Review 2 Flashcards
Which of the following numbers is written in hexadecimal format?
A. 100101
B. 3268
C. 18AF
D. 100101.11
18AF
Hexadecimal is also known as base 16. It uses the numbers 1 to 9 and letters A to F.
Which of the following terms describe concepts related to breaking code into smaller, repeatable sections? (Choose two.)
A. Functions B. Variables C. Containers D. Methods E. Objects
Functions and methods
Functions and methods are used to break code into small, reusable segments.
Which of the following are examples of object-oriented programming languages? (Choose two.)
A. Java B. XML C. Python D. C E. SQL
Java and Python
Java and Python are considered object-oriented languages, as are C++, C#, PHP, Perl, and Ruby.
Which of the following statements is true regarding arrays and vectors?
A. Arrays contain one data type and are dynamic in length. Vectors can have multiple data types and are fixed in length.
B. Arrays can have multiple data types and are fixed in length. Vectors have one data type and are dynamic in length.
C. Arrays can have multiple data types and are dynamic in length. Vectors have one data type and are fixed in length.
D. Arrays contain one data type and are fixed in length. Vectors can have multiple data types and are dynamic in length.
Arrays and vectors are containers for data. An array can have only one data type and is fixed in length. Vectors are more flexible, containing multiple data types and being dynamic in length.
A developer needs to use a code designation for non-English letters. Which notational system does the developer need to use?
Unicode
ASCII and Unicode are used for numerical representations of letters and symbols. ASCII covers English letters and some symbols. For non-English, use the superset of ASCII called Unicode.
Which of the following are examples of interpreted languages? (Choose two.)
A. Compiled
B. Query
C. Scripted
D. Markup
Scripted and Markup
The three classes of interpreted languages are scripting, scripted, and markup languages.
What type of high-level programming language is translated into machine code once and then executed many times?
A. Compiled
B. Scripted
C. Scripting
D. Markup
Compiled
Compiled language programs are compiled once and then executed as many times as needed. Scripted, scripting, and markup languages are interpreted languages, which are not compiled with a compiler.
A programmer wants to write code that directly accesses the computer’s hardware. Which is the best type of language for the programmer to use?
Assembly
Assembly is the lowest-level programming language, and it is used when developers want to access computer hardware directly.
Interpret the following logic. For data input on someone who is 20 years old, which category will they fall into?
if age < 13, then category “Child”
else if age < 20, then category “Teen”
else if age < 65 then category “Adult
Adult
The logic says that anyone younger than 20 is a teen, while anyone younger than 65 is an adult. Since this person is 20 exactly, they are in the Adult category.
A programmer is writing a program that needs to accept an input of someone’s name. What type of variable should the programmer create?
String
A string is a group of characters—technically, zero or more characters, but not having a fixed length.
Looping logic makes use of which of the following statements?
A. while
B. when
C. loop
D. if
Looping logic is characterized by the while statement.
In object-oriented programming, which of the following are integral parts of objects? (Choose two.)
A. Arrays
B. Properties
C. Attributes
D. Variables
Properties and Attributes
Objects are made up of properties, attributes, and methods. Arrays and variables could be part of an object but do not have to be.
A program shows the number 11010.11. Which data type is this?
Float
It’s a float data type, which is a number with a decimal place. It could be binary, but binary is a notational system, not a data type.
You have created an array that can hold 15 items, all of the integer data type. You want to add a 16th integer. Which of the following is the best approach to doing this?
A. Add it to the existing array.
B. Create a separate variable for the 16th integer.
C. Convert the integers to floats and add the 16th integer.
D. Create a vector and replace the array with it.
Create a vector and replace the array with it
Arrays are of a fixed length, so you can’t just add another variable if it’s at its maximum length. Vectors can have their length dynamically adjusted and might work better in this situation.
What type of programming language is designed to retrieve data from a database?
Query
Query languages are used to obtain data from databases.
Interpret the following logic. A law enforcement agency has received data indicating that there are ten current threats to public safety. What should the threat level be?
if threats < 3, then level “Green”
else if threats < 6, then level “Yellow”
else if threats < 9, then level “Orange”
else if threats < 12, then level “Red”
Red
The threat level should be red. Anything from 9 to 11 is in the red range.
