REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What is the DOD Prescription Form?

A

D 1289

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2
Q

What is the Poly-Prescription form?

A

NAVMED 6710/6

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3
Q

What do you NOT want to do while filling out a prescription?

A

Do not use shorthand

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4
Q

If a DD 1289 is not required, what must you fill out for proper documentation?

A

A proper SOAP note

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5
Q

What is the study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion? (Activities of the drug after it enters the body)

A

Pharmacokinetics

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6
Q

What is:

A carrier molecule such as a protein or enzyme ACTIVELY moves the drug across the membrane? (ATP)

A

Active absorption

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7
Q

What is:

Diffusion of a drug across a membrane from higher concentration to lower concentration?

A

Passive absorption

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8
Q

what is:

Drug’s ACTIONS and effects within the body?

A

Pharmacodynamics

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9
Q

What is:

A compulsive need to use a substance to obtain a pleasurable experience?

A

Psychological Dependence

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10
Q

What is:

A compulsive need to use a substance repeatedly to avoid mild to severe withdrawal symptoms?

A

Physical Dependence

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11
Q

What is:

A drug that binds with a receptor to produce the therapeutic effect?

A

Agonist

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12
Q

What is:

A drug that binds to a receptor stronger than the agonist?

A

Antagonist (Narcan)

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13
Q

What is:

A reaction that occurs when the combined effect of two drugs is equal to the sum of each drug given alone?

A

Additive drug reaction

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14
Q

What is:

A drug interaction that occurs when drugs produce an effect greater than the sum of their separate actions?

A

Synergism

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15
Q

What sex require smaller doses due to less fat and water ratios?

A

Women

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16
Q

What are the 3 oral routes?

A
  1. Nasogastric (NG)
  2. Sublingual
  3. Buccal
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17
Q

What drug administration means:

Giving a drug into the body but NOT through the G.I. tract?

A

Parenteral

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18
Q

What Parenteral route:

Is placed into the tissues between the skin and muscle?

A

Subcutaneous

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19
Q

What Parenteral route:

Is placed directly into the muscle?

A

Intramuscular

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20
Q

What Parenteral route:

Is placed directly into the blood via needle?

A

Intravenous

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21
Q

What Parenteral route:

Is typically used to administer sensitivity tests, such as TB test?

A

Intradermal

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22
Q

What drug route:

Are rapidly absorbed from the skin and have systemic effects?

A

Transdermal

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23
Q

What medication class:
Depress the sensory cortex, decrease motor activity, alter cerebellar function, and produce drowsiness, sedation, and hypnosis?

A

Barbiturates

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24
Q

Phenobarbital is what class?

A

Barbiturate

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25
Q

What are the 2 subclasses of Antianxiety drugs?

A
  1. Benzodiazepines

2. Non- Benzodiazepines

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26
Q

What subclass:

Bind to receptors in the GABA receptor complex, which enhances the binding of this inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Benzodiazepines (Benzos)

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27
Q

What subclass:

Act on brain’s dopamine and serotonin receptors?

A

Non-Benzodiazepines

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28
Q

What subclass causes a higher risk of dependency when used long term?

A

Benzos

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29
Q
  1. Alprazolam
  2. Diazepam
  3. Lorazepam
A

Benzos

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30
Q
  1. Buspirone Hydrochloride (Bu Spar)
  2. Hydroxyzine
  3. Sertraline (SSRI)
A

Non-Benzo

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31
Q

What is the GO-TO medication class for antidepressants?

A

SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)

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32
Q

What Antidepressant class:

Increase serotonin by inhibiting neuronal uptake to the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

A

SSRI

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33
Q

Do not take TCA’s and MAOI’s within how many days from each other?

A

Within 14 days

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34
Q

What Antidepressant class has MANY MEDICATION INTERACTIONS?

A

MAOI’s

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35
Q

Antidepressants may take up to how many weeks for desired effect?

A

4-6 weeks

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36
Q
  1. Venlafaxine

2. Duloxetine

A

SNRI’s

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37
Q
  1. Fluoxetine
  2. Sertraline
  3. Paroxetine
A

SSRI’s

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38
Q

What class:

Block dopamine receptors in the brain; also alter dopamine release and turnover?

A

Antipsychotics

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39
Q

How are Antipsychotics classified?

