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PTA musculoskeletal > review > Flashcards

review Flashcards

1
Q

Which planes divides the body into medial and lateral segment?

A

Sagittal

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2
Q

during loading response phase of gait what can cause knee hyperextension?

A

weak quadriceps
fixed ankle plantar flexion deformity
quadriceps spasticity

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3
Q

What is the major limitation of type II B muscle fibers?

A

high fatigability

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4
Q

Muscle atrophy is most often associated with which drug classification?

A

Glucocorticoid agents

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5
Q

which two bony surfaces comprise the temporomandibular joint?

A

mandibular fossa of the skull; condylar process of the mandible

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6
Q

what tendon surrounds the pisiform bone?

A

flexor carpi ulnaris

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7
Q

repair of the lateral ankle ligaments is commonly performed secondary to ?

A

complete tear of the anterior talofibular ligament and/or calcaneofibular ligament, or to chronic ankle instability

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8
Q

which phase of gait requires the greatest amount of ankle dorsiflexion range of motion?

A

Terminal stance (10 degree)

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9
Q

What is festination?

A

forward trunk lean and progressive increase in cadence , often associated with Parkinsonian gait

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10
Q

which structure would be necessary to palpate with suspected Colles’ fracture?

A

distal radius
Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement of the fracture segment.

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11
Q

what is the common mechanism of injury of Colles’ fracture?

A

fall on an outstretched hand

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12
Q

capsular pattern of the cervical spine

A

lateral flexion and rotation equally limited, extension

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13
Q

open/closed packed position for cervical spine

A

open - midway between flexion and extension
closed - full extension

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14
Q

capsular pattern of the hip

A

flexion, abduction and medial rotation

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15
Q

what is force couple

A

two force vectors on opposite sides of an axis that create a collective movement

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16
Q

Neer test

A

subacromial impingement
pain occurring at 60-120 degree of shoulder flexion
pain or facial grimace is a positive

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17
Q

comminuted fracture

A

fracture that breaks into fragments at the site of injury

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18
Q

De Quervain’s disease is a progressive tenosynovitis of which two tendons?

A

abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis

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19
Q

when assessing a patient’s ability to open their mouth fully, what distance between the top and bottom rows of teeth is considered fuctional?

A

25 millimeters
normal ROM is 35-55 millimeters, but only needs 25-35 millimeters for everyday activities

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20
Q

which biological energy system is the primary source of adenosine triphosphate at rest?

A

oxidative system
primary source of ADP at rest and low intensity activity.
uses primary carbohydrates (70%) and fats (30%)

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21
Q

elastic shrinker is for?

A

edema control and residual limb shaping
due to the possible stress on the incision site, elastic shrinkers are not recommended until the sutures have been removed from the amputation site

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22
Q

excessive space between the acromion and the head of the humerus while at rest may be?

A

instability

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23
Q

Ludington’s test

A

positive - rupture of the long head of the biceps if absence of movement in the biceps tendon
patient clasp both hands behind the head with fingers interlocked, patient is then asked to alternately contract and relax the biceps muscles.

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24
Q

a child with right torticollis would most likely present with plagiocephaly in the area of the

A

left occipitoparietal bone
due to pressure placed on left occipitoparietal bone during lying supine

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25
Q

what is the name of the disk that is located between the C7 and T1 vertebrae

A

C7 disk

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26
Q

tightening of the joint capsule would most likely produce what type of end feel?

A

abnormal firm end-feel

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27
Q

Levator scapulae
origin insertion and action

A

transverse process of C1-4
superior portion of the medial border of scapula
scapular elevation and downward rotation

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28
Q

closed packed position of temporomandibular joint

A

mouth maximally closed, teeth clenched

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29
Q

what is chondromalacia patella

A

softening of the articular cartilage of the patella.
premature degradation of the patellar cartilage
s&s anterior knee pain, pain with prolonged sitting, swelling, crepitus, and pain when ascending and descending stairs

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30
Q

where does the majority of rotation occur in the cervical spine?

