Review Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Chest Utz findings most sensitive for pneumothorax

A

Absence of Comet Tail and Sliding Sign

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2
Q

Agent Contraindicated in Isopropanol Toxicity?

A

Fomepizole

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3
Q

Treatment for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

A

100% inspire 02, HBOT, Methemoglobinemia, Methylene Blue

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4
Q

Most Common consideration in patients presenting with sterile pyuria?

A

C. Trachomatis Infection

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5
Q

Most common pulmonary fungal infection worldwide?

A

H. CAPSULATUM

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6
Q

Treatment of Benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Flumanezil 0.2mg IV max of 3mg in adult 0.01 to 0.02 mg/kg in pedia

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7
Q

A finding in chest radiograph that is dome shaped, dense opacification and is indicative of Pulmonary Embolism?

A

Hamptom Hump

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8
Q

Most sensitive indicator of adequate cardiopulmonary resuscitation in infants?

A

Increased Heart Rate

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9
Q

Thunderclap headache is associated with?

A

Intracerebral.aneurysmal Leak

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10
Q

Otogenic Brain abscess found in the temporal lobe or cerebellum are primarily cause by?

A

Bacteriodes

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11
Q

Fever, adenopathy, neurpathies (unilateral or bilateral facial never palsy),cardiac abnormalities, arthritis, and multiple annular/ target shaped skin lesion?

A

Lyme disease- earlt disseminated disease

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12
Q

Gold Standard imaging study for the diagnosis of bladder injury?

A

Retrograde Cystrogram

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13
Q

Downward vertical nystagmus is pathognomonic of what condition? What is the treatment?

A

Anterior Canal BPPV Treated: Deep Head Hanging Maneuver

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14
Q

The Gold standard for investigating penetrating neck injury?

A

Angiography

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15
Q

The Gold standard for non invasive imaging for abdominal injury?

A

Abdominopelvic CT with IV Contrast

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16
Q

Drug of choice for severe malaria?

A

IV artesunate

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17
Q

A strong H3 and H1 antagonist that increases cochlear blood flow and decrease peripheral vestibular inputs?

A

Betahistine

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18
Q

Treatment for cysticercosis

A

Albendazole and praziquantel

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19
Q

Most common cause of acute food poisoning in the US?

A

C. Perfringens

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20
Q

Triad of flashes, floaters and field deficits?

A

Retinal Detachment

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21
Q

Triad of fever, centripetal rash and tick bite?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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22
Q

Treatment for rodenticides ingesion?

A

If INR >2, start oral Vit K 20mg/d in adults (1-5 mg for children) up to 10 months

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23
Q

Most common cardiac rhythm in Pulmonary Embolism?

A

Normal SInus rhythm

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24
Q

Oral Medications causing severe esophageal irritation?

A

Potassium chloride Tetracycline Doxycycline Aspirin

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25
Q

Blast injury sustained as a result of being thrown from the blast site or structural collapse?

A

Tertiary Injuries

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26
Q

Treatment for Acute Chest Syndrome?

A

IV Fluids, O2, antibiotics and analgesics

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27
Q

Causes of genital herpes and resides in the sacral ganglia?

A

HSV-2

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28
Q

Chest pain, fever, and pleural/pericardial effusions 2-4 weeks after cardiac trauma (or surgery)

A

Pericardial Inflammation Syndrome

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29
Q

Congenital Long QT Syndromes May be associated with?

A

Deafness (Jervell-Lange- Nielsen Syndrome)

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30
Q

Most common type of sporotrichosis

A

Lymphocutaneous Type

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31
Q

Fracture of both pedicles of C2 with anterior displacement of C2 and C3

A

Hangman’s Fracture/ Traumatic Spondylisthesis

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32
Q

A common cause of stridor in children >6 months

A

Croup

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33
Q

Route of Exposure that poses the highest risk of transmission for bloodborne disease

A

Percutaneous exposure

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34
Q

Triad of jaundice, black, emesis, albuminuria

A

Yellow Fever

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35
Q

Most Common cause of non compressive focal neuropathy

A

Diabetic Peripheral Neuropathy

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36
Q

Most commmon symptom of blunt cardiac trauma?

A

Chest pain

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37
Q

Treatment for Idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

Oral acetazolamide

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38
Q

Eosinophilic intracellular lesions found within the cerebral neurons that is pathognomonic for rabies?

A

Negri bodies

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39
Q

Common cause of Hypomagnesemia in the ED?

A

Alcoholism

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40
Q

Causes the symptoms seen in scromboid fish poisoning?

A

Histidine to Histamine

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41
Q

A condition associated with increase endolymph within the cochlea and labyrinth?

A

Meniere’s Syndrome

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42
Q

What is the target arterial BP for patients who are candidates fro rTPA therapy?

A

SBP < or = 185 mmHg and DBP of < or = 110 mmHg

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43
Q

Presence of this reflex rules out testicular torsion

A

Cremasteric Reflex

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44
Q

Most common central cause of vertigo

A

Vestibular Migraine

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45
Q

Gold Standard for the diagnosis of Blunt cerebral vascular injury of the neck?

A

Digital Subtraction angiography

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46
Q

Most common tumor of the third ventricle?

A

Third Vertical Colloid Cysts

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47
Q

Most frequently injured abdominal organ

A

Liver

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48
Q

Most common affected structure in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

A

Ulnar Nerve

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49
Q

What Iron Formulation has the most Ionic Iron Formulation?

A

Ferrous Fumarate

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50
Q

This agent cause pharmacobezoars in abdominal Radiographs?

A

Chloral Hydrate

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51
Q

Cranial Nerve involve with herpes zoster infection? (Shingles)

A

CN 7

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52
Q

Millian Ear Sign is diagnostic of?

A

Erysipelas

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53
Q

Vertical upward and rotatory nystagmus and a positive Dix-Hallpike test is diagnostic of___?

A

BPPV

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54
Q

Most sensitive clinical finding for placental abruption after trauma?

A

Uterine irritability

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55
Q

It is classically described as contralateral homonymous hemianopsia and unilateral cortical blindness

A

Basilar Artery Occlusion

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56
Q

Contraindicated agent in cardiac ischemia caused by Cocaine/ Methamphetamine toxicity?

A

B-blockers

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57
Q

Most common aortic blunt injury?

A

Proximal descending aorta

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58
Q

Treatment of opoid overdose

A

Naloxone 0.1-0.4 mg IV, SC, IM (adult) or 0.1mg/kg (pedia)

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59
Q

Most serious ocular oppurtunistic infection and is the leading cause of blindness in AIDS patients?

A

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

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60
Q

Treatment of Iron Toxicity

A

Deferoxamine

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61
Q

Type III Skin abscess is caused by?

A

Vibrio Vulnificus

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62
Q

Treatment for Beta blocker toxicity

A

Glucagon 3-10 mg IV Bolus

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63
Q

Standard fronline agent for Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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64
Q

Most common artery involved in stroke

A

Middle Cerebral Artery

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65
Q

Most common STD in USA

A

C. Trachomatis

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66
Q

Romana sign and chagoma are associated with?

A

Chagas’ Disease

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67
Q

Treatment of Organosphosphate Poisoning

A

Atropine 1mg (adult)or 0.01-0.04 mg/kg (children) IV until tracheobronchial secretions stop Pralidoxime 1-2 g for adults or 20-40 mg/kg in children

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68
Q

Most common complication of lumbar puncture?

A

Post lumbar puncture headache

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69
Q

Presents with dysuria, purulent penile discharge, petechial or pustular acral skin leasions on an erythematous base, asymmetric arthralgias, tenosynovitirs or septic arthritis?

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

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70
Q

Most common cultured agent in a shunt infection?

A

Staphyloccocus epididymis

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71
Q

Most common site for epidural abscess?

A

Thoracic and Lumbar Spine

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72
Q

Second most common death in young athletes?

A

Commotio cordis

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73
Q

Neuroblastoma is often associated with this syndrome presenting as acute ataxia with rapid chaotic eye movement?

A

Opsoclonus-myoclonus

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74
Q

Headache characterized as at least 5 episodes that are severe, unilateral, lasts 15-180 min and has a circadian/circannual pattern?

A

Cluster headache

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75
Q

Most common site of spinal injury in the elderly?

A

T12-L1 and T7-T8

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76
Q

Most common cardiac manifestation in Lyme disease

A

AV Block

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77
Q

Contraindicated agents in theophylline toxicity?

A

Cimetidine Phenytoin

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78
Q

Antidote for digoxin toxicity

A

Digi-Fab

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79
Q

Most common cause of ischemic stroke in children

A

Sickle Cell Disease

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80
Q

Treatment of Anticholinergic Toxicity

A

Supportive Therapy Activated charcoal in acute ingestion Antidysrhythmia Sodium Bicarbonate Physostigmine

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81
Q

Autoimmune disorder associated with fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue in the proximal limb muscles among older men with history of cigarette smoking and lung cancer?

A

Lamber- Eaton Syndrome

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82
Q

Classic Presentation of paralysis of Upper extremities with lack of lower extremity, paralysis or weakness (cruciate paralysis) after a high energy impact?

A

Antlanto-occipital dissociation (AOD)

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83
Q

Heterophile NEGATIVE infectious mononucleosis without exudative pharyngitis, and mild lymphadenopathy

A

CMV Infection

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84
Q

Most common pelvic injury in elderly? Most common type of this injury?

A

Pubic ramus fracture, lateral compression

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85
Q

Treatment for Arsenic Poisoning?

A

Dimercaprol IM (BAL) Succimer PO- stable patients

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86
Q

Most common tick attachment?

A

Scalp

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87
Q

Single spinous process avulsion seen in the lower cervical and upper thoracic spine

A

“Clay-Shoveler”Fracture

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88
Q

Agent used to reverse heparin-induced coagulopathy?

A

Protamine 1mg per 100 U of Heparin used

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89
Q

Treatment for Methanol and Ethylene Glycol Toxicity?

A

Fomepizole 15mg/kg IV load then 10 mg/kg every 4 hours for 4 additional doses Ethanol 800 mg/kg/ IV load then 100mg/kg/h infusion IV dextrose Methanol: Folinic acid Ethylene glycol: pyridoxine Sodium Bicarb for significant met acidosis

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90
Q

Most commonly reported neurologic opportunistic infection in HIV patients

A

Toxoplasmosis Encephalitis

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91
Q

A systemic vasculitis involving medium sized- large arteries and may result to optic neuropathy and profound visual loss and contralateral ocular involvement?

A

Temporal Arteritis

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92
Q

Most common condition associated with Balanoposthisis?