A
  1. Typical (1st gen)

2. Atypical (2nd gen)

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40
Q
  1. Haloperidol
A

Antipsychotic drug

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41
Q

What class:

A reduction of excitability of the neurons in the brain?

A

anticonvulsant

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42
Q

Using Benzos and Non-Benzos for this class? (reduce excitability)

A

Anticonvulsants

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43
Q
  1. Prochlorperazine (Phenothiazine)
  2. Ondansetron
  3. Promethazine
A

Antiemetics

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44
Q
  1. Meclizine
  2. Diphenhydramine
  3. Benzodiazepines
A

Antivertigo

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45
Q

What class:

Produce a local anesthesia by inhibiting transport of ions across neuronal membranes?

A

Local Anesthetics

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46
Q

What medication causes neuro-inhibition and anesthesia, where the patient is dissociated from their surrounding?

A

Ketamine

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47
Q

How much Ketamine should be given for pain control?

A

20-40 mg IM

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48
Q
  1. Lidocaine

2. Bupivacaine

A

Local Anesthetics

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49
Q
  1. propofol
A

General anesthetic

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50
Q

What are:

The 4 classes of Non-Narcotic Analgesics?

A
  1. Salicylate
  2. Non-Salicylate
  3. NSAIDS
  4. Urinary analgesic
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51
Q

What non-narcotic analgesic class MAY cause Reye Syndrome in children with chickenpox or flu?

A

Salicylates

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52
Q
  1. Aspirin
A

Salicylate

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53
Q
  1. Relieve mild to moderate pain
  2. Reduce body temperature
  3. Arthritis
A

Non-Salicylate

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54
Q
  1. Acetaminophen

2. Benzocaine-Menthol

A

Non-Salicylates

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55
Q

What non-narcotic analgesic class:

Inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 which is responsible for prostaglandin synthesis?

A

NSAIDS

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56
Q
  1. Anti-Inflammatory
  2. Analgesic
  3. Antipyretic
A

NSAIDS

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57
Q
  1. Ibuprofen
  2. Ketorolac
  3. Naproxen
  4. Meloxicam
  5. Mobic
A

NSAIDS

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58
Q
  1. Phenazopyridine
A

Urinary Analgesic

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59
Q

What medication may turn urine a reddish orange color?

A

Phenazopyridine (Urinary Analgesic)

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60
Q

What class:

Alters the perception of and response to pain?

A

Narcotic Analgesics

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61
Q

DO NOT give this drug class to a patient with a head injury or increased ICP?

A

Narcotic Analgesics

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62
Q
  1. Codeine
  2. Fentanyl
  3. Hydromorphone
  4. Morphine Sulfate
  5. Oxycodone
  6. Hydrocodone
A

Narcotics

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63
Q

What medication is a competitive antagonist that bind to opioid receptors?

A

Naloxone

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64
Q

What is a chemical created in the body? Highest amounts are found in basophils and mast cells.

A

Histamines

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65
Q

How do H-1 Antihistamines work?

A

Bind to H1 receptors in mast cells, smooth muscle, and endothelium in the body as well as in the brain to prevent release of histamine.

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66
Q

How do H-2 Antihistamines work?

A

bind to H-2 histamine receptors in the Upper G.I. tract, primarily in the stomach.

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67
Q
  1. Diphenhydramine
  2. Hydroxyzine
  3. Promethazine
A

1st gen Antihistamines

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68
Q
  1. Cetirizine HCL
  2. Fexofenadine
  3. Loratadine
A

2nd gen Antihistamine

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69
Q
  1. Oxymetazoline HCL
  2. Pseudoephedrine
  3. Phenylephrine
A

Decongestants

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70
Q

What drug class:

contraindicated for patients with cardiac arrhythmia or taking a beta blocker?

A

Beta 2 Agonist

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71
Q
  1. Albuterol sulfate

2. Levalbuterol HCL

A

Beta 2 Agonist

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72
Q
  1. Ipratropium

2. Tiotropium

A

Muscarinic Antagonist

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73
Q

What class inhibit the release of substances that cause bronchoconstriction and inflammation from the mast cells in the respiratory tract?

A

Mast Cell Stabilizer

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74
Q

What Class:

Decrease inflammatory process in the airway through inhibiting multiple different inflammatory cytokines?

A

Inhaled Corticosteroids

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75
Q
  1. Budesonide

2. Fluticasone

A

Inhaled Corticosteroids

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76
Q

What Class:

Depress the cough center (central acting)?

