Review Flashcards
1
Q
what chapt post deployment after action
A
Chapter 1
2
Q
NAVMED 6700/3 Medical and Dental Equipment Maintenance Record will be maintained for
____________
____________
____________
A
a) Equipment not supported by APL.
b) On all equipment for ships without onboard BMET.
c) Maintenance performed on the equipment.
3
Q
MRI is conducted by the ISIC how often?
A
90 days prior to deployment or q18 months
4
Q
NAVMED 6700/3
A
MED&DEN EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE
5
Q
Periodicity
Immunizations
A
Daily
6
Q
Periodicity
Health Record Maintenance
A
Daily
7
Q
Periodicity
Conduct Crew’s medical training in accordance with the Long Range Training Plan(LRTP).
Attend Planning Beard for Training(PB4T)
A
Weekly
8
Q
Periodicity
Stretcher Bearer Training
A
Bi-Weekly
9
Q
Periodicity
Controlled Substance Inventory and Report
A
Quarterly
10
Q
When is a Controlled Substance Inventory and Report required Monthly?
A
If a transaction occurred
-Report is submitted to the CO by the Senior CSIB member
11
Q
Periodicity
Shipboard Sanitation control Exemption Certificate
A
Semiannual
12
Q
Periodicity
Shipboard Sanitation Control Certificate (SSCC)
A
Semiannual
13
Q
Periodicity
Health and Dental Record Audits
A
Semiannual
14
Q
Periodicity
Bulkhead to Bulkhead Inventory of medical storerooms
A
Annual
15
Q
Periodicity
Medical and Dental Records Verification
A
Annual
16
Q
Who exercises overall control and accountability for the QA program?
A
Type Commander
17
Q
SMDR will inform who immediately of any patient beyond the scope of the care for the IDC?
A
Chain of Command (CO)
18
Q
Seek immediate ____________ Consultation for any questionable case.
A
Medical Officer
19
Q
Who countersigns all SF 600 entries by junior HMS?
A
IDC
20
Q
SMDR will maintain skills within the scope of care for an IDC as delineated in _______ series, and seek all opportunities to maintain skills through training at fixed MTF’s and various authorized avenues.
A
OPNAVINST 6400.1
21
Q
What 6000.1 Chapter?
Naval Ready Reserve Personnel
A
6
22
Q
Periodicity
Conduct Preventative Maintenance System checks and update weekly 3-M completion SKED program.
A
weekly
23
Q
What READ-E #? TYCOM-led validation event that is conducted during the Sustainment Phase. Comprised of three primary events: 1) READ E 1 validation 2) Safety Survey 3) Command Readiness Assist Visit (CRAV)
A
Readiness Evaluation 3 (READ-E 3)
24
Q
TYCOM-led validation event that is conducted during the Sustainment Phase.
Comprised of three primary events:
A
1) READ E 1 validation
2) Safety Survey
3) Command Readiness Assist Visit (CRAV)
25
M-1 Requirement
| MRD performs material assessment on what and percentage should if be maintained at?
Emergency AMALS at 100%
26
Inspection checklists are located in what instructions?
COMNAVSURPACINST 6000.2
| COMNAVSURFLANTINST 6000.2 Series.
27
Checklists are utilized during quarterly ISIC QA visits over an ___-month time
frame to complete the assessment
18
28
An 80% readiness results in what C-status?
C-2 Substantially Ready
29
A 90% readiness results on what C-status?
C-1 Full Ready
30
A 70% readiness results in what C-status?
C-3 Marginally Ready
31
A 69% or lower results in what C-status grade
C-4 Not Ready
32
The Ref for the DRI is the __________ which contains the inspection checklist
COMUSFLTFORCOMINST 6600.1
33
Does Medical maintain a light duty log?
No
34
Areas evaluated include all applicable NAVOSH Programs covered in?
OPNAVINST 5100.19 series
35
What is the Consolidated List of Effective instructions?
OPNAVNOTE 5215
36
What is the semi-annual listing of valid instructions issued by Washington, DC, Headquarters Organizations?
(OPNAV, BUMED, JAGC, NAVAIR, SECNAV, etc.)
Consolidated List of Effective Instructions (OPNAVNOTE 5215)
37
What is?
Navy Telecommunications User’s Manual
(NTP-3 series)
Provides concise procedures for the drafting and preparation of DON GENADMIN messages.
38
What is?
| Message Address Directory (USN PLAD-1)
Used for providing the correct Plain Language Address (PLAD) for messages of any type.
39
```
What IMR Status?
Current in all categories including dental class 1 or 2
```
Fully medically ready
40
What IMR Status?
| Lacking one or more immunizations, readiness laboratory studies, or medical equipment.
Partially medically ready.
41
```
What IMR Status?
Existence of a chronic or prolonged deployment limiting condition including Service members who are hospitalized or convalescing from serious illness or injury, or individuals in dental class 3
```
Not medically ready
42
```
What IMR Status?
Inability to determine the Service member’s current health status because of missing health information such as a lost medical record, an overdue PHA or being in dental class 4.
```
Medical readiness indeterminate.
43
Dental Readiness Inspection (DRI) is conducted how often?
every 18 months or 120 days prior to a deployment
44
What is Chapter 1 of the 6000.1
General
45
What is Chapter 2 of the 6000.1
Training
46
What is Chapter 3 of the 6000.1
Fiscal/Supply Management
47
What is Chapter 4 of the 6000.1
Health Care
48
What is Chapter 5 of the 6000.1
Environmental Health and Preventive Medicine Afloat
49
What is Chapter 6 of the 6000.1
Medical Planning
50
what chapter CSIB
Chapter 3
51
What chapt covers women's WWE
Chapter 4
52
What Chap covers Casualty evacuation
Chapter 6
53
What Phase?