A

Diabetes

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93
Q

Esophageal motility disorder that is due to failure of lower esophageal sphincter to relax and a complete absence of esophageal perilstasis

A

Achalasia

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94
Q

Most common thoracic spine fracture?

A

Simple wedge ( Compression) fracture- usually stable

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95
Q

Blast injury due to rapidly increasing then decreasing atmospheric pressure?

A

Primary Blast injury

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96
Q

Massive hemothorax is defined in the adult as a volume of at least?

A

>1500 mL

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97
Q

How much fluid collection can be seen on upright or decubitus chest radiograph?

A

>200-300 mL

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98
Q

Autoimmune disease characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, made worse after repetitive use of voluntary muscles

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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99
Q

Treatment for Opoid withdrawal?

A

Clonidine 0.1-0.3 mg PO

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100
Q

Etiologic agent for Lyme Disease?

A

B.Burgdorferi

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101
Q

First line of abortive therapy for migraine at home?

A

Triptans

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102
Q

Characterized by painless primary chancre with an appearance of purplish blue unilateral inquinal lymphadenopathy noted on the overlying skin

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

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103
Q

Treatment of TCA Toxicity?

A

Supportive Therapy Activated Charcoal Norepi or Epi Drip for Hypotension NaHCO3 for severe acidosis Magnesium Sulfate for Torsade Benzos for Seizure

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104
Q

Neuroleptic syndrome treatment?

A

Non depolarizing agent for muscle rigidity Dantrolene 0.5-2.5mg/kg

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105
Q

Most common case of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Ruptured aneurysm (75%)

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106
Q

Common cause of traveler’s Diarrhea

A

Enterotoxic E. Coli

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107
Q

Treatment of Lead Poisonin?

A

Whole bowel irrigation using Polyethylene glycol BAL ( Dimercaprol) for chelation therapy

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108
Q

Most common causes of fever without obvious localizing findings in an HIV patient?

A

Pneumocystis Jirovecii

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109
Q

Most common form of an focal neuropathy and a common etiology us injury due to repetitive use

A

Median Mononeuropathy (Carpal Tunnel Syndrome)

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110
Q

Causative agent for painful genital ulcers and Lymphadenitis

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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111
Q

Most common cardiac artery involved in cardiac traumatic injury?

A

Left anterior descending artey

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112
Q

Fallen Fragment sign is seen in fractures involving

A

Simple (unicameral) bone cyst

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113
Q

Causative agent of donovanosis?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

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114
Q

Pediatric handle injuries are commonly associated with?

A

Pancreatic and orr Small Bowel Injuries

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115
Q

Causes orolabial lesions and resides in the trigeminal ganglia?

A

HSV-1

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116
Q

Acute headache with vestibular symptoms (vertigo or ataxia) indicates what condition?

A

Cerebellar hemorrhage

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117
Q

Which bone is dorsally dislocated in a perilunate dislocation?

A

Capitate

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118
Q

Most frequently injured intra-abdominal organ from sports accident?

A

Spleen

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119
Q

Which Bone is dorsally dislocated in a perilunate disloacation

A

Capitate

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120
Q

Which ventricle is at the greatest risk in cardiac injury due to its large anterior exposure?

A

Right Ventricle

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121
Q

Transient focal deficit that is unilateral following a simple or complex focal seizure

A

Todd’s paralysis

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122
Q

What nerve root is involve with suspected cubital tunnel syndrome, presence of neck pain and worsening of symptoms with neck flexion

A

C8 Entrapment

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123
Q

Bulging fissure sign on radiologic imaging is seen in?

A

Klebsiella Pneumonia Infection

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124
Q

Treatment of severe pain in rib fractures

A

Intercostal nerve block or serratus anterior plane block with bupivacaine

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125
Q

Often responsible for most cases of HSV Encaphilitis

A

HSV 1

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126
Q

Demyelinating disorder of the peripheral nerves that involves ascending symmetric weakness or paralysis and areflexia or hyporeflexia?

A

Guillain Barre-syndrome

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127
Q

Earliest indicator in acute radiation syndrome?

A

Decrease in Lymphocytic count

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128
Q

Frontotemporal headache, neck pain, facepain , partial Horner’s syndrome

A

Carotid Artery Dissection

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129
Q

Common pathogen using Endocarditis in IV Drug users

A

S. Aureus

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130
Q

Flexion Teardrop Fracture of the Spine is associated with what injury?

A

Anterior Spinal cord Syndrome

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131
Q

Occurs in the treatment of early syphilis and presents as headache and myalgias within 24h after treatment

A

Jarisch Herxheimer reaction

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132
Q

Most commonly injured area of the neck?

A

Zone II

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133
Q

Adult and Pediatric dose of INH toxicity

A

Pedia: 70 mg/kg IV Adult 5 g IV

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134
Q

Presents with malodorous thin watery discharge, vulvar irritation, pruritus, dysuria, dyspareunia, and occassionally low abdominal pain?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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135
Q

Most common cause of CNS infection globally and the leading cause of adult onset seizure worldwide?

A

Neurocysticercosis

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136
Q

What maneuver should be considered as first line treatment for Posterior canal BPPV?

A

EPLEY Maneuver

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137
Q

Treatment of Acetaminophen Toxicity

A

Acetylcysteine

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138
Q

Treatment of Acetaminophen Toxicity

A

Acetylcysteine

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139
Q

It is characterized by deafness, vertigo and facial nerve palsy cause by Herpes zoster oticus

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

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140
Q

Most common central cause of vertigo?

A

Vestibular Migraine

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141
Q

Serum assay highly sensitive and specific for cerebrospinal fluid leakage

A

Serum Beta-2 transferrin

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142
Q

Most common sites for aspiration pneumonia after severe trauma?

A

Right and lower lung fields

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143
Q

What causes headache, transient visual obscurations, back pain, pulsatile tinnitus and papilledema with otherwise normal neuro exam?

A

Pseudomotor cerebri

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144
Q

Prosthetic valve endocarditis is mainly caused by?

A

Coagulase Negative Staphylococci

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145
Q

Treatment for Alchohol toxicity

A

IV Dextrose for Hypoglycemia Thiamine 100 mg IV or IM for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

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146
Q

Pediatric handle injuries are commonly associated with?

A

Pancreatic and Small bowel injuries

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147
Q

Imaging study of choice for mandibular fracture

A

PANOREX ( Dental Panoramic X-ray

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148
Q

Most common cause of acute hemorrhagic fever in temperate climates?

A

Neisseria meningitides

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149
Q

Bladder volume of __ is a cause for concern in a neurogenic bladder?

A

>100 mL (200mL)

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150
Q

Treatment of Cyanide Poisoning

A

Cyanide kit: Amyl nitrite inhaler, Sodium Nitrite, Sodium Thiosulfate Hydrocobalamin

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151
Q

Most common GI manifestation of Sepsis?

A

Ileus

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152
Q

First line for refractory status epilepticus?

A

Propofol 2-10mg/k/h infusion

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153
Q

Second most common neurodegenerative disorder?

A

Dementia with Lewy Bodies

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154
Q

Blunt or penetrating injuries due to materials thrown from explosive casing

A

Secondary blast injuries

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155
Q

Most common cause of blunt neck trauma

A

Road traffic accidents

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156
Q

Most common cause of fungal meningitis?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans followed by Coccidiodes immitis

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157
Q

Diffuse CNS dysfunction with lack of focal physical examination findings to point to a specific region of brain dysfunction?

A

Toxic Metabolic Coma

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158
Q

A key component of a central cause of acute vestibular syndrome

A

acute nystagmus

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159
Q

Causative agent of pontiac fever?

A

Legionella

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160
Q

Treatment for CO and Cyanide poisoning specially for patients exposed to sever smoke inhalation during a fire

A

Sodium Thiosulfate AVOID Nitrites!

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161
Q

According to AHA guidelines, when to we give aspirin for stroke patients?

A

The current AHA/ASA guidelines recommend the adminis- tration of oral (or by rectum if swallowing impairment is pres- ent) aspirin within 24 to 48 hours after stroke onset unless thrombolytics have been given within the prior 24 hours.19 No antiplatelet agent (including aspirin) should be given within 24 hours of receiving thrombolytic therapy.

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162
Q

Type of anemia seen in P. Falciparum infection?

A

Normochromic, normocytic anemia

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163
Q

Most common symptom in pseudomotor cerebri

A

Headache

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164
Q

Weakest Link in disaster management?

A

Communication

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165
Q

This type/s of ambulance have physical access between the drivers and patient care compartments?

A

Type 2 and 3 ambulance

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166
Q

Most important factor in surviving cardiac arrest?

A

Early defibrillation

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167
Q

Contraindication for applying cervical collar in the field because of potential airway compromise?

A

Patients with mandibular or soft tissue neck injuries

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168
Q

What is a operational limitation for air medical transport?

A

Weather

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169
Q

Overriding condition for air transport?

A

Safety

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170
Q

What is the largest single non-trauma indication in most helicopter EMS programs?

A

Cardiac

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171
Q

Most common complaints in cruise ships?

A

Shortness of breath and injuries

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172
Q

First and very effective method for decontamination?

A

Disrobe, brush off solid dusts or powders, wash and dry face

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173
Q

The only natural disaster where more injury and death occur during the recovery period than in acute

A

Hurricane

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174
Q

Type of primary blast injury that involves lung parenchyma exploding into alveolar spaces ( dense to less dense medium)?

A

Spalling

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175
Q

In an isolated tympanic membrane rupture after a bomb blast, you should order____ as an adjunct diagnostic?

A

Chest radiography to rule out Pulmonary barotrauma

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176
Q

Normal muscle compartment pressure? At what pressure causes muscle ischemia, irreversible nerve and muscle damage?

A

< 10 mmHg, > 30mmHg

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177
Q

Most common and consistent finding in compartment syndrome?

A

Pain

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178
Q

Type of gas that interrupt pulmonary diffusion, with a pleasant odor of new mown hay?

A

Phosgene

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179
Q

Second most common hazardous material?

A

Ammonia

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180
Q

In acute radiation syndrome at what level will have GI Sydrome and death most likely?

A

> 6 Gy

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181
Q

What preparation is used in patients with suspected molluscum contagiosum and dermatophytic infections?

A

Potassium hydroxide

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182
Q

Used in establishing diagnosis of herpes infections?

A

Tzanck Smear

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183
Q

Presence of these cells are indicative of herpes infection?

A

Multinucleated Giant Cells

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184
Q

Most frequently used topical corticosteroid in the outpatient setting?