Which of the following is an example of a markup language?
HTML or XML
You want to understand the sequence of a program, from start to finish. Which of the following is the best to use for this purpose?
A. Pseudocode
B. Function
C. Flowchart
D. Object
Flowchart
A flowchart is designed to depict visually the sequence of events and logic within a program.
Which of the following programming language types is the lowest-level language?
A. Assembly
Assembly is the lowest-level programming language. Interpreted and compiled are high-level languages, and query languages are used to get data from a database.
Flowcharts depict which one of the following?
A. Programs
B. Objects
C. Functions
D. Identifiers
A. Programs
A flowchart is a visual depiction of a program. It includes the logic components, inputs, and all other properties of the program.
You have an address book for a small business with contact information for about 100 clients. The address book is used by two people. Which solution should you use to store the data?
A. Spreadsheet
B. Relational database
C. Word processing software
D. Nonrelational database
Spreadsheet
For a small number of rows, with only two people accessing the data, a spreadsheet is fine in this situation.
A database developer is working on generating queries. If the developer needs to ensure that the output of the query has data persistence, to where should the data be written?
A. RAM
B. Cache
C. SSD
D. CPU
C. SSD
Data persistence means that the data is permanently available. Hard drives store data in a persistent way, so the answer is SSD.
Which of the following consists of columns and rows of numerical or text data?
relational database
A relational database has structured data, which is predictable and organized, with tables containing columns and rows of text or numerical data.
Joe creates a database. What does he need to do next to make it usable?
A. Enable permissions
B. Import data
C. Run queries
D. Create forms
import data
After a database is created, data needs to be imported or inputted.
A user, Ann, is granted permissions to access a database. What is this an example of?
Permissions are considered part of data definition.
A medical office needs to create a solution to manage patient records. They have about 10,000 patients and eight staff, they want to include notes from medical professionals, emails to and from patients, and images such as X-rays. What should they create?
A. Spreadsheet
B. Relational database
C. Nonrelational database
D. Primary key
nonrelational database
With different types of data, including images, the best choice for a database is a nonrelational database such as a document database or a key/value database.
You have created a relational database. Which of the following elements uniquely identifies a record in the database?
Primary key
A primary key is one or more fields whose data is used to uniquely identify a record.
Mary, an administrator, creates a field and designates it to hold integer data. Joe, a user, tries to enter his name into the field, but it doesn’t let him save the data. What is this an example of?
Constraints
Constraints can be placed on fields such that they will accept only certain types of data. For example, if a field is set to accept only integers, users will not be allowed to enter in text data.
Rachel, a database administrator, has created a database for her website. It contains pictures of vacations that people have uploaded. In the database, pictures have associated information about who uploaded them and the date. What is this an example of?
A. Semistructured data
B. Nonstructured data
C. Structured data
D. Schema definition
Semistructured data
Pictures by themselves would be nonstructured data, but since metadata is included, these pictures are classified as semistructured data.
Peter is accessing a database using a JDBC connection. Which of the following terms best describes the type of access he is using?
A. Direct/manual access
B. Programmatic access
C. User interface/utility access
D. Query/report builder
Using a JDBC connection to a database is an example of programmatic access.
Oscar’s user account has been granted permissions to view a database. Nathan then uses the deny command in an attempt to deny Oscar the ability to view the database and applies it to a group to which Oscar belongs. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Oscar will still be able to view the database because a grant overrides a deny.
B. Oscar will no longer be able to view the database because a deny overrides a grant.Your selection is incorrect
C. Oscar will no longer be able to view the database, because the deny cancels the grant, giving Oscar no specific permissions.
D. Oscar will still be able to view the database because granted permissions must be removed with the revoke command.
Oscar will not be able to view the database because if there is a permission conflict, a specific deny overrides a specific grant.
A school has a database with four tables, but it needs a fifth table. Which command is used to accomplish this task?
CREATE
The CREATE TABLE command is used to create new tables in a database.
Michael, an administrator, needs to add a column to an existing table. Which command should he use?
ALTER
You can use ALTER to add, delete, and modify columns.
Laura, your manager, instructs you to remove a table from a database permanently. Which command should you use?
DROP
Sometimes you need to delete tables or databases, and in database terms this is known as dropping. The DROP command is used for dropping a database or a table in a database.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes what a primary key refers to?
