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SMDR > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

what chapt post deployment after action

A

Chapter 1

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2
Q

NAVMED 6700/3 Medical and Dental Equipment Maintenance Record will be maintained for
____________
____________
____________

A

a) Equipment not supported by APL.
b) On all equipment for ships without onboard BMET.
c) Maintenance performed on the equipment.

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3
Q

MRI is conducted by the ISIC how often?

A

90 days prior to deployment or q18 months

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4
Q

NAVMED 6700/3

A

MED&DEN EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE

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5
Q

Periodicity

Immunizations

A

Daily

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6
Q

Periodicity

Health Record Maintenance

A

Daily

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7
Q

Periodicity
Conduct Crew’s medical training in accordance with the Long Range Training Plan(LRTP).
Attend Planning Beard for Training(PB4T)

A

Weekly

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8
Q

Periodicity

Stretcher Bearer Training

A

Bi-Weekly

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9
Q

Periodicity

Controlled Substance Inventory and Report

A

Quarterly

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10
Q

When is a Controlled Substance Inventory and Report required Monthly?

A

If a transaction occurred

-Report is submitted to the CO by the Senior CSIB member

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11
Q

Periodicity

Shipboard Sanitation control Exemption Certificate

A

Semiannual

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12
Q

Periodicity

Shipboard Sanitation Control Certificate (SSCC)

A

Semiannual

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13
Q

Periodicity

Health and Dental Record Audits

A

Semiannual

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14
Q

Periodicity

Bulkhead to Bulkhead Inventory of medical storerooms

A

Annual

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15
Q

Periodicity

Medical and Dental Records Verification

A

Annual

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16
Q

Who exercises overall control and accountability for the QA program?

A

Type Commander

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17
Q

SMDR will inform who immediately of any patient beyond the scope of the care for the IDC?

A

Chain of Command (CO)

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18
Q

Seek immediate ____________ Consultation for any questionable case.

A

Medical Officer

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19
Q

Who countersigns all SF 600 entries by junior HMS?

A

IDC

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20
Q

SMDR will maintain skills within the scope of care for an IDC as delineated in _______ series, and seek all opportunities to maintain skills through training at fixed MTF’s and various authorized avenues.

A

OPNAVINST 6400.1

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21
Q

What 6000.1 Chapter?

Naval Ready Reserve Personnel

A

6

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22
Q

Periodicity

Conduct Preventative Maintenance System checks and update weekly 3-M completion SKED program.

A

weekly

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23
Q 
What READ-E #?
TYCOM-led validation event that is conducted during the Sustainment Phase. Comprised of three primary events:
1) READ E 1 validation
2) Safety Survey
3) Command Readiness Assist Visit (CRAV)
A

Readiness Evaluation 3 (READ-E 3)

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24
Q

TYCOM-led validation event that is conducted during the Sustainment Phase.
Comprised of three primary events:

A

1) READ E 1 validation
2) Safety Survey
3) Command Readiness Assist Visit (CRAV)

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25
Q

M-1 Requirement

MRD performs material assessment on what and percentage should if be maintained at?

A

Emergency AMALS at 100%

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26
Q

Inspection checklists are located in what instructions?

A

COMNAVSURPACINST 6000.2

COMNAVSURFLANTINST 6000.2 Series.

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27
Q

Checklists are utilized during quarterly ISIC QA visits over an ___-month time
frame to complete the assessment

A

18

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28
Q

An 80% readiness results in what C-status?

A

C-2 Substantially Ready

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29
Q

A 90% readiness results on what C-status?

A

C-1 Full Ready

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30
Q

A 70% readiness results in what C-status?

A

C-3 Marginally Ready

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31
Q

A 69% or lower results in what C-status grade

A

C-4 Not Ready

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32
Q

The Ref for the DRI is the __________ which contains the inspection checklist

A

COMUSFLTFORCOMINST 6600.1

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33
Q

Does Medical maintain a light duty log?

A

No

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34
Q

Areas evaluated include all applicable NAVOSH Programs covered in?

A

OPNAVINST 5100.19 series

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35
Q

What is the Consolidated List of Effective instructions?