A

Hydrocortisone

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185
Q

Corticosteroids of moderate potency used in treating severely inflamed skin and thicker skin area?

A

Triamcinolone acetonide Fluocinolone acetonide

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186
Q

Refers to the decrease in responsiveness to a drug as result of enzyme- mediated events?

A

Tachyphylaxis

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187
Q

Non tender erythema with skin flaking and scaling, thickening of skin, patient often has preexisting eczema or psoriasis

A

Exfoliative erythoderma

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188
Q

The rate of erythema multiforme recurrence is high in children with this concomitant infection?

A

Herpes simplex infection

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189
Q

Slippage of the epidermis from the dermis when slight rubbing pressure is applied to the skin

A

Nikolsky sign

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190
Q

Major complications and leading causes of death in toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Infection Hypovolemia and electrolye disordersd

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191
Q

Generalized mucocutaneous, autoimmune blistering eruption with a grave prognosis characterized by intraepidermal acatholytic blistering

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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192
Q

A severe adverse drug reaction that usually develops within 8 weeks of initiation of drug therapy?

A

Drug rash with eosinophilia and Systemic symptoms syndrome

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193
Q

Dermatologic triad of wide-spread ecchymoses, hemorrhagic bullae and epidermal necrosis

A

Purpura Fulminans

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194
Q

Side effects seen in higher potency topical corticosteroids on the face for more than a few days while treating sever seborrheic dermatitis

A

Perioral dermatitis or steroid rosacea

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195
Q

Causative agent of Tinea barbae? Treatment?

A

Tricophyton Treatment is Terbinafine 250mg PO daily 2-4 weeks

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196
Q

Results from reactivation of varicella zoster virsu in the genticulate ganglion and presents with ear pain, vesicles in the external auditory canal, facial nerve paralysis and vestibulocochlear dysfunction

A

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

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197
Q

Etiologic agents that fluoresce from Wood’s lamp?

A

Nits Lice Microsporum Malassezia

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198
Q

Most common dermatophyte infection that can spread from involvement of the feet?

A

Tricophyton rubrum and tricophyton mentagophytes

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199
Q

Appears as short chopped hyphae and yeast forms termed “sphaghetti and meatballs” under potassium hydroxide preparation?

A

Malassezia infection

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200
Q

The 5 Ps hallmark of lichen planus?

A

Purple Polygonal Pruritic Planar Papules

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201
Q

Are fine white lacy reticulate lines that adhere to the papules and are pathognomonic of Lichen Planus?

A

Wickham striae

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202
Q

This condition is identical to lichen planus except they tend to be more generalized and photodistributed and there is a history of drug ingestion?

A

Lichenoid drug eruptions

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203
Q

May present as papular lesions 2-5 mm in, generalized and are reddish to copper in color with palmar-plantar involvement with a collarete scale?

A

Secondary syphilis- late stage

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204
Q

Treatment for Secondary Syphilis?

A

Benzathine Pen G 2.4 million U IM single dose

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205
Q

A vasvular leak in the superficial dermis of the skin characterized by transient pruritic wheals and welts

A

Urticaria

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206
Q

The presence of large edematous areas that involve the deeper dermis and the subcutaneous tisse?

A

Angioedema

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207
Q

An unusual allergy characterized by acute urticaria or anaphylaxis is allergy to meat (beef, lamb, pork) 4 hours after being bitten by a Lone Star tick bite?

A

Allergy to galactose-a- 1, 3 glactose

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208
Q

Idiopathic, intensely pruritic eruption that begins in the third trimester of pregnancy?

A

Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

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209
Q

Treatment for Erythema Migrans in non-pregnant patients?

A

Doxycycline 200 mg PO-single dose

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210
Q

A symptom common with drug eruption but often absent in a viral exanthem?

A

Pruritus

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211
Q

Drug reaction that Occurs as a solitary or occasionally multiple, discrete, round to oval erythematous patches that turn dusky red or violaceous?

A

Fixed drug eruption

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212
Q

May occur within 3-5 days of initiation of warfarin and heparin that starts as a single painful area followerd by erythema that rapidly turns blue black with subsequent necrosis of the skin?

A

Anticoagulant necrosis

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213
Q

An infection after priamry exposure to varicella, the virus remains latent in the dorsal root ganglia until it later reactivates and spreads down the sensory to the skin

A

Herpes zoster

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214
Q

Most common autoimmune blistering disease in the elderly?

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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215
Q

Chemical produced by the “blister beetle”which when released after the insect is crush produces vesicles and blisters on the exposed areas?

A

Canthadrin

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216
Q

Common molluscum contagiosum seen in children? In HIV infections?

A

M. Contagiosum V1 in children, V2 in HIV infections

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217
Q

Causative agent for “Hot tub folliculitis”?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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218
Q

Causative agent for Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Human Herpesvirus 8

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219
Q

Treatment for Hidradenitis suppurativa?

A

Clindamycin 1% lotion twice daily and use of antibacterial soaps such as chlorhexidine, once to twice daily

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220
Q

Rapidly developing ulcer that begins as a pustule or erythematous nodule and has violaceous over hanging borders

A

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

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221
Q

Triad of diabetic foot ulcers?

A

Neuropathy Deformity Trauma

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222
Q

Third most common chronic mycobacterial infection in humans?

A

Buruli Ulcer caused by Mycobacterium ulcerans

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223
Q

Involves direct injury of the peripheral nerves of the foot sustained from prolonged cooling and accelerate by wet conditions?

A

Trench foot

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224
Q

Characterized by mild but uncomfortable inflammatory lesions of the skin caused by long-term intermittent exposure to damp, non-freezing ambient temperatures.

A

Chillblains aka pernio

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225
Q

Treatment for Chillblains?

A

Nifedipine Pentoxyfylline Limaprost

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226
Q

Mild necrosis of subcutaneous fat tissue that develops during prolonged exposure to temperatures just above freezing?

A

Panniculitis

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227
Q

At what skin temp does frostbite occur?

A

Skin temp is <0 C( <32 F)

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228
Q

Zone in frostbite injury that may benefit if the circulation in the frozen area can be restored

A

Zone of Stasis

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229
Q

Most susceptible tisse to frostbite injuries

A

Bone marrow

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230
Q

Frostbite injuries that involve tissue loss of entire thickness of the skin, hemorrhagic blisters

A

Third Degree

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231
Q

First definitive step of frostbite therapy and should be initiated as soon as the risk of refreezing injury can be avoided

A

Rapid rewarming @ 37C-39 C ( 98.6 to 102.2 F) for 20-30 minute

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232
Q

When should thrombolytic therapy be given as management of pulse deficits after rewarming of frostbite injury?

A

Within 24h

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233
Q

Involuntary drop in core temperature below 35 C (<95 F)?

A

Accidental hypothermia

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234
Q

Type of heat loss that occurs when a warm body makes direct contact with a cold object?

A

Conductive heat loss

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235
Q

A type of heat loss that occurs due to the energy required for water to phase change from a liquid to a gas?

A

Evaporative heat loss

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236
Q

Referred as the continuing drop fo core temp even after the patient is removed from the cold environment?

A

Afterdrop

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237
Q

Most common iatrogenic causes of hypothermia?

A

Massive transfusion and large volume crystalloid resuscitation

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238
Q

Used to describe cardiac arrest that can commonly occur during extrication, transport or treatment of a deeply hypothermic patient?

A

Rescue collapse

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239
Q

Expected dysrhythmias seen in hypothermic cardiac response?

A

Atrial fibrillation and flutter

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240
Q

Can be misdiagnosed as ST Elevation MI and usually occurs below 32 C?

A

Osborn J waves

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241
Q

The renal response to hypothermia?

A

Cold Diuresis

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242
Q

Preferred site for core temp measurement in an intubated patient as it closely measures cardiac temp?

A

24cm below the larynx or lower third of the esophagus

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243
Q

Type of heat injury that occurs during periods of high environmental stress, and over a period of hours to days?

A

Classic heat injury

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244
Q

Acute inflammation of the sweat ducts caused by blockage of the sweat pores by macerated stratum corneum

A

Prickly heat aka Lichen tropicus

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245
Q

Cardinal Symptoms of heat stroke?

A

Hyperthermia and altered mental status

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246
Q

What cross reacts with individuals sensitized to other hymenoptera stings?

A

Fire ant venom

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247
Q

Causes target lesions associated with immediate pinprick sensation, diffuse myalgias involving larger muscle groups after being bitten

A

Black widow bites

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248
Q

Only North american scorpion that produces systemic toxicity

A

Bark Scorpion ( Centruroides Sculpturatus)

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249
Q

Systemic ascending paralysis caused by tick borne illness

A

Tick paralysis

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250
Q

Initial bite of this insect is painless and linear, feed on blood of sleeping victims

A

Kissing Bugs and Bed Bugs (Hemiptera)

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251
Q

An absence of systemic symptoms or hematologic abnormalities after 8-12 hour after an unidentified snake bite indicate?

A

Dry bite

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252
Q

Treatment for Crotaline snakes or pit viper bite?

A

Crotalidae Immune Fab (Fab AV): 4-6 vials + 250 cc NSS over one hour then repeat dose of 4-6 vials if initials control is not achieved

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253
Q

Immediate cause of death after an Elapid snake bite?

A

Paralysis of respiratory muscles

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254
Q

Antibiotic for marine associated wound infections cause by vibrio Species Coverage

A

Fluoroquinolone

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255
Q

Treatment for jellyfish envenomation?

A

Irrigation with seawater and hot water immersion, Application of topical lidocaine

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256
Q

Characterized by mild local effects with localized pain and erythema. 20-30 minutes later, severe generalized pain in the abdomen, back chest head and limbs develop after being bitten by the Australian box jellyfish

A

Irukandji Syndrome

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257
Q

How many hours should a diver wait before flying after the last divibg exposure?

A

12 to 24h?

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258
Q

Absolutr contraindication to hyperbaric therapy?

A

Untreated pneumothorax

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259
Q

Factors associated with poor resuscitation prognosis in near drowning?

A

Need for bystander CPR at scene CPR in the ED Asystole at the ED after warming

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260
Q

Factors associated with poor resuscitation prognosis in near drowning?

A

Need for bystander CPR at scene CPR in the ED Asystole at the ED after warming

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261
Q

The critical driver of altitude illness

A

Sleeping altitude

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262
Q

A drug induces bicarbonate diuresis, greatly facilitates this process thru its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, thus counteracting ascent-related respiratory alkalosis

A

Acetazolamide

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263
Q

Criteria for an unacclimitize persons become unconscious?