A

atlantoaxial joint (C1-C2)

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31
Q

Stages of stroke recovery

A

Stage 1 - initial flaccidity with no voluntary movement
Stage 2 - emergence of spasticity, hyperreflexia, synergies
Stage 3 - voluntary movement possible, but only in synergies, strong spasticity
Stage 4 - Voluntary control in isolated joint movements emerging, decline of spasticity and synergies
Stage 5 - increasing voluntary control out of synergy, coordination deficits still present
Stage 6 - Control and coordination near normal

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32
Q

what structures in contained within the popliteal fossa?

A

Popliteal artery and vein, tibial and common fibular nerves, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, and termination of the small saphenous vein

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33
Q

What mechanism of injury would be most likely to produce a Hill-Sachs lesion?

A

Anterior glenohumeral dislocation
it is characterized as an impaction fracture of the posterior superior humeral head and is frequently diagnosed in patients who have repeatedly sustained anterior glenohumeral dislocation

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34
Q

what is waddling gait

A

wide base of support and is often described as duck-like with increased lumbar lordosis and a protruding abdomen. The muscles of the pelvic girdle deteriorate, which causes the patient to use circumduction to compensate for gluteal weakness
often observed in patients with muscular dystrophy

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35
Q

what mechanism of injury is commonly associated with Bankart lesion?

A

Anterior shoulder dislocation
avulsion of the labral ligamentous complex from the anteriorinferior aspect of the glenoid

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36
Q

immediate and severe swelling following a knee injury would most likely indicate damage to the?

A

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
medial inferior genicular artery runs through the ACL as a result tearing ACL often produces hemarthrosis of the knee joint

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37
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is most appropriately classified as?

A

X-linked recessive disorder

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38
Q

what is Bouchard’s nodes

A

found at proximal interphalangeal joints and are characteristics of osteoarthritis in the hand

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39
Q

the area of a sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present is known as the

A

H-zone
located in the center of sarcomere and decreases in size during muscle contraction as the action filaments slide over the myosin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere

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40
Q

open/close packed position of the facet joints

A

midway between flexion and extension
extension

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41
Q

degree of toe out for an average adult is

A

7 degree

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42
Q

anterior apprehension test for the shoulder places the joint in which position?

A

abduction and lateral rotation
to test anterior shoulder instability/dislocation

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43
Q

which muscle unlocks the locked knee by rotating the tibia medially on the femur

A

popliteus
it originates on lateral femoral epicondyle and inserts on the posterior surface of the tibia the muscle medially rotates the tibia on the femur if the femur is fixed

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44
Q

adolescent presenting with pain over the tibial tubercle most likely has

A

osgood-schlatter disease
painful bump over the tibial tubercle and pain with athletic activities

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45
Q

capsular pattern of radiocarpal joint

A

flexion and extension equally limited

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46
Q

how much extension of the first metatarsophalangeal joint would be necessary for a patient to stand on tiptoe?

A

55 degree
patient must possess full plantar flexion ROM and minimum of 5 degrees of extension at the first metatarsophalangeal joint

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47
Q

what is controlled mobility?

A

ability to move within a weight bearing position or rotate around a long axis

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48
Q

In the FABER the patient does which of the following movments?

A

Flexion abduction and external rotation
this is test to assess the anterior sacroiliac ligament

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49
Q

water of a controlled compression unit can be maintained at what temp?

A

50-77 degree F

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50
Q

what is descriptive research?

A

it is aimed to systematically describe a particular situation or event
it generally provided using descriptive statistic

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51
Q

Gross motor function levels1

A

Level I - walks without limitation
Level II - walks with limitations
Level III - walks using hand held mobility device
Level IV - self mobility with limitation may use powered mobility
Level V - transported in a manual wheelchair

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52
Q

At what age in the months should an infant be able to belly craw?

A

8-9 month
also cruising
creep at 10-11 months
walk at 12 month

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53
Q

when pushing ort pulling an object what position should you be in?