A

Antitussives

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77
Q
  1. Codeine sulfate
  2. Benzonatate
  3. Dextromethorphan
  4. Diphenhydramine
A

Antitussives

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78
Q

What class:

Loosen and mobilize thick mucus from respiratory system?

A

Mucolytic

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79
Q

What Class:

Raise thick mucus from respiratory system?

A

Expectorant

80
Q
  1. Acetylcysteine
A

Mucolytic

81
Q
  1. Guaifenesin
A

Expectorant

82
Q

Abnormal electric current in the heart?

A

Cardiac Arrhythmias

83
Q

Antiarrhythmic class:

Raise the potential threshold? (Lidocaine HCL)

A

Class 1

84
Q

Antiarrhythmic class:

Block Beta receptor stimuli (Metoprolol)

A

Class 2

85
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class:

Blockade of Na or K channels? (Amiodarone)

A

Class 3

86
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class:

Block calcium channels? (Diltiazem)

A

Class 4

87
Q

What Class:

Direct relaxing effect on smooth muscle of blood vessels

A

Nitrates

88
Q

What must you do BEFORE and AFTER giving Nitrates?

A

Blood Pressure

89
Q

What class:

Do not give if patient is taking erectile dysfunction medications?

A

Nitrates

90
Q

4 Classes of Antihypertension medications?

A
  1. Ace Inhibitors
  2. Diuretics
  3. Calcium channel blockers
  4. Beta blockers
91
Q

What antihypertension class:

Prevents the conversion of Angiotensin 1 to Angiotensin 2? (lungs)

A

Ace Inhibitors

92
Q

What antihypertension class:

May cause a dry hacking cough?

A

Ace Inhibitors

93
Q
  1. Lisinopril

2. Captopril

A

Ace Inhibitors

94
Q
  1. Nifedipine
  2. Felodipine
  3. Nicardipine
A

Calcium channel blockers

95
Q

What receptor is located chiefly in the heart?

A

Beta 1 adrenergic receptor

96
Q

What receptor is found in the Lungs and smooth muscle (MSK)?

A

Beta 2 adrenergic receptors

97
Q
  1. Metoprolol
  2. Propranolol
  3. Atenolol
A

Beta Blockers

98
Q

What are the 2 main classes of Diuretics?

A
  1. Loop

2. Thiazide

99
Q
  1. Furosemide
A

Loop Diuretic

100
Q
  1. Hydrochlorothiazide
A

Thiazide Diuretic

101
Q

What inhibit an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG-COA reductase inhibitors

102
Q
  1. Atorvastatin

2. Simvastatin

A

HMG-COA Reductase Inhibitors

103
Q

What gastrointestinal drug class:

NEUTRALIZE the acidity of the stomach?

A

Antacids

104
Q

What is the main contraindication for taking Antacids?

A

Severe abdominal pain from unknown cause.

105
Q
  1. Aluminum hydroxide gel
  2. Magnesium hydroxide
  3. Calcium carbonate
A

Antacids

106
Q

What gastrointestinal drug class:

REDUCES the secretion of gastric acid?

A

Histamine H2 Antagonist

107
Q
  1. Cimetidine
  2. Famotidine
  3. Ranitidine
A

Histamine H2 Antagonist

108
Q

What gastrointestinal drug class:

SUPPRESS gastric acid secretion by blocking the final step in the production of gastric acid be the gastric mucosa?

A

Proton Pump Inhibitors

109
Q
  1. Omeprazole
  2. Pantoprazole
  3. Rabeprazole
  4. Lansoprazole
A

Proton Pump Inhibitors

110
Q

what drug class:

Decrease intestinal peristalsis?

A

Antidiarrheal

111
Q

What drug class:

Contraindicated with diarrhea associated with organisms that can harm the intestinal mucosa?

A

Antidiarrheal

112
Q
  1. Loperamide
A

Antidiarrheal

113
Q

What drug class:

Has a defoaming action that disperses and prevents the information of mucus-surrounded gas pockets in the intestine?

A

Anti-Flatulents

114
Q
  1. Simethicone
A

Anti-Flatulent

115
Q

What Laxative drug class:

Adds bulk and water to the contents of the intestines?

A

Bulk-Producing

116
Q

What laxative drug class:

Lubricate the intestinal walls and soften the stool, enhancing passage of fecal material?