A

SaO2- 50-60% PaO2- <30mmHg JVPO2- < 15mmHg

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264
Q

A syndrome characterized by headache along with some combination of nausea or vomiting, dizziness, fatigue or sleep disturbance and occurs in the setting of more gradual and less severe hypoxic insult than acute hypoxia syndrome?

A

Acute Mountain Sickness

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265
Q

Side effects of high dose acetazolamide?

A

Peripheral Paresthesias Nausea Drowsiness

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266
Q

Defined by progressive neurologic deterioration or ataxia in individual who has recently ascended to high altitude?

A

High altitude cerebral edema

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267
Q

Highest priority in treatment of HACE?

A

Descent (Then O2 supplementation and steriod therapy)

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268
Q

Main etiology for High altitude PE?

A

High microvascular pressure

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269
Q

Hallmark of High altitude PE?

A

Progression of dyspnea with exertion to dyspnea t rest

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270
Q

Treatment of choice for HAPE?

A

Immediate descent

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271
Q

Prophylaxis for those who have previously experience HAPE

A

Nifedipine 20 mg every 8 hours while ascending

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272
Q

Blunts hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction thru generation of nitric oxide, prevents HAPE in susceptible individuals

A

Tadalafil > sildenafil

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273
Q

Characterized by excessive polycythemia for a given altitude which causes symptoms of headache, muddle thinking, difficulty of sleeping, impaired peripheral circulation, drowsiness and chest congestion

A

Monge’s disease or chronic mountain sickness

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274
Q

Two major asphyxiants?

A

Carbon monoxide and Hydrogen cyanide

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275
Q

Corner stone of initial treatment for chemical burn

A

Agressive large volume irrigation

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276
Q

Most important chemical burn feature that HCW may alter

A

Contact time

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277
Q

Use to remove or rinse phenol or carbolic acid injury?

A

isopropyl alcohol rinse is equivalent to polyethylene glycol

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278
Q

Most common orthopedic injury commonly seen in electrical injury

A

posterior shoulder dislocations

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279
Q

Neurologic/ msucular stunning associated with cardio respiratory arrest after a lightning injury

A

Keraunoparalysis

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280
Q

Pathognomonic for lightning strike injury, consist of a red superficial feathering or ferning patter

A

Lichtenberg figures

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281
Q

Mushrooms causing muscarinic poisoning

A

Inocybe annd Clitocybe genera (SLUDGE)

282
Q

Amatoxin in A. phalloides that appears the most psychoactive

A

a- aminitin

283
Q

Time to peak Carbon monoxide levels is

A

>8hours

284
Q

Common area of the brain most sensitive to neurotoxic effects of CO?

A

Basal Ganglia

285
Q

The only accurate measurement tool for carboxyhemoglobin?

A

Co-oximetry

286
Q

CO poisoning is associated with one specific radiographic finding?

A

Globus pallidus lesions

287
Q

Most common cardiovascular cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

288
Q

Most frequent coronary artery anomaly?

A

Anomalous origin of the left coronary artery from the Pulmonary artery syndrome

289
Q

Most commonly affect men and consists of a prominent J-wave with a characteristic downsloping ST-segment elevation in ECG leads V1-V3

A

Brugada Syndrome

290
Q

Characterized as prominent notch like J wave on the QRS downlope, followed by upsloping of ST Segment elevation

A

Early repolarization syndrome

291
Q

Type of shock described by increase preload, increased afterload, increase SVR, decareas CO

A

Cardiogenic shock

292
Q

End points of Resuscitation:

A

MAP >65mmhg CVP of 8-12 mmHg ScVO2>70% UO >0.5ml/kg/h during ED Resuscitation

293
Q

Commonly used in trauma centers and EDs to detect occult shock

A

Measurement of lactate and base deficit

294
Q

Acceptable SBP target for hypotensive resuscitation?

A

110 mmHg for civilian trauma and 100 mmHg for combat casualties

295
Q

Massive transfusion pack consists of ?

A

6 U RBCS 4 U FFP One (5 pack) platelet

296
Q

Common side effext for massive transfusion?

A

Hypocalcemia

297
Q

Responsible for initiating vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability, heart rate contraction and glandular secretion during an anaphylactic reaction

A

Histamin

298
Q

Alternative agent for patients with anaphylaxis but are taking beta blockers?

A

Glucagon IV

299
Q

Best screening test for hereditary angioedema?

A

C4 level < 30% of normal

300
Q

Ig- E mediated allergic reaction to ingestion of red meat containing mammalian oligosaccharide epitope alpha-gal

A

Galactose- alpha-1,3- galactose (Mammallian meat allergy

301
Q

Chronic hypoventilation seen in extremely obese patients

A

Pickwickian syndrome

302
Q

Normal Alverolar-arterial gradient (PaO2/FiO2 ration) in young adults?

A

<15mmHG

303
Q

Factitiously low value of [Na+] that occurs in the setting of sever hyperproteinemia and hyperlipidemia

A

Pseudohyponatremia or Iso-Osmolar Hyponatremia

304
Q

Impaired ability of kidney to reabsorb free water, associated with polyuria, polydipsia and increased volume of hypoosmalar urine

A

Diabetes insipidus

305
Q

Most common cause of hyperkalemia?

A

Factitious hyperkalemia

306
Q

Occurs when a patient is treated with mannitol, which binds to molybdate in the serum causing an artificially low value when phosphate is measured

A

Pseudohypophosphatemia

307
Q

Initial treatment for symptomatic patients with congenital long QT syndrome

A

B-blockers

308
Q

Agents indicated for the conversion of recent-onset atrial fibrillation (<7days) to sinus rhythm

A

Propafenon and flecainide

309
Q

Antiarrhythmic agent reserved for patients in whom atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter is highly symptomatic and alternative safer agents are contraindicated?

A

Dofetilide

310
Q

Most commonly used push dosed pressor for acute onset hypotension?

A

Phenylephrine

311
Q

Metatarsal shaft fracture in unconditioned foot soldier?

A

March Fracture

312
Q

Gustillo- Anderson Classification caused by High energy fracture pattern with a wound > 10 Cm and gross contamination

A

Grade IIIA

313
Q

COntraindication of sling and swathe principle in the prehospital level

A

Anterior dislocation of the shoulder

314
Q

Possible injury sustained by a direct blow to the anterior shoulder, fall on the outstretched arm, seizure or electroconvulsive muscular activity

A

Posterior dislocation of the shoulder

315
Q

Two important nerves to be inspected if there is a suspected anterior dislocation of the shoulders

A

Axillary nerve and the musculocutaneous nerve

316
Q

Splint used for fracture of the proximal phalanx of the ring finger or little finger or for fracture of the fourth and fifth metacarpala?

A

Short arm Ulnar gutter

317
Q

Normal 2 point discrimination width for a sensory exa?m?

A

4-6mm

318
Q

Compartment pressures exceeding ____ results in Compartment syndrome?

A

30 mmHg

319
Q

Muscles that composes the Thenar Muscles?

A

abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis and flexor pollicis brevis

320
Q

Froment’s sign is indicative of what pathology?

A

Ulnar nerve injury

321
Q

Flexor tendon injury zone considered a no man’s land due to poor outcomes?

A

Zone II

322
Q

Most common tendon injury in athletes?

A

Mallet Finger

323
Q

Result’s from chronic mallet finger, when the lateral bands are displaced dorsally resulting in increast extension forces on the PIP Joint

A

Swan Neck Deformity

324
Q

Most common distal phalanx fracture and associated with nail bed lacerations?

A

Tuft Fractures

325
Q

High pressure injection injury occurs at what pressure?

A

2000-10000 psi

326
Q

Area between two palmar arches that is inherently weak?

A

Space of Poirier

327
Q

Most common fracture in the wrist

A

Fracture of the distal radius

328
Q

Most commonly injured ligament of the wrist?

A

Scapholunate ligament

329
Q

Second most common carpal bone injury?

A

Triquetrum fractures

330
Q

Vertical fractures and are analogous to a Bennet’s fracture

A

Trapezium Fracture

331
Q

Association of scaphoid and capitate fracture

A

Scapholunate syndrome

332
Q

Elbow “terrible triad” injury?

A

Elbow dislocation Fracture of the radial head and fracture of the coronoid

333
Q

Most often occur after a fall on an oustretched hand with the elbow in full flexion

A

Extension-Type Supracondylar Fractures

334
Q

Affected structure with supracondylar fracture?

A

Anterior interosseous nerve

335
Q

What nerve is affected in olecranon fractures?

A

Ulnar nerve injury

336
Q

Disruption of the triangular fibrocartilage complex of the wrist and interosseus membrane between the radius and ulna, causing dissociation of the distal radioulnar joint

A

Essex- lopresti lesion

337
Q

Fracture resulting from the natural response to raise the forearm in defense of a strike?

A

Isolated Ulna Fracture or Nightstick fracture

338
Q

Fracture of the distal third of the radial shaft accompanied by a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

A

Galeazzi’s Fracture-dislocation

339
Q

Major suspensory ligament of the upper extremity and provides vertical stability tot the AC JOINT?

A

Coracoclavicular ligmaent

340
Q

Most common structure injured in anterior glenohumeral joint dislocation?

A

Axillary Nerve

341
Q

Most common complication of Glenohumeral Dislocation?

A

Recurrence of dislocation

342
Q

Most common site for humeral fracture?

A

Middle third of the humerus

343
Q

Gold standard in evaluating pelvic injury?

A

CT- Scan of the Abdomen

344
Q

Most common cause of pathologic femur fractures in pediatric patients?

A

Unicameral bone cysts

345
Q

Blood loss can be as high as ____ mL in femoral shaft fractures

A

1200 mL

346
Q

Pathognomonic of ACL injury?

A

Segond’s fracture

347
Q

Commonly injured and represents 85% of all ankle sprains

A

Lateral ligament complex

348
Q

Untreated midfoot injuries in diabetics can lead to the development of____

A

Charcot’s foot

349
Q

Irreversible damage in compartment syndrome occurs after___ without treatment

A

8 hours

350
Q

Most effective modality for ROSC?

A

Early Defibrillation

351
Q

Initial treatment and dose for treatment of torsade de pointes?

A

Magnesium: In cardiac arrrest: 1-2 gm + 10 cc D5W in 1 minute If with pulse 1-4 gm + 50c D5W in 60 min

352
Q

Most likely sinus wall to break in blunt eye trauma?

A

Ethmoid bone

353
Q

Px experiences painless monocular vision loss associated with a history of atrial fibrillation and carotid stenosis?

A

Central retinal arterial occlusion

354
Q

Signaled by “flashing lights” and curtain/veil”Vision?