A

OPNAVNOTE 5215

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36
Q

What is the semi-annual listing of valid instructions issued by Washington, DC, Headquarters Organizations?
(OPNAV, BUMED, JAGC, NAVAIR, SECNAV, etc.)

A

Consolidated List of Effective Instructions (OPNAVNOTE 5215)

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37
Q

What is?
Navy Telecommunications User’s Manual
(NTP-3 series)

A

Provides concise procedures for the drafting and preparation of DON GENADMIN messages.

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38
Q

What is?

Message Address Directory (USN PLAD-1)

A

Used for providing the correct Plain Language Address (PLAD) for messages of any type.

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39
Q 
What IMR Status?
Current in all categories including dental class 1 or 2
A

Fully medically ready

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40
Q

What IMR Status?

Lacking one or more immunizations, readiness laboratory studies, or medical equipment.

A

Partially medically ready.

41
Q 
What IMR Status?
Existence of a chronic or prolonged deployment limiting condition including Service members who are hospitalized or convalescing from serious illness or injury, or individuals in dental class 3
A

Not medically ready

42
Q 
What IMR Status?
Inability to determine the Service member’s current health status because of missing health information such as a lost medical record, an overdue PHA or being in dental class 4.
A

Medical readiness indeterminate.

43
Q

Dental Readiness Inspection (DRI) is conducted how often?

A

every 18 months or 120 days prior to a deployment

44
Q

What is Chapter 1 of the 6000.1

A

General

45
Q

What is Chapter 2 of the 6000.1

A

Training

46
Q

What is Chapter 3 of the 6000.1

A

Fiscal/Supply Management

47
Q

What is Chapter 4 of the 6000.1

A

Health Care

48
Q

What is Chapter 5 of the 6000.1

A

Environmental Health and Preventive Medicine Afloat

49
Q

What is Chapter 6 of the 6000.1

A

Medical Planning

50
Q

what chapter CSIB

A

Chapter 3

51
Q

What chapt covers women’s WWE

A

Chapter 4

52
Q

What Chap covers Casualty evacuation

A

Chapter 6

53
Q

What Phase?

(a) Begins immediately upon certification
(b) Ship will maintain REs as periodicity dictates
(c) Upon entering this Phase, FSO-M certification will remain in place, however it will be tailored to reflect the needs of the shipyard environment.

A

Sustainment

54
Q

Where can you find a mailing address and titles for naval correspondence or all DON activities

A

OPNAVNOTE 5400

55
Q

What is the periodicity for INSURV

A

About every 5 years, or prior to commissioning and decommissioning.

56
Q

when does all hands get briefed on heat stress surveys.

A

never

57
Q

When does the SMDR explain the location purpose and use of the following?

  • First Aid Boxes
  • Litters and Stretchers
  • Mass Casualty Boxes
  • Battle Dressing Station
A

Indoc

58
Q

When does Hearing conservation and heat stress get briefed

A

Indoc

59
Q

How many stretcher bearers are assigned to each BDS?

A

Four

60
Q

Medical department PQS will be met within how many months after reporting on ship?

A

6 Months

61
Q

Who signs off on the medical department PQS?

A

SMDR, MO, or Division officer

62
Q

Specialty Training is primarily given to personnel who work in what activities?

A 
Food SVC
Potable Water
Barber Shop
Laundry
CHT Systems
63
Q

What chapt coverers MASSCAS boxes

A

4

64
Q

Who needs to know about the emergency supplies locations

A

All hands

65
Q

Who Chairs the PB4T?

A

XO

66
Q

When is a Medical joining report submitted

A

when entering a command region or zone (INCHOP)

message to new AOR.

67
Q

What is medicals role in GMT training

A

act as a resource

68
Q

who can determine UNFIT FOR DUTY

A

CPEP

69
Q

An after the fact report is submitted within 48 hours to __________ by the transferring MTF

A

GPMRC/TPMRC

70
Q

When is the after fact report submitted

A

within 48 hours

71
Q

MRI is conducted by the ISIC how often?

A

90 days prior to deployment or q18 months

72
Q

MRI is conducted by the ISIC how often?