A. A schema in a database
B. A table in a schema
C. A field in a table
D. A record in a table
A primary key is one or more fields whose data is used to identify a record uniquely. They are required, and there can be only one primary key per table.
Kate, a database administrator, needs to add records into a database. Which command should she use?
INSERT
The INSERT command is used to insert records into an existing table.
Henry wants to understand which of his customers has purchased part number BB8. Which command should he use?
SELECT
The SELECT command is used to create queries to search for data.
George needs to remove a customer’s information completely from a table. Which command should he use?
DELETE
The DELETE command is used to remove records (rows) from a table.
Which of the following descriptions best describes the type of structure that stores values as blobs?
A. Relational database
B. Nonrelational database
C. Document database
D. Key/value database
Key/value database
In a key/value database, data is represented as a collection of key/value pairs. Keys are an arbitrary string of characters, such as filename or a URL, and must be unique. Values are stored as blobs, meaning that they don’t conform to a schema.
An employee at your office just got married and changed their last name. Which command do you use to change their last name in the employee database?
UPDATE
The UPDATE command is used to update existing data in the database.
You are configuring a computer to participate on a network. Which of the following are mandatory? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. Default gateway
C. DHCP server
D. Subnet mask
IP address and default gateway
For network communications on a TCP/IP network, an IP address and a subnet mask are required. If you want to communicate outside of your network, a default gateway is also required. DHCP servers automatically assign clients’ IP configuration information.
Which one of the following types of network connections can give you the highest data transfer rates?
A. T1
B. DSL
C. ISDN
D. Cellular
DSL
DSL, and broadband in general, can get up to around 50 Mbps without exploring fiber options. This is faster than T1 (1.544 Mbps), ISDN (the basic rate is 128 Kbps), or cellular (up to 20 Mbps).
You are configuring a wireless router to let clients get on the Internet while using private IP addresses. In this scenario, which of the following services do you need to make sure is enabled on the router?
NAT
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service that runs on a router that translates private IP addresses into a public IP address so you can get on the Internet.
You have a scenario where you need to disable the guest network on your wireless router. You try to log in, but your password does not work. After several attempts, you realize that you forgot your password. What can you do?
Hold the reset button down for 30 seconds to reset the router.
Wireless routers will have a reset button on their bottom or back. Press and hold the button for about 30 seconds, and the router will reset to factory specifications. If you never changed the password, then using admin would work, but I am hoping you changed the password!
On Monday, you log into your computer at work, but you are not able to access any network resources. You run ipconfig and see that your IP address is 169.254.18.53. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The DNS server is down.
B. The DHCP server is down.
C. The NAT server is down.
D. Your default gateway is set incorrectly.
The DHCP server is down.
The DHCP server automatically configures clients with TCP/IP information. If the server is not able to provide information, your computer will automatically configure itself with an APIPA address, which starts with 169.254.
Your friend Maria asks you which router feature provides for guaranteed bandwidth. What do you tell her?
QOS
Quality of Service (QoS) is a strategy that allows an administrator to control resources to maintain a certain service level. By using QoS, an administrator can set different priorities for one or more types of network traffic based on different applications, data flows, or users.
Which one of the following addresses is considered a private IP address?
A. 192.168.100.101
B. 168.192.100.101
C. 19.21.68.100
D. 172.15.100.101
192.168.100.101
Addresses that are in the 192.168.x.x range are private IP addresses, as are those in the 10.x.x.x range and the 172.16.x.x–172.31.x.x range.
Your friend Michael is setting up a wireless network and asks you which security option he should choose to make the network the most secure. What do you suggest?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. NAT
WPA2
WPA2 is the most secure wireless security protocol in use today.
Which of the following connectivity options gives you the best mobility?
A. Cellular
B. Wireless
C. Wired
D. Broadband
Cellular
Cellular networks give you the best mobility, with a range of up to several miles. Even then, unless you go out of the range of a tower completely, you will be handed over to the next cell tower.
You need to set up a wireless network. Which standard will give you the highest speed?
802.11ac
The 802.11ac standard is the fastest one available on the market today. In this list, 802.11n is the next fastest, followed by 802.11g and then 802.11a.