A

Retinal detachment

355
Q

Caused by pathology that prevent light from getting to the CNS and the swinging flash test notes dilation of the opposit pupil if their is an afferent pupillary defect

A

Marcus Gunn Pupil

356
Q

Normal intraocular pressure?

A

10-20 mmHg

357
Q

Shining a light on the unaffected eye causes pain the affected eye is highly suggestive of what condition? Treatment?

A

Iritis Tx: homatropine/tropicamide to decrease pain

358
Q

Painless vision loss and sudden appearance of black spots/ generalized hazy vision associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Subhyaloid hemorrhage (vitreous hemorrhage0

359
Q

Contraindicate in large corneal abrasions in the central axis

A

Topical anesthetic

360
Q

Eye condition associated with Sickle cell disease

A

Spontaneous Hyphema

361
Q

A complication of pharyngitis causing suppurative thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein, with or without bacteremia and septic emboli?

A

Lemierre’s syndrome

362
Q

Careful drainage of the peritonsillar abscess should be done in order to avoid damaging the____?

A

Internacl carotid artery

363
Q

Most frequent site for orbital blow out fractures?

A

Inferior wall (maxillary sinus) and medial wall ( ethmoid sinus through the lamina papyracea

364
Q

Treatment for global rupture

A

metal eye shield, Broad spectrum antibiotics, elevate head, sedation, analgesia and TT vaccine, definitive: ophthalmology surgery

365
Q

Clinical findings of eye pain, proptosis, impaired EOMs and decrease vision, an afferent pupilary defect and intraocular pressure > 40 mmHg

A

Postseptal hemorrhage Treatment for orbital compartment sydrome: lateral canthotomy

366
Q

Condition precipitated by intranasal coccaine use, nebulization of B- sympathomimetic and anticholinergic medications?

A

Acute angle -closure glaucoma

367
Q

Clinical findings of eye pain, cloudy cornea, fixed midposition pupil and rock hard globe? Treatment

A

Acute angle -closure glaucoma Tx; Acetazolamide, Topical timolol, topical apraclonidine

368
Q

Sudden profound painless monocular loss of vision preceded by amaurosis fugax

A

Central artery occlusion

369
Q

Vague blurring to rapid, painless and monocular loss of vision, with fundoscope finding so of optic disk edema and diffuse retinal hemorrhage

A

Central retinal vein occlusion

370
Q

findings of flashes of light, floaters, and a dark veil or curtain in field of vision and decreased peripheral and/or central visual acuity

A

Retinal detachment

371
Q

Causes Inhibition of ipsilateral medial gaze and upward gaze, downward gaze and ptosis?

A

Acute Cranial Nerve III palsy secondary to Post. communicating artery aneurysm

372
Q

Neck pain and acute findings ptosis and miosis and anhidrosis?

A

Carotid artery dissection

373
Q

Most common fibular fracture results in an oblique injury at the tibio-fibular syndesmosis which is usually disrupted?

A

Fracture of distal fibula With deltoid ligament rupture

374
Q

The appropriate PCO2 range for hyperventilation the results in modest cerebral vasoconstriction without hypoxia?

A

30-35 mmHg

375
Q

Earliest symptom noted in patients with GBS?

A

muscle weakess

376
Q

Classical contraindications to digoxin toxicity?

A

IV Calcium transvenous and transcutaneous pacing electrical cardioversion

377
Q

Strongest risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Prior ectopic pregnancy

378
Q

“Wine and cheese” reaction is associated with?

A

Use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors

379
Q

Stable Spinal fractures?

A

wedge fracture spinous and transverse process fractures unilateral facet dislocation vertebral burst fracture (with the exception of a Jefferson fracture, which is a burst fracture of C1).

380
Q

The presentation of a painless morning limp that improves throughout the day in children less than 10 years old and is associated with uveitis?

A

Pauciarticular juvenile arthritis

381
Q

Initial treatment of idiopathic sensorineural hearing loss

A

Prednisone 60 mg OD x 7days

382
Q

Topical Agents safe for TM perforations in Acute Otitis Externa?

A

Ciprofloxacin, dexamethason and ofloxacin

383
Q

first Cranial nerve to be affected by cranial extension of malignant otitis externa

A

Cranial Nerve 7

384
Q

Initial treatment of Acute otitis media?

A

Amoxicilin 1gm TID

385
Q

Most common intracranial complications of Otitis Media?

A

Meningitis and brain abscess

386
Q

Most common complication of cochlear implants?

A

dizziness and vestibular symptoms

387
Q

Most common causative agent of facial cellulitis?

A

Streptococcus species

388
Q

discrete, superficial bacterial epidermal infection characterized by amber crusts or fluid filled vesicles common in children

A

Impetigo

389
Q

Most common causative agent of viral parotitis?

A

Paramyxovirus

390
Q

Conditions associated with mumps in adults?

A

Unilateral orchitis and oophoritis

391
Q

characteriized by unilateral swelling and tenderness around the salivary gland, that is also exacerbated by meals

A

Sialolithiasis

392
Q

Radiographic view preferred for TMJ injuries

A

Panorex view

393
Q

Most common manibular dislocation

A

Anterior mandibular dislocation

394
Q

Most common source of nosebleeds?

A

Kiesselbach plexus

395
Q

Inflammation of the operculum or the gingival tissue overlying the occlusal surface of an erupting tooth

A

Pericoronitis

396
Q

definitive treatment for irreversible pulpitis

A

Root canal therapy or dental extraction

397
Q

Extension of pulp disease, inflammation or necrosis into the tissues surrounding the root and the apex of the tooth.

A

Periradicular periodontitis

398
Q

Cellulitis of bilateral submandibular spaces and lingual space

A

Ludwig’s Angina

399
Q

Most common cause of gingival abscess?

A

entrapment of foreign matter

400
Q

Characterized by pain, ulcerated or punched out interdental papillae and gingival bleeding

A

Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

401
Q

Mainstay of treatment for Vincent’s disease?

A

Chlorhexidine oral rinse BID and professional debridement and scaling are the mainstay of treatment

402
Q

drugs with strongest association to gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin, nifedipine and cyclosporine

403
Q

treatment of choice for total displacement of tooth from its socket?

A

Replantation at the scene

404
Q

A complication of pharyngitis causing suppurative thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein with or without bacteremia and septic emboli

A

Lemierre’s syndrome

405
Q

A structure to avoid during careful drainage of peritonsillar abscess

A

Internal carotid artery

406
Q

The “thumb print sign” suggests what disorder?

A

Epiglotittis

407
Q

Diagnostic of Choice of retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Contrast Enhanced CT of the neck

408
Q

Most significant posttonsillectomy bleeding occurs betwern day ____?

A

5 to 10 days post op

409
Q

The greatest risk for non-obstetric cause of death?

A

Major Trauma

410
Q

Vasopressors that are Category C of pregnant patients?

A

Phenylephrine and Ephedrine

411
Q

Most common cause of septic shock in pregnancy?

A

Pyelonephritis

412
Q

Medications contraindicated in Resuscitation of Pregnant patients

A

Amiodarone Magnesium Sulfate

413
Q

Preferred Surgical airway for children under age 8?

A

Tracheotomy

414
Q

Vascular structure often injured during cricothyrotomy?

A

Thyroid ima artery

415
Q

Most common cause of death in patients with an implantable cardioverter-defibrillators?

A

Congestive heart failure

416
Q

Most catastrophic complication of fibrinolytics?

A

Intracranial bleeding

417
Q

Results from inflammation adjacent on the epicardial surface of a transmural infarction often 2-4 days after an AMI?

A

Pericarditis

418
Q

Late post-AMI syndrome occurs 2 to 10 weeks after AMI presenting with chest pain fever and pleuro pericarditis?

A

Dressler’s syndrome

419
Q

Most sensitive diagnostic test for Carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Phalen test

420
Q

Reflex mediated syncope associated with carotid sinus hypersensitivity characterized by bradycardia or hypotension?

A

Carotis sinus syndrome

421
Q

Most frequent psychiatric diagnosis associated with syncope?

A

General anxiety disorder and major depressive disorder

422
Q

Most common cause of mitral stenosis worldwide?

A

Mitral stenosis

423
Q

Most common cause of mitral regurgitation primarily see in the elderly?

A

Fibroelastic deficiency syndrome

424
Q

Most common valvular heart disease in industrialized countries?

A

Mitral valve prolapase

425
Q

Classic triad of aortic stenosis

A

Dyspnea, chest pain and syncope

426
Q

Characterized by RV dilatation accompanied by normal LV wall thickness

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

427
Q

Echocardiographic hallmark for LV Hypertrophy Cardiomyopathy?

A

LV Wall thickening > 15mm

428
Q

Should be considered in patients presenting with congestive heart failure but no evidence of cardiomegaly or systolic dysfunction?

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

429
Q

Most common and important physical finding in pericarditis?

A

Pericardial friction rub

430
Q

Patients without prior heart disease generally begin to experience symptom from PE at least ____ of lung vasculature?

A

20%

431
Q

Joints with the highest risk for venous thromboemoblism?

A

HIP

432
Q

Calf pain that occurs with passive foot dorsiflexion in patients with DVT?

A

Homan’s sign

433
Q

Unfractionated heparin dose for DVT and PE

A

80 U/kg then 18 Ukg/h infusion

434
Q

Best imaging of choice for diagnosis VTE in pregnancy?

A

Pulmonary vascular imaging

435
Q

Withdrawal syndrome occurs with abrupt discontinuation of oral or transdermal clonidine, potentiated by B-blockers

A

Acute catecholaminergic syndrome

436
Q

First line agent for patients with pheochromocytoma and a hypertensive emergency?

A

IV phentolamine

437
Q

Most common ECG abnormality in Pulmonary Hypertension?

A

Right Axis deviation

438
Q

Most common cardiovascular complication of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Aortic root disease and Type A dissection

439
Q

Treatment of choice for aortic dissection?

A

Antihypertensives: B-blocker- Esmolol ( 0.1-0.5 mg/kg IV in one minute then 0.025 to 0.2 mg/kg/min infusion) and Labetalol ( 10-20 mg IV max of 300 mg) Vasodilators: IV nicardipine, clevidipine, Nitroglycerine, and nitroprussied

440
Q

Most common peripheral aneurysm?

A

Popliteal artery aneurysms

441
Q

Classic triad of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

Abdominal pain, pulsatile abdominal mass, hypotension

442
Q

Diameter of aortic aneurysm where surgical repair should be considered?