A

semi-squat

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54
Q

what is dehiscence?

A

separation of a surgical incision or rupture of a wound closure typically in abdominal incision

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55
Q

what is convenience sampeling

A

samples being selected from subjects who are convenient or readily available to the researcher

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56
Q

Maximal results for pain reduction with TENS comes with?

A

appropriate spinal cord level/segment

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57
Q

ankle plantar flexion ROM

A

0-50

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58
Q

patient who was recently had a hip replacement should use which grade of stocking to prevent complication from surgery?

A

Class 1 hosiery compression socks

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59
Q

which muscles flexes and adducts the wrist?

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris

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60
Q

what are the way to attain maximal benefits from Dopamine replacement agents that is taken by Parkinson’s disease patient?

A

scheduling therapy one hour after administration of levadopa
understanding the debilitating effects of drug holidays
monitoring the patient’s blood pressure frequently

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61
Q

Zinc oxide is used for? (also what charge)

A

iontopheresis treatment for skin ulcers
positive charge

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62
Q

if you are working a patient who has a loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social and occupational activities, this patient suffers from what?

A

dementia

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63
Q

what is restrictive lung dysfunction (RLD)

A

caused by abnormal lung parenchyma or abnormal pleura
Dyspnea on exertion, a persistent non-productive cough, increased reparatory rate, hypoxemia, decreased vital capacity, abnormal breath sounds, and reduced exercise tolerance

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64
Q

what is equinovarus?

A

damage to common fibular nerve
patient has footdrop accompanied by inversion, foot points down and in

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65
Q

what is hypovolemia

A

loss of bodily fluid
can occur from loss of blood, loss of plasma or loss of water

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66
Q

ataxic gate pattern

A

staggering and unsteadiness

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67
Q

What is Allen test

A

test vascular insufficiency in the wrist and hand
compressing radial and ulnar arteries while patient is holding a fist
positive is delayed or absent flushing of the radial or ulnar half of the hand

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68
Q

arthroplasty is a common procedure for

A

rhematoid arthritis
osteoarthritis
complex fraxtures

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69
Q

skeletal muscles are innervated by?

A

Somatic nervous system

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70
Q

perineal membrane in the female connects what to the isciopubic rami?

A

urethra, vagina, and perineal body

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71
Q

Streptococcal group A is transmitted via

A

droplets

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72
Q

Mumps are transmitted via

A

droplets

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73
Q

Varicella is transmitted via

A

airrborne

74
Q

Shigella is transmitted via

A

contact

75
Q

what are the potential risk of thermotherapy

A

skin damage
burns
fainting
bleeding

76
Q

gluteus maximus is innervated by

A

inferior gluteal

77
Q

Chronic stress increases what and causes what kind of affect to healing?

A

elevates cortisol and it inhibits healing

78
Q

acute stress increases what and causes what kind of affect to healing?

A

leucocyte activity (white blood cell) and it enhances healing of inflammation

79
Q

negative reinforcements is

A

when something uncomfortable is taken away

80
Q

positive reinforcement

A

administering desirable consequences to individuals who perform a specefic behaviro

81
Q

extinction performance is

A

removing selected variables that reinforces a specific behavior

82
Q

what is cystic fibrosis

A

disorder caused by exocrine glands causing excessive mucus production in the bronchial lining
autosomal recessive disorder more prevalent in Caucasian

83
Q

what type of sensation does causalgia have

A

constant, relentless, burning hyperesthesia and hyperalgesia
type of complex regional pain syndrome

84
Q

stance phase is subdivided into

A

initial contact, foot flat, midstance, hell off and preswing

85
Q

swing phase is subdivided into

A

initial swing, mid swing and terminal swing

86
Q

for patients that has peptic ulcer disease you should recognize

A

heart rate increase or blood pressure decrease may be signs of bleeding, back pain is a sign of perforated ulcer of the posterior wall of stomach and duodenum
monitor signs of bleeding

