because of its rapid onset and recovery is which anesthetic?

A

Propofol

46
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Permanent, and recurrent seizure disorder

47
Q

Hepatotoxicity is usually associated with which drug?

A

excessive Acetaminophen intake and often involves more than one product that contains acetaminophen.

48
Q

What is the Contraindication/warning/cautions for Celecoxib (COX-2Selective)?

A

allergy to sulfonamides

49
Q

Peptic ulcer,
GI bleed,
and hypertension

are Contraindication/Warning/Caution for?

A

Ibuprofen (Non-Selective)

50
Q

What is the action for NSAIDs?

A

Inhibit the action of the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX-1 & COX-2 (Nonselective) or Cox 2 -Selective) which is responsible for prostaglandin synthesis.

Prostaglandin is responsible for inflammation…

51
Q

What are 2 examples of NSAIDs?

A

Celecoxib
(selective COX 2 inhibitor): Celebrex

Meloxicam
(selective COX 2 inhibitor): Mobic

52
Q

What is the first line treatment for Gout?

A

Indomethacin

53
Q

Which class of drugs is a short-term management of moderate to severe pain?

A

Narcotic Analgesics

Fentanyl
Morphine Sulfate
Codeine

54
Q

What are some examples of Narcotic analgesics?

A

Agonist:
Fentanyl: Sublimaze
Morphine sulfate: MS Contin
Codeine: Codeine

Hydromorphone: Dilaudid
Methadone: Dolophine
Hydrocodone: Norco/Lortab/Vicodin
Oxycodone: OxyContin

55
Q

Which class of drug effectively blocks the receptor, preventing the body from responding to opiates and endorphins

A

Narcotic Antagonist

The drug is:
Naloxone

56
Q

What is an example of a Narcotic Antagonist?

A

Naloxone

Naw fam, no overdose for you

57
Q

What is the most common/example of an antihistamine?

A

Diphenhydramine:

Ask if Benadryl is cheap for you.

58
Q

Which drug is notorious for causing a rebound congestion when used for more than 3 days consecutively?

A

Oxymetazoline HCL:

This drug is a decongestant

59
Q

Tachyphylaxis is a rebound effect (adverse effect) for?

A

The drug is:
Oxymetazoline

which the drug is a Decongestants

60
Q

which drug releases stimulants and reuptake inhibitors that increase the levels of endogenous catecholamines. Beta 2 receptors are in bronchial smooth muscle and when stimulated cause relaxation (dilation) of bronchioles?

A

Bronchodilators

The drug is:
Beta 2 Agonists

60
Q

Which drug causes relaxation (dilation) of bronchioles?

A

Bronchodilators

The Drug is:
Beta 2 Agonists

61
Q

What are the 5 uses of Bronchodilators or Beta² Agonists?

A

Bronchitis,

Exercise-induced bronchospasm,

Emphysema

Reversible Airway Obstruction (caused by bronchospasm due to bronchial asthma)

(COPD) Obstructive pulmonary disease.

62
Q

What is an example of Inhale Corticosteroids or

Bronchodilators?

A

FLUTicasone: Flovent

BUDeSonide: Pulmicort

63
Q

What are 4 examples of Antitussives?

A

Codeine sulfate

Benzonatate: Tessalon Perles

Dextromethorphan: Robitussin

Diphenhydramine: Benadryl

64
Q

what are the actions of Mucolytic and Expectorants?

A

Mucolytic: Loosens and mobilize thick mucus from respiratory system.

Expectorant: Loosen and mobilize thick mucus from respiratory system. -this one helps you cough it up

65
Q

What is an example of Mucolytic?

A

ACETYLcysteine

66
Q

What is an example of expectorants?

A

Guaifenesin

67
Q

What are the 4 actions of antiarrhythmics?

A

Raise the potential threshold

Block Beta receptor stimuli

Blockade of Na or K

Block calcium channels

68
Q

Which Class of Antiarrhythmic

Depresses myocardial excitability to electrical stimuli thus decreasing the pulse rate.

A

Class 1

The first thing is to tell the heart to calm the fuck down.

69
Q

Which Class of Antiarrhythmic
Beta blockers block stimulation of the beta receptors of the heart. Adrenergic neurohormones stimulate the beta receptors and increase the heart rate.

A

Class 2

*Beta blockers/ Block Beta receptors start with B which is 2nd after the letter A

70
Q

Which Class of Antiarrhythmic causes

Amiodarone to Block Potassium channels in the heart. This is used for ventricular dysrhythmias and atrial fibrillation.

A

Class 3

71
Q

Which drug is involved with the direct relaxing effect on smooth muscle of blood vessels (both arterials and veins)?

A

Nitrates
(Class of drug)
Antianginal

72
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of angina pectoris?

A

Nitrates

Or antianginal

73
Q

What is an example of Nitrates or Antianginal?

A

Nitroglycerin

74
Q

What is the systolic pressure for

Stage 1 and stage 2 hypertension?

A

Systolic 130-139 /diastolic 80-89 mm Hg

Systolic 140 /diastolic 90 mm Hg

75
Q

Angiotensin-converting Enzyme (ACE): Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, is the action of which drug?

A

Class: ACE inhibitors, ARBs

Hypertensives

76
Q

An adverse effect of which medication causes a dry, hacking cough in 5 to 20 percent of patients?

A

ACE inhibitor

77
Q

A dry cough from ACE inhibitors usually begins within 1 to 2 weeks of instituting therapy but it can be delayed up to?

A

6 months

78
Q

What is an example of ACE inhibitors?

*They end with -pril

A

LISINOPRIL

Ramipril
Enalapril
Captopril

79
Q

This drug competes with adrenergic (sympathetic) neurotransmitters (epinephrine and norepinephrine) for adrenergic receptor sites.

A

Class: Beta blockers

Antihypertensives

80
Q

What are the 3 Adverse effects of Beta Blockers? Antihypertensive

A

Bronchospasm (lung tubes spasm)

Orthostatic hypotension (low BP)

Bradycardia (slow heart rate)

81
Q

What are the 4 contraindication/Warning/Caution of Beta Blockers?

Antihypertensive

A

Sinus bradycardia (slow heart rate)
Heart Block
Hypotension (low blood pressure)
Bronchial asthma

( Non-Selective Beta blocker (for example : Propranolol)

82
Q

What is the action of diuretics?

A

Inhibit the action of carbonic anhydrase which leads to the excretion of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate and water

83
Q

Antihyperlipidemic do what?

A

promote the REDUCTION of lipid levels

84
Q

Which is the most commonly prescribed antihyperlipidemic?

A

Statins

85
Q
Constipation
Abdominal pain/cramps
Nausea
Liver dysfunction
and
RHABDOMYOLYSIS is adverse effect of?
A

Class: Anti-Hyperlipidemia (Statins)

Antihyperlipidemic

86
Q

What is the first step before prescribing Anti-Hyperlipidemic?

A

Obtain initial labs (LFTs, Lipid panel, Chemistry

87
Q

Which drugs neutralize or reduce the ACIDITY of the stomach and duodenal contents by combining with hydrochloric acid and producing salt and water?

A

Antacids