A

> or equal to 5 cm

443
Q

Characterized by jaundice, biliary colic and upper GI bleeding associated with hemobilia?

A

Leaking hepatic artery aneurysm

444
Q

Most common cause of acute limb ischemia?

A

Thrombotic occlusion

445
Q

Most common areas where emboli tends to lodge, causing limb ischemia?

A

Bifurcation of femoral artery followed popliteal artery

446
Q

Ankle brachial index threshold for chronic peripheral arterial disease?

A

ABI of <0.9

447
Q

Therapy of choice of Acute limb ischemia?

A

IV UFH ( 80 U/kg as IV bolus then 18 U/kg/h infusion Cilostazol

448
Q

Considered to be the Gold Standard for quantifying the severity of px pain?

A

Self reporting

449
Q

An opoid that weakly binds inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, producing central opoid analgesic?

A

Tramadol

450
Q

An effective analgesic for mild to moderate pain but not effective for persistent to chronic pain?

A

Acetaminophen

451
Q

Preferred opoids for patients with renal failure?

A

Hydromorphone and fentanyl

452
Q

Analgesics contraindicated in patients with MAJOR trauma?

A

NSAIDS

453
Q

Treatment for patients with local anesthetic systemic toxicity?

A

IV 20% lipid emulsion, start at 1.5 ml/kg infused over 1 minute then 0.25ml/kg based on lean body mass infused for 10 minutes. Max of 10ml/kg

454
Q

Amides the can cause methemoglobin?

A

Prilocaine and benzocaine

455
Q

Normal 2 point discrimination at the the fingertips?

A

< 6mm

456
Q

Anesthetic of choice for femoral nerve blocks?

A

Ropivacaine

457
Q

Characterized by a level of depressed consciousness and a slower but purposeful motor response to verbal or tactile stimuli?

A

Moderate Sedation

458
Q

Sedative of choice from procedures such as cardioversion?

A

Etomidate 0.1-0.2mg/kg

459
Q

Etomidate is characterized by 2 side effects?

A

Adrenocortical suppression and myoclonus

460
Q

Is a potentially damaging complication after repair of auricular lacerations?

A

Perichondral hematoma

461
Q

Most common bacterial species isolated from human bite wounds?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

462
Q

Hallmark of significant right to left shunting?

A

Failure of arterial oxygen levels to increase in response to supplemental oxygen

463
Q

Nerves involved in the hiccup reflex?

A

Phrenic, vagus and thoracic sympathetic chain

464
Q

Drug treatment for persistent hiccups?

A

Chlorpromazine and metoclopramid

465
Q

First line of choice of treatment for traveler’s diarrhea in South and Southeast Asia?

A

Azithromyicin 1000 mg in a single dose

466
Q

How much fluid is there for pleural fluid in the hemithorax to be seen in upright chest radiography?

A

150-200 mL

467
Q

Acute drainage of larger volumes in patients with pleural effusion may result in?

A

Reexpansion pulmonary edem

468
Q

What is false aneurysm of dilated blood vessels crossing the wall of a tuberculosis cavity?

A

Rasmaussen’s aneurysm?

469
Q

Leading cause of hemoptysis world-wide?

A

Tuberculosis

470
Q

Preferred diagnostic tool for evaluating massive hemoptysis?

A

Multidetector CT

471
Q

Initial and most effective treatment of massive recurrent hemoptysis?

A

Bronchial artery embolization followed by bronchoscopy

472
Q

Most common document causative agent in acute bronchitis?

A

Respiratory viruses

473
Q

Most common causal agent for the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus

474
Q

Treatment of choice for pertussis?

A

Azithromycin 500 mg PO on day 1 and 250 mg PO on days 2-5

475
Q

New pulmonary infection occuring more than or equal to 48 hours after hospital admission?

A

Hospital-acquired pneumonia

476
Q

Most common cause of severe community acquired pneumoniae in otherwise health individuals?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia and Legionalla

477
Q

Causative agent for Community acquired pneumonia, presenting as multiple patchy nonsegmental infiltrates with occasional cavitation and pleural effusion?

A

Legionella pneumophilia

478
Q

Causative organism transmitted via infected animal through dried urine that is inhaled or unpasteurized milk, causing pneumonia, endocarditis and hepatitis?

A

Q fever- Coxiella burnetti

479
Q

Most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in patients with HIV?

A

S. Pneumonia

480
Q

The risk of pneumocystis pneumonia is more likely when the CD4+ count is ?

A

<200 cells/mm3

481
Q

Second leading infectious cause of death especially among those with HIV?

A

Tuberculosis

482
Q

Is a tubercle appearing as calcified hilar lymph nodes?

A

Ghon complex

483
Q

Most common extrapulmonary site of TB?

A

Lymphatic system

484
Q

Most common chest radiograph finding in TB patients?

A

Normal Chest radiograph

485
Q

Hypercalcemia noted in any patient’s receiving treatment for tuberculosis?

A

Paradoxical reaction or immune reconstiution syndrome

486
Q

Most common extrapulmonary presentation of tuberculosis in children?

A

Cervical lymphadenitis

487
Q

Air medical experts recommend no high-altitude flying for how many days after an pneumothorax resolution?

A

7-14 days

488
Q

Best predecitor of hospitalization in patients with acute asthma in the ED?

A

Repeat FEV1 + PEFR 1 hour after treatment

489
Q

Most common early complications of bariatic surgery patients?

A

Leakages, stenosis and bleeding

490
Q

Abdominal compartment syndrome occurs as increased intrabdomonal pressure is ____?

A

>20mmHg

491
Q

A syndrome characterized by recurrent nausea and vomiting seperated by a symptom-free period?

A

Cyclic vomiting syndrome

492
Q

Most common causative agent that involves onset of diarrhea after administration of antibiotics or 2 weeks of their discontinuation?

A

Clostridium difficile

493
Q

One of the most common causes of myocardial ischemia and infarction in infants, mostly anterolateral infarct?

A

Anomalous coronary artery arising from the pulmonary artyer

494
Q

Toxic megacolon most likely develops in?

A

advanced Ulcerative colitis

495
Q

A clinical disorder with signs and symptoms and radiographic appearance of acute large bowel obstruction with no evidence of distal colonic obstruction?

A

Ogilvie’s syndrome

496
Q

type of diverticulosis most likely to bleed?

A

right sided diverticula

497
Q

Has more potential value over angiography if lower GI bleed occurs intermittently, but requires a minimum of 3mL of blood to pool

A

Scintigraphy

498
Q

Full thickness perforation of the esophagus after a sudden rise in intraesophageal pressure?

A

Boerhaave’s syndrome

499
Q

What kind of anemia is H. pylori infection is associated with?

A

iron-deficiency anemia

500
Q

most common cause of dyspepsia?

A

70% no definite findings on endoscopy

501
Q

Biomarker more specific to pancreatic injury and remains elevated for longer after the onset of symptoms ?

A

Lipase

502
Q

Most complication of gallstone disease?

A

Biliary colic

503
Q

Most sensitive and specific serum marker of choledocholithiasis?

A

Abnormal y- glutamyl transpeptidase

504
Q

the decompression procedure of choice for patients with cholangitis?

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatograohy

505
Q

gall bladder wall infection more common in diabetic older patients?

A

Emphysematous chiolecystitis

506
Q

Classic radiographic findings of small bowel obstruction, pneumobilia and ectopic gallstone

A

Gallstone ileus

507
Q

hallmark of liver failure?

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy

508
Q

biomarker more specific to hepatocyte inury?

A

Alanine aminotransferase

509
Q

Ascitic fluid aspirate with a total wbc >1000/mm3 or neurtophil count >250/mm3 points to what condition?

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

510
Q

One of the most common causes of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatitis C virus

511
Q

Recommended albumin dose for every ascites fluid removed that is greater than 4L?

A

IV albumin 6-8 mg for every liter of fluid removed

512
Q

First line of treatment for Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis?`

A

Cefotaxime

513
Q

What stage of Hepatic encephalopathy presents with stupor hyperreflexia, extensor plantar reflexes

A

Stage III (Stage I- general apathy, stage II- lethargy, drowsiness, variable orientaiton, asterixis, Stage IV-coma)

514
Q

Current Mainstaty of treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose (oral: 20 gm in glass of water or 300 mL syrup in 700 cc of water or NSS via rectum)

515
Q

What is the thrombotic obstruction of the post hepatic portal venous system , has both acute and chronic presentation that progress from abdominal pain and hepatomegaly through ascites?

A

Budd-Chiari Syndrome or Hepatic Vein thrombosis

516
Q

The most common position for routine digital reactal examination and anoscopy?

A

Lateral sims position

517
Q

Findings that include painless, bright red rectal bleeding and defecation

A

internal hemorrhoids

518
Q

Presents as tearing pain with defecation and rectal bleeding but invariably subsides between movements?

A

Anal fissures

519
Q

Characterized as anal pain, spasm and itching with out without bleeding?

A

Cryptitis

520
Q

Condition producing painless, blood stained mucus, peri-anal itching and malodorous discharge associated with throbbing pain that is constant and worsened by sitting, moving and defecation?

A

Fistula- in- ano

521
Q

Most common location of anorectal abscess?

A

perianal

522
Q

the only typer of anorectal abscess that can be adequately treated in the ED?

A

Isolated perianal abscess

523
Q

May appear as painless, maroon colored protruding anal mass with possible mucus and blood.

A

Rectal prolapse

524
Q

Third most common site of malignatn melanoma?

A

anal canal

525
Q

Common cause of pruritis ani in children?

A

Pinworms ( enterobius vermicularis)

526
Q

Most common location of abscessed pilonidal sinus

A

Posterior midline over the sacrum and coccyx

527
Q

Results from the blockage of perianal surface containing hair follicles and apocrine sweat glands

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

528
Q

Earliest cause of post op fever in General Surgical Patients?

A

Atelectasis

529
Q

rectal prolapse can occur after any anorectal surgery and likely is related to what injury?

A

Puborectalis muscle

530
Q

Diagnostic of choice as initial imaging modality in both pregnant females and children with suspected acute appendicitis>?

A

Graded Compression USD

531
Q

Treatment for immunocompetent patients that have CT-confirmed, uncomplicated acute diverticulitis with mild symptoms and without systemic red flags?

A

Observation without antibiotics

532
Q

Most common cause of cause of small bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesions after abdominal surgery

533
Q

Most common cause of post renal AKI in the elderly?

A

Prostatic hyperthrophy

534
Q

Medications that causes arterial changes precipitating significant AKi in a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis?

A

Angiontensin converting ezyme inhibitors

535
Q

Criteria for witholding metformin in patients for IV Contrast imaging?