87
Q

adductor longus innervated by

A

obturator

88
Q

adductor brevis innervated by

A

obturator

89
Q

adductor magnus innervated by

A

obturator

90
Q

obturator externus innervated by

A

obturator

91
Q

gracilis innervated by

A

obturator

92
Q

piriformis innervated by

A

sacral plexus

93
Q

superior gemellis innervated by

A

sacral plexus

94
Q

inferior gemelli innervated by

A

sacral plexus

95
Q

obturator internus innervated by

A

sacral plexus

96
Q

quadratus femoris innervated by

A

sacral plexus

97
Q

semitendinosus innervated by

A

sciatic nerve tibial division

98
Q

semimembranosus innervated by

A

sciatic nerve tibial division

99
Q

biceps femoris long head innervated by

A

sciatic nerve tibial division

100
Q

biceps femoris shout head innervated by

A

sciatic nerve common peroneal division

101
Q

peroneus longus innervated by

A

superficial peroneal nerve

102
Q

peroneus brevis innervated by

A

superficial peroneal nerve

103
Q

gluteus medius innervated by

A

superior gluteal nerve

104
Q

gluteus minimus innervated by

A

superior gluteal nerve

105
Q

tensor fsasciae latae innervated by

A

superior gluteal nerve

106
Q

soleus innervated by

A

tibial

107
Q

popliteus innervated by

A

tibial

108
Q

plantaris innervated by

A

tibial

109
Q

tibialis posterior innervated by

A

tibial

110
Q

gastrocenemius innervated by

A

tibial

111
Q

flexor hallucis longus innervated by

A

tibial

112
Q

flexor digitorum longus innervated by

A

tibial

113
Q

deltoid innervated by

A

axillary

114
Q

teres minor innervated by

A

axillary

115
Q

rhomboids innervated by

A

dorsal scapular

116
Q

levator scapula innervated by

A

dorsal scapular

117
Q

pectoralis major clavicular head innervated by

A

lateral pecoral

118
Q

serratus anterior innervated by

A

long thoracic

119
Q

subscapularis innervated by

A

lower subscapular

120
Q

teres major innervated by

A

lower subscapular

121
Q

pectoralis maojor sternal head innervated by

A

medial pectoral

122
Q

pectoralis minor innervated by

A

medial pectoral

123
Q

coracobrachialis innervated by

A

musculocutaneus

124
Q

subclavicus innervated by

A

subclavius

125
Q

supraspinatus innervated by

A

suprascapular

126
Q

infraspinatus innervated by

A

suprascapular

127
Q

latissimus dorsi innervated by

A

thoracodorsal

128
Q

subscapularis innervated by

A

upper subscapular

129
Q

gluteus maximus innervated by

A

inferior gluteal nerve

130
Q

psoas major and minor innervated by

A

lumbar plexus

131
Q

quadratus lumborum innervated by

A

lumbar plexus

132
Q

vastus lateralis, intermedius , medialis innervated by

A

femoral

133
Q

rectus femoris innervated by

A

femoral

134
Q

tibialis anterior innervated by

A

deep peroneal

135
Q

if you have a common fibular nerve damage what happens?``

A

footdrop
plantar flexed and iversion

136
Q

patient who has chest wall pain following thoracic surgery should not go though

A

percussion
it can increase risk of hemorrhage or unstable angina

137
Q

if patient has carpal tunnel syndrome, what are the treatment they can get?

A

splinting
ergonomic measures
local corticosteroid injections

138
Q

how long should cold pack be cooled between treatment

A

30 min

139
Q

medigap plans

A

health insurance sold by private insurance companies to fill the gaps in medicare plan coverage

140
Q

carpal bone medial to lateral (distal first)

A

Trapezium Trapezoid Capitate Hamate
Scaphoid Lunate Triquetrum Pisofrm
So Long To Pinky Here Comes The Thumb

141
Q

dynamic extension splint

A

provides appropriate proprioceptive input while providing muscular support
also called outrigger
common for metacarpalphalangeal surgery