Your friend Barbara needs to set up an Internet connection. In this scenario, which of the following options will give her the best speed? (Choose two.)
A. Cable Internet
B. DSL
C. Satellite
D. Cellular
Cable and DSL
Cable Internet and DSL are the two fastest broadband options listed. Both satellite and cellular are slower.
Which one of these connection types has the longest delay?
A. Wireless
B. Infrared
C. Wired
D. Cellular
Cellular
Cellular has the longest delay because the signal needs to travel the farthest distance.
Of your internal network connection options, which one can provide the fastest speeds?
A. UTP
B. Fiber
C. Infrared
D. 802.11n
Fiber
Wired connections in general are faster than wireless ones, and fiber-optic cable can provide much faster speeds than copper cable.
You have decided to retire to a remote mountain cabin and write books. You need an Internet connection to send material to your publisher. What is the option most likely to work for you?
Satellite
If you are in a remote location, it’s possible that satellite is the only option that will work for you.
You are connecting to an email server to download email. Which of the following protocols is your computer most likely using? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS
B. POP3
C. SMTP
D. IMAP
POP3 and IMAP
The three email protocols are POP3, SMTP, and IMAP. Of those, POP3 and IMAP are used to download email. SMTP is used to send email.
What command would you use on a Mac to determine your TCP/IP configuration information?
ifconfig
The ifconfig command is used on Macs and in Linux and UNIX to show your IP address and other TCP/IP configuration information.
By definition, what is an SSID?
A wireless network name
The service set identifier (SSID) is the wireless network name.
When configuring a wireless router, which of the following should you always do? (Choose two.)
A. Enable DHCP.
B. Change the SSID.
C. Change the admin password.
D. Configure the firewall.
Change the SSID and the admin password
You should always change the SSID and the administrator password on a wireless router.
Which of the following are activities that a hacker might attempt?
A. Stealing usernames and passwords B. Modifying website content C. Disrupting network communications D. Analyzing network traffic E. All of the above
All of the above
Hackers may have different motivations, but their activities can include stealing usernames and passwords, modifying website content, disrupting network communications, and analyzing network traffic.
You have invented a new toy that will be the most popular toy for children this year. What type of intellectual property protection should you get?
Patent
A patent signifies ownership of an invention for a limited time. It can be a machine, process, formula, or product.
Which of the following are threats to data availability? (Choose two.)
A. Service outage
B. Replay attack
C. Wiretapping
D. Destruction
Service outage and destruction
Examples of availability threats include denial of service, power outage, hardware failure, destruction, and service outage.
What is the name of an application that appears to look like a helpful application but instead does harm to your computer?
Trojan horse
A Trojan horse might look like helpful software but will actually do harm to your computer. An example could be a program that looks like a security scanner but actually installs malware. (Ironic, isn’t it?)
Someone was recently caught sifting through your company’s trash looking for confidential information. What is this an example of?
Dumpster Diving
Going through the trash to find confidential information is considered dumpster diving, and it’s illegal in most areas. Social engineering means trying to get information out of another person. Phishing is social engineering via email.
You are implementing multifactor security on a computer. Which of the following is not a valid factor?
A. Receipt
B. Password
C. Hardware token
D. Specific location
receipt
Receipts are used for nonrepudiation, not for authentication. Examples of factors include passwords, PINs, one-time passwords, software tokens, hardware tokens, biometrics, a specific location, and security questions.
You have been asked to lead a class on preventing social engineering. What two topics should you be sure to cover? (Choose two.)
A. Viruses and worms
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Hardware theft
D. Phishing
Shoulder surfing and phishing
Social engineering occurs when attackers ask people for information to help them gain access to sensitive information. Examples of this are shoulder surfing and phishing.
On a network, a user needs to access three different types of systems. However, they are required to enter their username and password only when they initially log in. Which term best explains this?
single sign-on
Single sign-on gives users access to all the applications and systems they need with one initial login.
You receive an email from your bank telling you that your account has been compromised and you need to validate your account details or else your account will be closed. You are supposed to click a link to validate your information. What is this an example of?
phishing
Phishing is a form of social engineering where an attacker sends an email asking for personal information to use in an attack. This might also be considered spam, but phishing is more specific here.