A

GFR < or = to 30 ml/mon/ 1.73 m2 at the tim of contrast infusion and 48h post procedure

536
Q

Most common reasons for emergent dialysis?

A

Fluid overload Hyperkalemia Severe acid base disturbance

537
Q

Most common reason for non emergent dialysis?

A

UREMIA

538
Q

Most frequent neurologic manifestationsn of ESRD, associated with greater lower limb involvement

A

Peripheral neuropathy

539
Q

Most common cause of heart failure in ESRD patients?

A

Hypertension

540
Q

Treatment of choice for bleeding diasthesis in ESRD patients?

A

Desmopressin 0m3 mcg/kg IV or SC or Cryprecipitate 10 u over 30 min or Conjugated estrogens 25 mg IV or 6mg/kg/d or Tranexamic Acid

541
Q

Most common complications of hemodialysis vascular access?

A

Failure to provide adequate flow Infection

542
Q

Most common organism causing Dialysis Catheter related infection?

A

S. AUREUS

543
Q

Branham Sign in ESRD indicates what condition?

A

High output failure

544
Q

Most frequent complication of hemodialysis occuring during 50 % of treatment?

A

Hypotension

545
Q

A clinical syndtome occuring at the end of dialysis and is characteristized by nausea and vomiting and hypertension which can progress to coma and death?

A

Dialysis disequilibrium

546
Q

Most common complication of peritoneal dialysis?

A

Peritonitis

547
Q

Most common causative organisms that cause peritoneal dialysis access Site complication

A

S. AUREUS and PSeudomonas aeruginosa

548
Q

First Line of treatment for uncomplicated UTI in Adult female?

A

Nitrofurantoin 100 mg BIDx 5days TMX-SMZ ( 160/800 mg ) 1 tab BIDx 3 days Fosfomycin

549
Q

First line of treatment for asymptomaric bacteriuria and simple cystitis in pregnant px?

A

Amoxicillin 500 mg TID x 3-7days Cefalexin 500 mg 2-4 x 3-7days

550
Q

Is a true urologic emergency, there is an inability to reduce the proximal foreskin distally over the glans penis into its natural position

A

Paraphimosis

551
Q

How many houfs should surgery be done in a patient with a fractured penis?

A

8 hours

552
Q

Painless pathologic erection of the penis secondary to traumatic fistulae between cavernosal artery.and corpus cavernosum

A

Non- ischemic priapism

553
Q

Characterized as asymptomatic testicular mass with firmness or induration?

A

Testicular malignance

554
Q

Most common cause of staghorn calculi

A

struvite stones

555
Q

Present as a pelvic mass caused by growth pf ectopic endometrial tissue with an ovary and usually contain thick brown fluid

A

Endometrioma’s

556
Q

Most dreaded complications of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

Venous and arterial thrombosis

557
Q

Ultrasound finding of ovary more than 4 cm associated with lower abdominal pain tenderness, guarding, unilateral adnexal tenderness on bimanual examination, points to what condition?

A

Ovarian torsion

558
Q

Absolute levels of this hormone are lower in pathologic pregnancies and fall when pregnancy fails?

A

Progesterone

559
Q

Most commonly used medical therapy for uncomplicated ectopic pregnancy?

A

Methotrexate 50 mg/m2 as single IM Dose

560
Q

most common cause of fetal loss?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities

561
Q

Treatment for pregnant women with vaginal bleeding who are Rh negative?

A

Rh0 D immunoglobulin

562
Q

early sign of starvation in patients suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Ketonuria

563
Q

Goals for maintaining euglycemia in pregnant DM Patients?

A

FBS of < or = to 95 mg/dL 2hour Postprandia;l glucose concentraion: < or = 120 mg/dL (6.66 mmol/L)

564
Q

First line for insulin treatment in pregnant women?

A

Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin: 0.7 U/kg/d in 1st trimester then 1 U/kg/d in 3rd trimester

565
Q

Only antiarrhythmic beta blocker drug classified as Class D for Pregnant patients

A

Atenolol

566
Q

Most common non sinus tachycardia in women of child bearing age

A

Paroxysmal supraventricular age

567
Q

Most common cause of pregnancy related acute myocardial infarction?

A

Spontaneous coronary artery dissection

568
Q

third most common cause of non obstetric maternal death?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

569
Q

first-line agent for chronic hypertension in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol 100 mg PO twice daily

570
Q

Inpatient treatment for postpartum endometritis?

A

Clindamycin 900 mg q8h plus Gentamicin 5mg/kg q24h

571
Q

Most common cause of vaginitis in acutely symptomatic women?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

572
Q

Right upper quadrant pain, occasionally high elevated transaminases in women with lower abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, poistcoital bleeding

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

573
Q

Most common causative agent of puerperal mastitis?

A

S. aureus

574
Q

Presents as recurrent multiple abscess, sinus tracts and scarring of the breast folds, axillae, groin perineum

A

Hidradenitis suppuritiva

575
Q

Most specific EKG finding for acute pericarditis?

A

PR depression also seen Concave ST Depression

576
Q

Most common cause of atraumatic hip pain in children?

A

Transient synovitis

577
Q

Causative organism that causes severe malaria, cerebral malaria and blackwater fever?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

578
Q

Central cyanosis infants indicates at least how much of hemoglobin present?

A

4-5 grams/dL

579
Q

Presents as persistent respiratory distress at birth with a “seesaw” side to side respiratory pattern due to the severely hypoplastic ipsilateral lung, with abdomen appears as scaphoid.

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

580
Q

Vasopressor of choice in children? Dosage?

A

Epinephrine 0.1-0.1 mcg/kg/min

581
Q

Most commonly injured solid organ in children im abdominal blunt trauma?

A

Spleen

582
Q

Most common lumbar spine fracture associated with intrabdominal injury?

A

Chance Fracture

583
Q

Most common cause pf neonatal pneumonia?

A

Group B Streptoccocus

584
Q

Characterized by constipation weak cry, and feeding difficulties with late symptoms of ocular palsies, apnea, weakness or hypotonia and lethargy in a neonate

A

Infantile botulism

585
Q

Defined as paroxysm of crying for > 3 days per weeks over a 3 week period in neonates without any physical or laboratory abnormalities?

A

Infantile colic

586
Q

Leading cause of viral meningitis worldwide

A

Enteroviruses

587
Q

Most common acute complication of otitis media?

A

Tympanic membrane perforation

588
Q

First line of treatment for pediatric otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin 45 mg/kg per dose 2x a day

589
Q

initial management of Otitis media with effusion that is uncomplicated in children?

A

Watchful waiting as it will resolves spontaneously

590
Q

Presents as otalgia, Itching, sense of fullness, tenderness of tragus/ pinna, diffuse ear canal edema and/or erythema? Treatment?

A

Otitis Externa Topical ofloxacin or ciprofloxacin

591
Q

Advance mastoiditis may cause nerve palsies of which cranial nerves?

A

CN VI and VII

592
Q

Uncorrected strabismus can lead to what condition?

A

Amblyopia

593
Q

A positive Hirschberg test would indicate?

A

True strabismus

594
Q

Inpatient treatment for dacrocystitis?

A

Cefuroxime IV or Cefazolin IV or CLindamycin IV

595
Q

Characterized by eyelid or periorbital inflammation accompanied by proptosis, impaired EOMs, pain with eye movement, decrease visual acuity, chemosis and afferemt pupillary defect?

A

Orbital cellulitis

596
Q

expected corneal diameter of children <1 year of age

A

should not have corneal diameter of >12mm

597
Q

pathognomonic of abusive head trauma

A

Retinal hemorrhage

598
Q

Most common predisposing factor for acute sinusitis?

A

Diffuse mucositis secondary to viral rhinosinusitis

599
Q

Most common origin of epistaxis in the pediatric age?

A

Kiesselbach plexus

600
Q

Presents in adolescents as profuse unilateral epistaxis that requires packing?

A

Juvenile nasal angiofibroma

601
Q

Most common causative agent for Herpangina?

A

Coxsackie A and B

602
Q

Most common presentation of primary herpes in children?

A

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

603
Q

Most common cause of acute viral pharyngitis? treatment?

A

Epstein Barr virus Treatment is mainly supportive

604
Q

Centor Criteria for likelihood of Group A B-hemolytic Streptoccocus Pharyngitis?

A

Tonsillar exudates Tender Anterior Cervical Adenopathy Absence of Cough History of fever

605
Q

Treatment of Choice for Group A B-hemolytic Streptoccocus Pharyngitis?

A

Penicillin V 250 mg BID x 10days, Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg Once a day or Benzathine Pen G (<27kg= 600,000U, >27Kg=1.2U)

606
Q

Causative agent associated with retropharyngeal abscess and Lemierre syndrome?

A

Fusobacterium Necrophorum

607
Q

Permanent teett hat has become avulsed must be implanted in how many minutes?

A

5 minutes

608
Q

Treatment for Acute necrotizing gingivitis with systemic symptoms?

A

local debridement and Pencillin or metronidazole

609
Q

most common childhood malignancy of the head and neck?

A

Lymphoma

610
Q

Most common neonatal laryngeal problems resulting from a developmentally weak larynx

A

Laryngomalacia

611
Q

First line of treatment for croup?

A

Nebulized epinephrone and corticosteroids

612
Q

A child who will not fully extend his or her neck to look up points to what condition?

A

Retropharyngeal abscess

613
Q

infective agent causing Hacking dry cough, headache sore throat, wheezing in school age children and associated with extrapulmonary symptoms

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

614
Q

Most common cyanotic heart lesion manifesting in the newborn period?

A

Transposition of great arteries

615
Q

Acyanotic heart disease that is characterized by decreased pulses in the lower extremities

A

Coarctation of the aorta

616
Q

What syndrome is characterized by supravalvular aortic stenosis, elfin facies, mental retardation, and pulmonary stenosis?

A

William’s syndrome

617
Q

Inotrope of choice for improving cardiac contractility in congestive heart failure pediatric patients that are stable

A

Digoxin

618
Q

When does coronary artery aneurysm develop in patients with Kawasaki disease?

A

3rd and 4th weeks

619
Q

Most common type of syncope in children

A

Neurogenic syncope

620
Q

Results from abnormal development of the sensory and autonomic ganglia, due to a genetic defect that inhibits neurotransmitter production and is the most common pediatric autonomic disorder

A

Riley-day syndrome

621
Q

Pathognomonic electrolyte abnormalities in Pyloric stenosis?

A

Hyponatremic, hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

622
Q

What drug is contraindicated in children <2 years for those with bloody stools and suspected bacterial gastroenteritis from Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter?