A

Emollient

117
Q

What laxative drug class:

Promote water retention in the fecal mass and soften the stool?

A

Fecal Softener

118
Q

What laxative drug class:

Dehydrate local tissue causes irritation and increases peristalsis?

A

Hyperosmolar

119
Q

What laxative drug class:

increase peristalsis by direct action on the intestine?

A

Irritant of stimulant

120
Q

What laxative drug class:
Attract of pull water into the intestine, thereby increasing pressure in the intestine followed by an increase in peristalsis?

A

Saline

121
Q
  1. Methylcellulose
A

Bulk-Forming

122
Q
  1. Mineral Oil
A

Emollient

123
Q
  1. Polyethylene Glycol
A

Hyperosmolar

124
Q
  1. Bisacodyl
A

Irritant or Stimulant

125
Q
  1. Magnesium Citrate
A

Saline

126
Q

What drug Class:

Is used for inflamed hemorrhoids?

A

Hemorrhoid Agents

127
Q
  1. Hydrocortisone

2. Pramoxine

A

Hemorrhoid Agents

128
Q

What drug class:

Is used to control Type 1 Diabetes and SOMETIMES type 2 diabetes for severe cases?

A

Insulin

129
Q

What are the 2 Oral Antidiabetic drug subclasses?

A
  1. Sulfonylureas

2. Biguanides

130
Q

What subclass:

Lower blood glucose by stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to make more insulin?

A

Sulfonylureas

131
Q

What subclass:

Reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity in muscle and fat cells?

A

Biguanides

132
Q

What Antidiabetic drug class:

Is used to treat patients with type 2 diabetes only?

A

Oral antidiabetics

133
Q

What antidiabetic class:

Can cause severe infection and CHF?

A

Oral antidiabetics

134
Q
  1. Metformin
A

Biguanides

135
Q
  1. Levothyroxine
A

Thyroid hormones

136
Q

What are the 2 types of contraceptives?

A
  1. Estrogen

2. Progestin

137
Q

What type of contraceptive:

Inhibits ovulation?

A

Estrogens

138
Q

What type of contraceptive:

Prevents the maturation of the ovarian follicle and ovulation?

A

Progestin

139
Q
  1. Norethindrone

2. Levonorgestrel (Emergency)

A

Progestin (Progestin only pills) “POPS”

140
Q

What Contraceptive:

Contraindicated a risk of thromboembolic disease is increased in females 35 years or older that use tobacco?

A

Oral contraceptives

141
Q

The term for drugs that kill bacteria?

A

Bactericidal

142
Q

The term for drugs that slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria?

A

Bacteriostatic

143
Q

What antibacterial drug:

Is “Bacteriostatic” and often is used to control urinary tract infections caused by E-Coli and Staph?

A

Sulfonamides

144
Q
  1. Silver Sulfadiazine

2. Sulfamethoxazole

A

Sulfonamides

145
Q
  1. Amoxicillin

2. Amoxicillin/Clavulanate

A

Penicillin

146
Q
  1. Cefazolin
  2. Cephalexin
  3. Ceftriaxone
A

Cephalosporines

147
Q
  1. Doxycycline
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Minocycline
A

Tetracyclines

148
Q
  1. Azithromycin
  2. Erythromycin
  3. Clarithromycin
  4. Teithromycin
A

Macrolides

149
Q

What antibacterial drug:

Is “bactericidal” and is used to treat pneumonia and UTI’s?

A

Fluoroquinolones

150
Q

What antibacterial drug class:

May cause tendinitis and tendon rupture?

A

Fluoroquinolones

151
Q
  1. Ciprofloxacin

2. Levofloxacin

A

Fluoroquinolones

152
Q

What antibacterial drug class:

Is “bactericidal” and may cause Ototoxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides

153
Q
  1. Gentamicin

2. Neomycin

A

Aminoglycosides

154
Q

What antibacterial drug class:

Is used to treat severe infections with drug resistant organisms and hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Carbapenems

155
Q
  1. Imipenem
  2. Meropenem
  3. Ertapenem
A

Carbapenems

156
Q

What are the 2 types of antiprotozoal therapies?

A
  1. Amebiasis

2. Giardiasis

157
Q

What antibacterial drug class:

Is used to treat toxic shock syndrome, bacterial vaginosis, and bite wounds?