142
Q

effect of magnetic field therapy

A

affect of cell membrane transport

143
Q

Berg Balance Scale test out of how many pt and how many pt for a risk patient

A

14 task scale from 0-4
total of 56 score less than 45 is risk of falling

144
Q

what is the purpose of arches in foot

A

absorb shocks, support body weight, and provide leverage when walking there are transverse and longitudinal arch
longitudinal has lateral and medial

145
Q

Medicare Part B covers

A

services like lab surgeries and doctor visits
supplies wheelchairs and walkers
that is considered medically necessary
also preventive services

146
Q

hot packs need how many layers

A

6-8

147
Q

isokinetic contractions help determine

A

performance of muscles
provide specific information about nerves tendon or ligaments

148
Q

what joint is commonly immobilized by devices to reduce pain

A

subtalor joint
often involve in ankle sprain

149
Q

Ortolani’s sign

A

test that might be done during assessment of an infant for develpmental dysplasia of the hip

150
Q

what irregular heart beat is the most fatal type of arrhythmias?

A

ventricular fibrillation

151
Q

what are the function of the liver

A

metabolizing proteins, secreting bile and carbohydrate and lipid metabolism

152
Q

suppurative acute inflammation

A

copious amounts of pus

153
Q

Acupuncture TENS uses what kind of stimulation

A

low

154
Q

impairment of the parietal lobe of cerebrum includes

A

impaired language comprehension, taste, and contralateral sensory deficits

155
Q

the three stage model of motor learning

A

cognitive, associative and autonomous

156
Q

radial deviation ROM

A

0-20

157
Q

difference between battery and negligence

A

battery intentional
negligence unintentional

158
Q

Cranial nerve VII

A

facial

159
Q

Cranial nerve III

A

oculomotor

160
Q

Cranial nerve VIII

A

vestibulocochlear

161
Q

Cranial nerve V

A

trigeminal

162
Q

Cranial nerve IV

A

trochlear

163
Q

cranial nerve IX

A

glossopharyngeal

164
Q

cranial nerve X

A

vagus

165
Q

cranial nerve XI

A

accessory - shoulder shrug

166
Q

cranial nerve XII

A

hypoglossal - tongue

167
Q

ASIA scale

A

A - complete impairment
B - sensory but no motor function
C - motor incomplete - muscle grade less than 3
D - motor incomplete muscle grade greater than or equal to 3
E - normal

168
Q

keywords for Osteoarthritis

A

unilateral
bouchard nodes (PIP)
heberdens nodes (DPD)
osteophytes
pain decrease in morning after 30 min
genu varum (outward)

169
Q

cva keywords

A

Aphasia aproxia language - left side
spatial deficits, lack of attention, emotional - right

170
Q

RA keywords

A

genu valgum
bilateral
ulnar drift
swan neck deformity
boutonere deformity
pain longer than 30 min in morning

171
Q

difference between autograft and allograft

A

autograft - permanent skin graft taken from own body
allograft - skin graft from another human

172
Q

primary difference between cardiac and skeletal muscles

A

contraction of the heart muscle is initiated within the heart muscle

173
Q

what will you see on a positive bursitis indication

A

heat on palpation at the joint

174
Q

Tinel’s sign

A

indicated by tingling in the thumb index finger middle finger and lateral half of the righ finger distal to contact site at the rest
positive may indicative carpal tunnel syndrome due to median nerve compression

175
Q

ADA parking space should be

A

96 in wide and 240 in long

176
Q

cymbalta

A

selective serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
used for generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder

177
Q

threshold potential

A

electric voltage level at which cardiac cell become activated and produce an action potential which leads to muscle contraction

178
Q

contrast bath

A

alternate bathing with hot and warm water
second water should be 50-64F

179
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

increased HCO3 and pH and decreased chlorine and potassium
caused by acid loss from vomiting or gastric suctioning excess base intake from absorbable antacids, potassium depletion from diuretics and potassium intake

180
Q

afterload

A

forces that impede the flow of blood out of the heart

PTA musculoskeletal (4 decks)

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