If you are concerned about confidentiality of client records, which of the following should you be on the lookout for? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of service
C. Social engineering
D. Replay attack
eavesdropping and social engineering
Confidentiality concerns include snooping, eavesdropping, wiretapping, social engineering, and dumpster diving. Denial of service is an availability concern, and replay attacks threaten integrity.
What is it called when a co-worker sitting next to you always seems to look your way when you try to enter your user ID and password to log onto the network?
shoulder surfing
Shoulder surfing is trying to see private information on someone else’s computer. This can include information on the computer screen but also can be something like trying to see a password.
Which of the following security terms best describes the process of determining what a user can do with a resource?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Accounting
D. Nonrepudiation
authorization
Authentication identifies who a user is, authorization determines what the user can do, and accounting tracks what the user did.
Which of the following operating systems are susceptible to viruses?
A. Windows
B. Windows and macOS
C. Windows, macOS, and Linux
D. Windows, macOS, Linux, and Android
All current end-user operating systems are susceptible to viruses and malware.
A network administrator wants to enable accounting on her network. Which options should she use? (Choose two.)
A. Biometrics
B. Transaction logs
C. Software tokens
D. Web browser history
Transaction logs and web browser history
Accounting on a network tracks what users do. The administrator can use logs or web browser history to do this.
Which of the following can be used as an authentication factor and for nonrepudiation?
A. Password
B. One-time password
C. Biometrics
D. Security question
BIometrics
Biometrics are a security factor, but it can also be used for nonrepudiation. This is because biometrics cannot be duplicated or stolen from someone, guaranteeing an identity.
Your manager is concerned about potential wiretapping on the wireless network. What type of concern is this?
A. Availability
B. Authorization
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Confidentiality
Wiretapping is a confidentiality concern. Other examples of confidentiality concerns are snooping, eavesdropping, social engineering, and dumpster diving.
To log into a network, you must use a password and answer a security question. What is this an example of?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Single sign-on
C. Authorization
D. Nonrepudiation
multifactor authentication
When users are required to use more than one factor for logging in, that is called multifactor authentication. Examples of factors include passwords, PINs, one-time passwords, software tokens, hardware tokens, biometrics, a specific location, and security questions.
Which of the following threats can directly impact data integrity on a network? (Choose two.)
A. Snooping
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Impersonation
D. Denial of service
man-in-the-middle and impersonation
The four integrity concerns are man-in-the-middle, replay attack, impersonation, and unauthorized information alteration. Snooping is a confidentiality concern, and denial of service is an availability concern.
Your network’s security model requires that the administrator configure permissions based on a user’s job within the company. What does this describe?
A. Rule-based access control
B. Role-based access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
role-based access control
In role-based access control, users are assigned a role, which determines all of their permissions on the system.
Esther has just written a new book, and she wants to ensure that she owns the intellectual property. Which type of protection should she get?
Copyright
Copyrights are the legal protection issues for books and works of art.
Because of a recent string of thefts in your office, you need to harden your local system. What two actions are most appropriate for your situation? (Choose two.)
A. Install a hardware lock.
B. Disable unused services.
C. Install anti-malware.
D. Enable encryption.Y
install a hardware lock and enable encryption
All four answers are device-hardening options. If you are worried about local theft, installing a hardware lock is a must. In addition, if your device does get stolen, encryption will prevent thieves from accessing your files unless they know your username and password.
What option can you configure on your workstation to increase security when you leave your desk?
A. File encryption
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Single sign-on
D. Screensaver password
screensaver password
A screensaver password will require someone to enter your password to gain access to the computer. File encryption won’t help if the attacker has access to the computer as you.
You have just landed at an airport and have an unexpected six-hour layover. You want to use your smartphone to get some work done. What should you disable as a precautionary device-hardening measure to help prevent potential attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Autofill
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. FFC
Bluetooth and NFC
You should disable Bluetooth and near field communication (NFC) to help prevent attacks. Autofill is a browser setting. There is no FFC in this context.
Claire, a co-worker, is browsing the Internet and wants to know whether it’s safe to enter her credit card information into a website. What do you tell her to look for?
A. HTTPS://
B. HTTP://
C. SSL://
D. TLS://
Secure websites start with HTTPS://. Also tell her to look for the lock symbol nearby.