A

Lincosamide

158
Q
  1. Clindamycin

2. Lincomycin

A

Lincosamide

159
Q
  1. Acyclovir
  2. Vancyclovir
  3. Penciclovir
  4. Oseltamivir
A

Antivirals

160
Q
  1. Ketoconazole

2. Fluconazole

A

Antifungals

161
Q
  1. Cyclobenzaprine

2. Diazepam

A

Muscle Relaxers

162
Q

What drug class:
May have an adverse reaction if abrupt cessation of medication occurs a potentially life-threatening adrenal insufficiency can occur?

A

Corticosteroids

163
Q
  1. Hydrocortisone
  2. Prednisone
  3. Triamcinolone
  4. Methylprednisolone
  5. Dexamethasone
A

Corticosteroids

164
Q

What drug class:

Act on intracranial blood vessels and sensory nerves of the trigeminal system; causes vasoconstriction?

A

Antimigraine

165
Q
  1. Rizatriptan

2. Sumatriptan

A

Antimigraine

166
Q

What drug class:

Causes paralysis and death of a pest?

A

Scabicide

167
Q
  1. Permethrin
A

Scabicide

168
Q

What drug class:

Is used to remove warts, calluses, corns?

A

Keratolytic

169
Q
  1. Podofilox 0.5% topical solution gel

2. Salicylic acid gel 17%

A

Keratolytic

170
Q
What subclass of Ophthalmic Preparations:
Are used for the prevention of cytomegalovirus?
A

Antiviral preparations

171
Q
  1. Gum
  2. Nasal Spray
  3. Lozenge
A

Nicotine Replacement Therapy

172
Q
  1. Bupropion
A

Antidepressant

173
Q
  1. Varenicline
A

Partial nicotine agonist

174
Q

Who is responsible for the oversight of the CSIB program?

A

CO

175
Q

Who will maintain custody of all controlled substances authorized for shipboard use?

A

SMDR

176
Q

The working stock custodian shall maintain a minimum of how many units of issue in the safe at all times?

A

Minimum of 1 unit of issue

177
Q

All CSIB records must be maintained how long?

A

3 years

178
Q

The bulk stock custodian must be what personnel?

A

A commissioned Officer

179
Q

What 3 occasions will a safe combination be changed?

A
  1. Immediately upon turnover
  2. Suspicion
  3. Every 6 months
180
Q

What is the ONLY justification to give a controlled substance while in homeport?

A

Only in an emergency situation where treatment will be delayed

181
Q

When can a patient return to work after taking a controlled substance?

A

8 hours after taking the medication

182
Q

What letter will be used as a prefix for controlled substance prescriptions?

A

“C”

183
Q

What is the minimum amount of CSIB members for a ship of 100 personnel or more and what are their ranks?

A
  • Minimum of 3 members
  • 2 must be a commissioned officers
  • 1 MAY BE an E-7 or above
184
Q

What is the minimum amount of CSIB members for a ship of less than 100 personnel and what are their ranks?

A
  • Minimum of 2 members
  • 1 Commissioned Officer
  • 1 Chief petty officer
185
Q

All CSIB members must score a minimum of what % on the CSIB test?

A

90% or above

186
Q

What 5 occasions will the CSIB members perform inventories?

A
  1. At least quarterly
  2. Within 1 month of any transaction
  3. At the time of the relief of the CO, or SMDR
  4. At the request of the CO
  5. Upon direction from higher authority
187
Q

What is the NAVMED 6710/22?

A

Coversheet

188
Q

What is the NAVMED 6710/23?

A

Audit

189
Q

What is the DEA Form 106?

A

Theft of significant loss of any controlled substance

190
Q

How many CSIB members must be present for destruction of medications?

A

minimum of 3 members

SENIOR MEMBER MUST BE PRESENT

191
Q

What dietary supplement can be associated with a stroke if over used?

A

Creatine

192
Q

What drug class:

Can lead to Parkinson like symptoms, Akathisia, and dystonia?

A

Antipsychotics

193
Q

What antiemetic medication block the effects of serotonin in the HT3 receptor sites?

A

Ondansetron

194
Q

What medication if used more than 3 days consecutively can cause rebound congestion?

A

Oxymetazoline

195
Q

What is a broncho constrictive substance released by the body during inflammation?

A

Leukotriene

196
Q

The effectiveness of antibiotics depend on what 3 factors?

A
  1. Location of infection
  2. Ability to reach the infection
  3. Ability of bacteria to resist or inactivate the antibiotic