(a) Begins immediately upon certification
(b) Ship will maintain REs as periodicity dictates
(c) Upon entering this Phase, FSO-M certification will remain in place, however it will be tailored to reflect the needs of the shipyard environment.
Sustainment
54
Where can you find a mailing address and titles for naval correspondence or all DON activities
OPNAVNOTE 5400
55
What is the periodicity for INSURV
About every 5 years, or prior to commissioning and decommissioning.
56
when does all hands get briefed on heat stress surveys.
never
57
When does the SMDR explain the location purpose and use of the following?
- First Aid Boxes
- Litters and Stretchers
- Mass Casualty Boxes
- Battle Dressing Station
Indoc
58
When does Hearing conservation and heat stress get briefed
Indoc
59
How many stretcher bearers are assigned to each BDS?
Four
60
Medical department PQS will be met within how many months after reporting on ship?
6 Months
61
Who signs off on the medical department PQS?
SMDR, MO, or Division officer
62
Specialty Training is primarily given to personnel who work in what activities?
```
Food SVC
Potable Water
Barber Shop
Laundry
CHT Systems
```
63
What chapt coverers MASSCAS boxes
4
64
Who needs to know about the emergency supplies locations
All hands
65
Who Chairs the PB4T?
XO
66
When is a Medical joining report submitted
when entering a command region or zone (INCHOP)
| message to new AOR.
67
What is medicals role in GMT training
act as a resource
68
who can determine UNFIT FOR DUTY
CPEP
69
An after the fact report is submitted within 48 hours to __________ by the transferring MTF
GPMRC/TPMRC
70
When is the after fact report submitted
within 48 hours
71
MRI is conducted by the ISIC how often?
90 days prior to deployment or q18 months
72
MRI is conducted by the ISIC how often?
90 days prior to deployment or q18 months
73
Hospitalized Enlisted:
| The Member's CO will be notified by _______
MTF
74
MTF will notify who if the hospitalized member is transferring?
CO of the new duty station and PERSCOM 40
75
MTF will notify who if the hospitalized member is transferring?
CO of the new duty station and PERSCOM 40
76
What entity?
Provides integrated medical, clinical, and security services to organizations with international operations. Services include planning and preventative programs, incountry expertise, and emergency response.
International SOS (ISOS)
77
Can ISOS help you replace a lost CAC ID?
NO
78
International SOS will assist you with:
| 8 things
(a) Provide assistance in an emergency
(b) Locating network primary
(c) Identifying specialty care providers
(d) Medically monitoring your care
(e) Provide you with medical advice, guidance when self-treating minor illnesses.
(f) Scheduling medical appointments
(g) Help ensure you receive the most appropriate care.
(h) If necessary, move you or your family to another area to seek care.
79
What entity?
has partnered with International SOS to establish a network of healthcare providers in select remote locations of Europe, the Pacific, Canada and Latin America.
Tricare Overseas Program
80
The TRICARE Overseas Program consists of what three (3) programs:
(a) TRICARE Pacific
(b) TRICARE Euasia-Africa
(c) TRICARE Latin America & Canada (TLAC)
81
Requests for transfer of patients to CONUS are normally sent via the _______ or message to ________
-Command Regulating and Command & Control Evaluation System (TRAC2ES)
-Global Patient Movement Regulating Center/Theater Patient Movement
Regulating Center (GPMRC/TPMRC)
82
Patients transferred to another MTF and who are expected to return to duty are.....
regulated to the closest MTF having the capability to provide the care
83
Patients transferred to another MTF who are not expected to return to duty are......
regulated to an MTF which is nearest the patient’s place of residence for humanitarian reasons
84
This list of people can convene what?
(1) Commanding Officers of Naval hosp., Naval medical clinics
(2) Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
(3) Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)
(4) Fleet Commanders-In-Chief
(5) Chief, Naval Personnel
(6) Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery
(7) OIC, Medical Military Support Office
Medical Board
85
What is the Reference for Medical Board
MANMED CHAP 18
86
Can the CO of your ship convene a medical board?
No
87
Medical Boards will be composed of......
two Medical Officers with a third assigned at the
| discretion of the convening authority.
88
Who must serve as a member if a Class 1 or 2 aviation officer appears before a board to return to full duty?
Flight Surgeon
89
Who may affirm the physical qualification of a member for assignment to duty in relation to a Medical Evaluation Board?
Central Physical Evaluation Board
90
Can the Medical board determine unfit for duty?
No
91
What is the only entity that can make determination for unfit for duty?
Central Physical Evaluation Board (CPEB)
92
An Annex Q contains the information and guidance to......
provide medical support in an organized system during the exercise or operation.
93
An ______ is intended to provide guidance for all aspects of an operation in order to accomplish the stated objectives.
Operational plan OPLAN
94
A member has a condition or physical defect which may permanently interfere with his or her ability to reasonably perform the duties of their rate.
Medical Board
95
A member is temporarily unable to perform full duty, but return to full duty is anticipated and it is necessary to follow the patient for more than 30 days before
final disposition is made, i.e. Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) boards.
Medical Board
96
Continued military service would probably result in extended hospitalization or other close medical supervision, or be likely to aggravate the existing condition.
Medical Board
97
The member’s condition includes the presence of mental incompetence or incapability to manage personal or financial affairs.
Medical Board
98
The member’s condition requires permanent assignment limitations, i.e., specific geographic assignment, etc…
Medical Board
99
The member suffers significant illness or injury, which may impact on future service, even though the member appears to be normal.
Medical Board