A

Loperamide

623
Q

Most common cause of Hyponatremia in children?

A

Iatrogenic complication of IV Fluid therapy

624
Q

Pneumatosis intestinalis ( air in the bowel wall) and portal venous gas are both pathognomonic of what condition in a pediatric patient?

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

625
Q

Most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction in children under 2 years of age presenting as colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody stools

A

Intussuscpetion

626
Q

Drug of choice for esophageal variceal bleeding in patients whom endoscopy can not be performed?

A

Octeotride ( 1-2mcg/kg bolus up to 50 mcg followed by 1-2 mcg/kg/h infusion

627
Q

Pediatric fracture with a very low incidence of growth disturbance?

A

Salter-Harris Type I Fractures

628
Q

Compressive forces that result in a bulging or buckling of the periosteum in children?

A

Torus fractures

629
Q

Bowing and bending fractures that are exclusively limited to the forearm and lower leg bones associated with pain out of proportion to physical examination?

A

Plastic deformities

630
Q

Fractures in infants and toddles strongly linked to child abuse?

A

Spiral oblique fractures of the humeral diaphysis

631
Q

What is commonly injured in spiral fractures of the humeral diaphysis in children?

A

Radial nerve

632
Q

Most common elbow fracture in children, and it’s common type?

A

Supracondylar fracture extension fracture

633
Q

The dislocation of the radial head (proximal radioulnar joint) with fracture of the ulna

A

Monteggia fracture-dislocation

634
Q

Fracture of the distal third of the radial head accompanied by the dislocation of the radioulnar joint?

A

Galeazzi-fracture

635
Q

Characterized by slipping of the femoral epiphysis of the hip that presents with hip (groin) pain, or pain referred tot he thigh or to the knee?

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

636
Q

What structures are injured when theres is distal femoral metaphysis?

A

Popliteal artery and peroneal nerve

637
Q

Pediatric patients with this condition is noted to have high grade fever, CRP >20 mg/L, leukocytosis (>12,000 cells/mm3), severe pain, tenderness on palpation, spasm and refusal to walk?

A

Acute septic arthritis

638
Q

Most common cause of acute hip pain in children less than 10 years of age?

A

Transient synovitis of the hip

639
Q

Pediatric disorder causing intermittent pain and tenderness over the anterior aspect of the knee and tibial tuberosity?

A

Osgood- Schlatter Disease

640
Q

Pediatric disorder associated with nonmigratory mono- or oligoarthritis after a infection of the pharynx?

A

Poststreptococcal reactive arthritis

641
Q

Treatment of choice for Tinea capitis?

A

Griseofulvin

642
Q

Painless, indurated sharply demarcated, red smooth base appearing 2-4 weeks on the genitals?

A

Primary syphilis

643
Q

Most widely used neuraminidiase inhibitor against influenza virus

A

Oseltamivir 75 mg BID x 5days

644
Q

This condition mimics an autoimmune event with lymphadenitis, fever and other symptoms after beginning ART often during tubercolosis therapy

A

Immune reconstitution syndrome

645
Q

Most common CNS complication of Infective Endocarditis?

A

Embolic stroke involving the middle cerebral artery

646
Q

C. Tetani exotoxin that causes the clinical manifestations?

A

Tetanoplasmin

647
Q

Centrally mediated motor hyperexcitability with persistence and intense spasms in the proximal lower limbs and lumbar paraspinal muscles?

A

Stiff person syndrome

648
Q

Contraindicate vaccines in patients with AIDS?

A

Oral polio vaccine Smallpox Vaccine Live attenuated influenza vaccine

649
Q

Most common agent required as additional treatment to eradicate P.vivax and ovale hypnozoites from the the liver?

A

Primaquine Phosphate

650
Q

Most common bacterial waterborne illness associated with Guillain Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter

651
Q

Parasitic infection causing dysuria, frequency, terminal hematuria and possibly, squamous cell CA of the bladder?

A

Schistosoma haematobium

652
Q

Chronic non fatal filirial disease leading to subcutaneous skin changes and blindness?

A

Onchocerciasis

653
Q

Patient experiences recurrent bouts of fever lasting 2-3 weeks associated with warmth and tenderness overlying a lymphatic vessel followed by retrograde lymphangitis

A

Lymphatic filariasis

654
Q

Patients experience lancinating pain at the back of the head, stabbing or electric shock like in quality ?

A

Occipital neuralgia

655
Q

Treatment for Pseudomotor cerebri?

A

Oral acetazolamide

656
Q

Most common area of intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

Putamen (Thalamus, pons, then cerebellum )

657
Q

Condition presenting with dizziness, vertigo, occipital headache, diplopia and other visual disturbance, with neck pain or face pain

A

Vertebral Aryery dissection

658
Q

The only laboratory test result prior to thrombolytic therapy?

A

Bedside glucose

659
Q

Dose for thromobolytic therapy in ellegible stroke patients?

A

IV alteplase 0.9 mg/kg IV max of 90 mg, 10% of the the dose as IV bolus over 1 minute then the remaining infused over 60 minutes

660
Q

Dyssynergia, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia (clumsy rapid movements) may indicate what cerebellar lesion?

A

Lateral cerebellar lesion

661
Q

Ear pain, tinnitus and hearing loss onset 1 or more days before vertigo?

A

Labyrinthitis

662
Q

Vertigo and hearing loss after head trauma or pressure changes to the middle ear?

A

Perilymph fistula

663
Q

Abnormal head impulse test due to infection of the labyrinth may indicate what condition?

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery stroke

664
Q

Ascending symmetric weakeness or paralysis and areflexia or hyporeflexia occuring after a viral or bacterial illness?

A

Guillan Barre syndrome

665
Q

Treatment for Guillan Barre Syndrome?

A

IV Ig and plasma exchange

666
Q

What diagnostic modality is warranted when patient presents with facial paralysis sparing the forehead or inability to abduct the eye?

A

CT scan of the brain to rule out stroke

667
Q

Occurs in cyclists from prolonged compression of the wrist against the handlebars

A

Guyon’s canal syndrome

668
Q

Most common site of plexopathy?

A

Brachial plexus

669
Q

Patient presents with descending symmetric paralysis, no sensory deficit, no pain and pupils are often dilated and non reactive to light?

A

Botulism

670
Q

Primary treatment for diabetic neuropathy?

A

Pregabalin

671
Q

Presents with rapidly progressive limb weakness, monotonal speech, muscle atrophy, fasciculation and hyperreflecia but without other CNS dysfunction

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease

672
Q

Most common presentinf symptom of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Ptosis and diploplia

673
Q

Treatment for controlling symptoms and preventing myasthenic crisis?

A

Prednisoen with or without azathioprine

674
Q

Presents with muscle fascicualtions, respiratory depression, salivation, lacrimation, urinary incontinence, diarrhea, GI upset and emesis, miosis,bronchial secretions

A

Cholinergic crisis

675
Q

Presents with paresthesias, gait difficulty, extremity weakness, poor coordination, vision disturbance that often occur with a relapsing ang remitting clinical course

A

Multiple sclerosis

676
Q

Most commmon area of the brain affected by Parkinson’s Disease

A

substansia nigra

677
Q

Contraindication for lumbar puncture in patients with bacterial meningitis?

A

Platelet count of < or equal to 20,000/uL or INR> or equal 1.5

678
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for those exposed to patients with confirmed N. Meningitidis and H. Influenza bacterial meningitis?

A

Rifampin 10 mg/kg q6H x 4 doses or Ciprofloxacin 500 mg single doseor ceftriaxone 250 mg IM once

679
Q

Triad of back pain, fever and neurologic symptoms?

A

Epidural abscess

680
Q

Chronic vasculitis commonly seen in young Asian women>

A

Takayasu’s Arteritis

681
Q

What condition is associated sudden blindness, jaw and tongue claudicaion?

A

Giant cell arteritis

682
Q

Treatment of refractory hypoglycemia secondary to sulfonylureas?

A

Octeotride 50-100 ug SC

683
Q

Treatment of cerebral edema as a complication of DKA Treament?

A

Mannition 1g/kg

684
Q

Most common cause of acute adrenal insufficiency?

A

Prolonged steroid used with abrupt steroid withdrawal or exposure to stress.

685
Q

An infection of the nail fold?

A

Paronychia

686
Q

Kanavel’s four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis?

A

Percussion Tenderness Uniform Swelling Intense Pain Flexion Posture

687
Q

What condition is associated with the inflammation or scarring of the flexor sheath resulting in impingement and snap release of the tendon as the finger is extended froma flexed position?

A

Trigger finger

688
Q

Pain during a finkelstein test is indicative of what condition?

A

DeQuervain tenosynovisits

689
Q

Characterized by increase inflammation or infection of the lateral or medial aspects of the toenail?

A

Onychocryptosis

690
Q

Characterized by pain on the plantar surface of the foot worsened by walking and tenderness over the anterior medial calcaneus worsened by dorsiflexion of the toes?

A

Plantar fascities

691
Q

What condition is associated with numbness or burning of he sole or heel worsening at night after running or standing?

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

692
Q

Absence of plantar flexion with squeezing of the calf indicates what condition?

A

Achilles tendon rupture

693
Q

Characterized by burning cramping or aching over the metatarsal head and numbness in the toe

A

Morton Neuroma

694
Q

What condition presents with schizophrenia signs and symptoms for less than 6 months?

A

Shizophreniform disorder

695
Q

Characterized by persistent worry or tension without discrete panic attacks for at least 6 months?

A

General anxiety disorder

696
Q

Recommend emergency contraception if there is suspected sexual assault

A

Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg PO in single dose (available OTC) or ulipristal acetate 30 mg PO single dose

697
Q

Recommended STD Prophylaxis regimen when there is suspected sexual assault

A

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM SIngle dose PLUS Metronidazole 2 g PO PLUS Azithromycin 1g PO or Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID x 7days

698
Q

Conditions most commonly associated in IV drug users who practice “pocket shooting”?

A

Pneumothorax and hemothorax

699
Q

Common cardiac site affected in Injection drug users with endocarditis?

A

Right sided hear involving the tricuspid valve

700
Q

It is characterized by sudden onset of petechiae or purpura weeks after an infectious illness in pedia patients?

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

701
Q

what condition is characterized by severe decrease in platelets, severe microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with red cell fragmentation, transient neuro deficits, renal failure and fever

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

702
Q

Most common presentation of Sickle Cell Vasoocclusive Crisis

A

Ischemic musculoskeletal pain (next is abdominal pain)