You enabled file encryption on your local computer. While you were on vacation, one of your co-workers managed to get onto your computer and share your important files with other users. How did they do this?
A. They logged on and disabled encryption.
B. They used the Disk Recovery tool to access the encrypted files.
C. All users logging into the system have access to encrypted files.
D. They logged on with your username and password.
The only plausible answer is that someone else had your username and password and logged onto the computer as you.
Which of the following types of data should be considered confidential and handled appropriately? (Choose two.)
A. Financial information
B. Social networking site
C. Customer information
D. Contact information
Financial information and customer information
Financial information and customer lists are confidential and should be protected. Some contact information may also be confidential, but in many cases external people need to know how to reach people in a company.
Which type of software will help protect your computer from malicious network traffic?
software firewall
A software firewall protects your computer against malicious network traffic. Antispyware and antivirus software packages are good, but they protect against malicious programs.
You are using Google Chrome, and you want to ensure that when you type in your first name to a web page, all of your other information fills in the fields for you. What should you do?
A. Enable cookies.
B. Enable cache.
C. Enable Incognito.
D. Enable autofill.
enable autofill
Autofill is the name of the service that remembers your personal information. When you begin to type your information into an online form, autofill will populate more of it (whatever it has stored) for you.
Your manager just got a new workstation. He wants to know which user accounts he should disable to increase security. What should you tell him to disable?
A. Guest
B. Users
C. Power Users
D. Administrator
guest
Disabling the Guest account is a good security measure to reduce the number of entry points a potential attacker could use. You cannot disable the Administrator account, although renaming it is a good idea.
Which of the following actions is not considered a web browsing best practice?
A. Limiting the use of PII
B. Disabling autofill
C. Closing untrusted source warnings
D. Updating plugins and toolbars
closing untrusted source warnings
You should recognize untrusted source warnings and act on them appropriately. Good practices include limiting the use of personally identifiable information; disabling autofill; and updating plug-ins, toolbars, and extensions.
The managers at your company have decided to implement stricter security policies on the company’s local network. Which of the following should they do? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce password policies.
B. Develop written policies and procedures.
C. Disable host firewalls.
D. Enable HTTPS on the corporate web server.
enforce password policies and develop written policies and procedures
Written policies and procedures should be established for enabling stricter security policies. Password policies that enforce length, complexity, expiration, and limited reuse are good to implement.
Your co-worker Rachel has recently discovered that when she starts typing her name into a field in a web browser, her whole name appears as well as her address in the appropriate boxes. What is this due to?
autofill
Rachel is experiencing autofill, which is a feature in a browser that automatically populates your information in the right fields when you start entering any of the information. It can be convenient, but it can also be a potential security risk.
You have been asked to give training on network security. For your section on password management, which options should you recommend to users? (Choose two.)
A. Do not use complex passwords because they are easy to forget.
B. Change default passwords on systems.
C. Use the same password on multiple systems so that they are easy to remember.
D. Do not reuse the same password after you are required to change it.
Change default passwords and do not reuse the same password after you change it
You should use complex passwords that are still easy for you to remember. Changing default passwords is a good idea, as is not reusing a password on multiple systems or after it has been changed.
You are in a library that has free computers to use for Internet browsing. Which of the following should you possibly be concerned about?
A. Shoulder surfing B. Keyloggers C. Unsecured wireless network D. A and B E. A, B, and C
shoulder surfing, keyloggers, unsecured wireless networks
Shoulder surfing, keyloggers, and unsecured wireless networks are all potential security risks associated with public workstations.
You have remotely logged into your corporate network. Which of the following is used to ensure encryption of data in transit between your laptop and corporate servers?
VPN
A virtual private network (VPN) is a secured, encrypted connection between two computers. When logging into a corporate network, VPNs are often used to secure communications.
Which of the following are considered characteristics of a strong password? (Choose two.)
A. Long
B. Uses patterns
C. Uses symbols, numbers, and letters
D. Contains PII
long and uses symbols, numbers, letters
Strong passwords are long, are complex, and use a variety of symbols, numbers, and letters. Passwords should not contain any personally identifiable information (PII), and patterns in passwords make them easier to guess.
You just read an article about an Internet worm recently causing problems. What type of software should you install to protect yourself from this worm?