A

90 days prior to deployment or q18 months

73
Q

Hospitalized Enlisted:

The Member’s CO will be notified by _______

A

MTF

74
Q

MTF will notify who if the hospitalized member is transferring?

A

CO of the new duty station and PERSCOM 40

75
Q

MTF will notify who if the hospitalized member is transferring?

A

CO of the new duty station and PERSCOM 40

76
Q

What entity?
Provides integrated medical, clinical, and security services to organizations with international operations. Services include planning and preventative programs, incountry expertise, and emergency response.

A

International SOS (ISOS)

77
Q

Can ISOS help you replace a lost CAC ID?

A

NO

78
Q

International SOS will assist you with:

8 things

A

(a) Provide assistance in an emergency
(b) Locating network primary
(c) Identifying specialty care providers
(d) Medically monitoring your care
(e) Provide you with medical advice, guidance when self-treating minor illnesses.
(f) Scheduling medical appointments
(g) Help ensure you receive the most appropriate care.
(h) If necessary, move you or your family to another area to seek care.

79
Q

What entity?
has partnered with International SOS to establish a network of healthcare providers in select remote locations of Europe, the Pacific, Canada and Latin America.

A

Tricare Overseas Program

80
Q

The TRICARE Overseas Program consists of what three (3) programs:

A

(a) TRICARE Pacific
(b) TRICARE Euasia-Africa
(c) TRICARE Latin America & Canada (TLAC)

81
Q

Requests for transfer of patients to CONUS are normally sent via the _______ or message to ________

A

-Command Regulating and Command & Control Evaluation System (TRAC2ES)
-Global Patient Movement Regulating Center/Theater Patient Movement
Regulating Center (GPMRC/TPMRC)

82
Q

Patients transferred to another MTF and who are expected to return to duty are…..

A

regulated to the closest MTF having the capability to provide the care

83
Q

Patients transferred to another MTF who are not expected to return to duty are……

A

regulated to an MTF which is nearest the patient’s place of residence for humanitarian reasons

84
Q

This list of people can convene what?

(1) Commanding Officers of Naval hosp., Naval medical clinics
(2) Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
(3) Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)
(4) Fleet Commanders-In-Chief
(5) Chief, Naval Personnel
(6) Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery
(7) OIC, Medical Military Support Office

A

Medical Board

85
Q

What is the Reference for Medical Board

A

MANMED CHAP 18

86
Q

Can the CO of your ship convene a medical board?

A

No

87
Q

Medical Boards will be composed of……

A

two Medical Officers with a third assigned at the

discretion of the convening authority.

88
Q

Who must serve as a member if a Class 1 or 2 aviation officer appears before a board to return to full duty?

A

Flight Surgeon

89
Q

Who may affirm the physical qualification of a member for assignment to duty in relation to a Medical Evaluation Board?

A

Central Physical Evaluation Board

90
Q

Can the Medical board determine unfit for duty?

A

No

91
Q

What is the only entity that can make determination for unfit for duty?

A

Central Physical Evaluation Board (CPEB)

92
Q

An Annex Q contains the information and guidance to……

A

provide medical support in an organized system during the exercise or operation.

93
Q

An ______ is intended to provide guidance for all aspects of an operation in order to accomplish the stated objectives.

A

Operational plan OPLAN

94
Q

A member has a condition or physical defect which may permanently interfere with his or her ability to reasonably perform the duties of their rate.

A

Medical Board

95
Q

A member is temporarily unable to perform full duty, but return to full duty is anticipated and it is necessary to follow the patient for more than 30 days before
final disposition is made, i.e. Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) boards.

A

Medical Board

96
Q

Continued military service would probably result in extended hospitalization or other close medical supervision, or be likely to aggravate the existing condition.

A

Medical Board

97
Q

The member’s condition includes the presence of mental incompetence or incapability to manage personal or financial affairs.

A

Medical Board

98
Q

The member’s condition requires permanent assignment limitations, i.e., specific geographic assignment, etc…

A

Medical Board

99
Q

The member suffers significant illness or injury, which may impact on future service, even though the member appears to be normal.

A

Medical Board

SMDR (5 decks)

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