A. Software firewall
B. Antispyware
C. Antivirus
D. Antispam
Antivirus
Antivirus software programs protect against worms and Trojan horses. Software firewalls can prevent malicious network traffic but do not recognize viruses or worms.
You receive an email in your inbox from your friend Sara. The title of the email is “This is so cool!” and inside the email is an attachment with an .exe extension. What should you do?
A. Delete the email.
B. Click the attachment.
C. Run virus scan; then click the attachment.
D. Call Sara to see if she sent you the email.
Call sara to see if she sent you the email
It’s possible that your friend sent you a very cool executable file. It’s also possible that her email has been hijacked and you’ve just been sent a virus or other malware. Don’t click it until you talk to her first and verify that it’s legitimate.
You recently received a new workstation and need to secure it properly before browsing the Internet. Which actions should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Enable autofill.
B. Enable acceptance of cookies.
C. Upgrade your browser to the newest version.
D. Install an antivirus package.
Upgrade the browser to the newest version and install an antivirus package
Two things that you can do are to upgrade your browser to the newest version (as well as any plug-ins, toolbars, and extensions) and ensure that you have a good antivirus package. Enabling autofill and accepting all cookies can increase your security risk.
Which of the following statements is true regarding web browser plugins, toolbars, and extensions?
A. They should be updated to the newest versions.
B. They are dangerous and should be deleted.
C. They will be detected and removed by antivirus software.
D. They only function in Microsoft Edge or Internet Explorer.
They should be updated to the newest versions
Web browser plug-ins, toolbars, and extensions can add functionality to your web browser. To make sure you maintain the best security possible, ensure that they are updated to their most current versions.
When troubleshooting a computer problem, which of the following are steps you can take to identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Use external resources such as the Internet.
B. Talk to end users.
C. Isolate the issue
D. Attribute it to user error.
Talk to end users and isolate the issue
To identify the problem, you can talk to users, gather information, and isolate the issue. Using external resources such as the Internet is part of the process to establish a theory of probable cause.
You are troubleshooting a MacBook Pro. When it turns on, you receive a screen with a flashing question mark. What is the likely cause?
A. Device driver failure
B. Video card failure
C. Memory failure
D. Hard drive failure
hard drive failure
If the hard drive is not detected or if a specific folder needed to load macOS is not detected, the Mac will display a flashing question mark.
When providing computer support and testing solutions, what should you always do first?
A. Assume user error.
B. Test the simple stuff.
C. Check Internet resources for solutions.
D. Establish a plan of action.
Test simple stuff
Always test the simple stuff first. Assuming user error is not a good way to endear yourself to your clients.
Your computer has been running backups for a year. Today, you make a change from backing it up to an external optical drive to backing it up to the cloud. What should you do next?
A. Secure the cloud backup location.
B. Schedule regular cloud backups.
C. Destroy the old optical discs.
D. Verify that the cloud backup works.
Verify that the cloud backup works
Whenever setting up a new backup system or making a change to an existing backup solution, verify that the backup works. Once you have done that, then you can perform other tasks.
You are troubleshooting a computer problem. After testing the solution, what should you do next?
A. Establish a plan of action.
B. Verify functionality.
C. Document the work.
D. Identify the problem.
Establish a plan of action
The solution might have worked, and it might not have. Based on if it appeared to or not, you should establish a further plan of action. If it worked, you can move on to verifying full functionality. If not, you may need to go back to trying additional solutions.
After installing several new software applications, your friend notices that her computer boots very slowly. Which tool can she use to disable programs from running at startup on Windows?
A. Recovery Console
B. System Configuration
C. System Restore
D. Safe Mode
System Configuration
The System Configuration utility, or MSCONFIG, allows users to see which applications are loading at the startup of Windows. If too many programs load on startup, it will slow down the boot process.
Raul has just installed an older application on his Windows 10 computer and it will not run. He asks you for advice. What should you tell him to try to make it run?
compatibility mode
Older applications might not work with current operating systems unless you use compatibility mode.
You are troubleshooting a Windows PC that will not load the operating system. You insert the Windows CD and reboot. Which utility can you use to repair Windows?
A. Recovery Environment
B. MSCONFIG
C. System Restore
D. Safe Mode
Recovery Environment
The Windows Recovery Environment is a feature of Windows Vista and newer setup programs that lets you repair an installation of Windows when booting to the installation CD. All of the other options require the OS to load before using them.
What is the last step in the process of troubleshooting a computer?
Document the work
The last step in the troubleshooting process, and one that is often overlooked, is to document the work. (Cleaning up is important to do if you made a mess, but it’s not specifically a step in the troubleshooting process.)
You have been asked to design a backup solution for your manager’s workstation. Which option will be the fastest?
A. Cloud storage
B. Network storage
C. Local storage
D. They are all the same speed.
Local storage
Local backup solutions will always be faster than network storage or cloud-based solutions. This is because the transfer rate to a local hard disk or optical disc is faster than network connections.
What type of computer backup will back up all selected files and then clear the archive bit?
A. Normal
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Copy
normal
A normal (or full) backup will back up all selected files and then clear the archive bit. An incremental backup will clear the archive bit as well, but it will not back up files that have not been changed since the last backup.
You have just installed a new printer on your computer, and while it seems to be recognized by the operating system, it will not print. What is the first source to check for information on the problem?
A. The OS manufacturer’s website
B. The printer manufacturer’s website
C. Google search
D. Internet technical community groups
The manufacturer’s website
Always check the manufacturer’s website first. Since it’s hardware, check that manufacturer and not the OS manufacturer.
You need to run an emergency backup of your computer, and you need it to finish as fast as possible. You just backed up about three weeks ago. Which backup option should you use?
A. Normal
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Copy
incremental
Incremental backups will back up only the files that have changed since the last backup. They are the quickest backups to make.
While troubleshooting a Windows computer that may have a bad memory module, the computer freezes and displays a blue screen with white text and a STOP error. What generated that error message?
A. The memory module
B. Windows
C. BIOS
D. MSCONFIG
Windows
STOP errors, also known as the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD), are generated by Windows. The faulty memory module may have caused the error, but Windows generated the message.
Ron’s computer behaves normally for a time, and then his screen completely freezes up. The mouse and keyboard do not respond. What is the most likely cause of his problem?
A. Faulty video driver
B. Faulty mouse or keyboard driver
C. Failing hard drive
D. Overheating
overheating
The most likely cause of intermittent hard locks like this is an overheating system. Power the system down, give it a chance to cool off, and then inspect for damage or excessive dust in the fans. With the case open, power it back on and ensure that all cooling fans are running.
You are troubleshooting a PC and see a gray text-based message about the boot disk on a black screen. What is the most likely source of this error message?
A. Windows
B. CHKDSK
C. BIOS
D. POST card
BIOS
A black-screen error usually comes from the BIOS, such as a message indicating that the hard disk is not bootable.
You are helping a neighbor buy a computer, and based on a recent experience, he insists that his system needs to remain working even if a hard drive fails. What should you suggest he buy?
A. SATA
B. PATA
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1
RAID 1
Your neighbor needs RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring. It writes data to both hard drives simultaneously. If one hard drive fails, the other will still be operational.
You are asked to troubleshoot a computer, and your friend recommends you take a POST card with you. What can the POST card help you diagnose?
A. Application problems
B. Overheating problems
C. Startup problems resulting in a BIOS error message
D. Startup problems where nothing is displayed on the screen
Startup problems where nothing is displayed on the screen
A POST card is a circuit board you insert into an open slot on the motherboard. It displays a two-digit code to tell you where the system is in the booting process. This is useful when nothing is displayed on-screen.
What type of backup will make a copy of all files on the computer, including user files and operating system files, to use in the event of a complete failure?
A. System image
B. Full backup
C. Incremental backup
D. Complete backup
system image
A system image makes a copy of the entire hard drive, which can be used in the case of a complete system failure. It takes a long time to make and you can’t restore individual files from one like you can with a normal backup program.
You’re asked to troubleshoot a PC that’s not working properly. You push the power button but don’t see anything on the screen or hear any fans spinning. What is the most likely reason?
A. Defective monitor
B. Defective power supply
C. Broken fan
D. Defective network adapter driver
Defective power supply
The most likely cause is the power supply, since there are no fans spinning. Of course, don’t forget first to check that it’s plugged in!
