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REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

what does the water sanitation bill cover?

A

anything to do with potable water, ANYTHING.

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2
Q

what is distilation?

A

total process the distilling plant forms, including evaporation and condensation

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3
Q

what is Free available chlorine?

A

chlorine available (after the demand is met)

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4
Q

what is water that is suitable for human consumption?

A

Potable water

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5
Q

what is total coliforms?

A

Mostly harmless bacteria found mostly in animal and human guts.
- good indicator of the overall quality of the water

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6
Q

E. Coli is?

A

a type of fecal coliform commonly found in intestines.

- presence is a strong indicator that the water has recently been contaminated with sewage

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7
Q

what is NAVSEA responsible for when it comes to potable water?

A
  • design
  • construction
  • Maintenance
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8
Q

what is NAVFAC responsible for with potable water?

A

Promulgating instructions for ship-to-shore connections

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9
Q

who is responsible for promulgating the ships water sanitation bill?

A

Commanding Officer

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10
Q

for potable water what is the engineering department responsible for?

A
  • supply and treatment of potable water
  • ensure all ship to shore connections are made by trained personnel
  • halogen and PH testing
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11
Q

for potable water what is the MDRs responsibility?

A
  • BACTI testing
  • daily halogen residuals
  • notifying the CO of any discrepancies observed
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12
Q

per NAVSEA what is the daily water use per person?

A

50 gallons per day

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13
Q

under water restriction how much water does each person rate?

A

no less than 2 gallons per day

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14
Q

what method does the ship use to make their own water?

A

Distillation, Reverse osmosis

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15
Q

when receiving water from an unapproved source what is the minimum FAC/TBR?

A

2.0 ppm

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16
Q

what are the types of distillation plants?

A
  • Steam distilling
  • waste heat distilling
  • vapor compression
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17
Q

what are the two types of reverse osmosis?

A
  • single pass

- triple pass

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18
Q

what type of reverse osmosis requires additional disinfection?

A

Single pass

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19
Q

what certification must the interior lining of a potable water tank have?

A

NSF/ANSI Standard

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20
Q

what is the purpose of overflow lines?

What specifics are they constructed under?

A
  • to prevent accidental contamination

- screened with 18 gauge mesh or finer and be noncorrosive

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21
Q

what must sounding tubes be labeled as?

A

“POTABLE WATER ONLY”

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22
Q

how are sounding tubes disinfected?

A

100 ppm for 2 minutes

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23
Q

how high must filling connections be off the deck?

A

18 inches

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24
Q

what color are potable water filling connections?

A

Dark blue

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25
Q

what requirements must potable water hose lockers meet?

A
  • rodent proof
  • 18 inches off floor
  • instructions for sanitizing lines inside
  • locked
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26
Q

when do potable water lines need to be removed from use?

A

when they develop leaks or cracks

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27
Q

how must potable water hoses be labeled?

A

“POTABLE WATER ONLY”

in 1 inch lettering every 10 feet

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28
Q

how should potable water valves be labeled?

A

“POTABLE WATER ONLY”
in 1/4 inch lettering
- be dark blue in color

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29
Q

who is allowed to make ship-to-shore connections?

A

supervised by authorized shore station personnel or properly trained ship personnel

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30
Q

what is the minimum halogen residual when receiving water of a doubtful quality?

A

2.0 ppm

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31
Q

what is the purpose of halogen residual testing?

A
  • quick indication of water that may have been improperly handled or treated
  • absence of a halogen residual may indicate contamination
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32
Q

what is the purpose of BACTI Testing?

A
  • Ensures fitness for human consumption

- assesses adequacy of disinfection process

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33
Q

who performs temp and PH testing?

A

Engineering Dept

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34
Q

what temperature water is halogen more effective in?

A

Warm water

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35
Q

how often must halogen residuals be conducted?

A

Daily

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36
Q

how many weekly BACTI tests do you pull for a crew of 400 or less?

A

4

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37
Q

how many weekly BACTI tests do you pull for a crew of 400-800?

A

8

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38
Q

how many weekly BACTI tests do you pull for a crew of more than 800?

A

12

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39
Q

what percent of the ships ice machines and potable water tanks will be conducted weekly?

A

25%

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40
Q

what DPD do you use for testing FAC andTBR?

A

DPD 1

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41
Q

what DPD do you use when testing for total chloramines?

A

DPD4

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42
Q

how accurate is the color compariater?

A

+/- 10%

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43
Q

how accurate is the portable spectrophotometer?

A

+/- 2%

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44
Q

what is added to water samples when doing bacteriological testing?

A
  • Colilert

- Colisure

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45
Q

when reading a water sample with Colilert what is positive?

A

yellow in color

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46
Q

when reading a water sample with Colilert what is positive for E. Coli?

A

Fluorescent yellow under UV light

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47
Q

when reading a water sample with Colisure what is positive

A

Magenta

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48
Q

when reading a water sample with Colisure what is positive for E. Coli

A

Fluorescent light blue

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49
Q

what are the chemicals approved for water disinfection aboard ships?

A
  • Chlorine (in port)

- Bromine (at Sea)

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50
Q

what injects hypochlorite into the system in proportion to flow?

A

In-line chlorinator

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51
Q

what is used by dispensing the chemical into the water via an impregnated resign cartrage?

A

Brominator

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52
Q

what water disinfection method is used when usual systems are not working properly?

A

Batch method

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53
Q

what is the least desirable method of water disinfection?

A

Batch method

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54
Q

what chemical is used in the Batch method?

A

Calcium Hypochlorite (HTH)

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55
Q

when using HTH what is the rule of thumb when measuring?

A

one ounce of HTH per 5,000 gallons of water will get you 1.0 ppm FAC

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56
Q

what is the minimum PPM for water received from an approved source?

A

.2 ppm after 30 minute contact time

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57
Q

what is the minimum PPM for water received from an unapproved source?

A

2.0 ppm after 30 minute contact time

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58
Q

when disinfecting the potable water system what are the main steps for method 1

A
  • Fill tank to flow level
  • add chlorine to 10ppm (hold for 24 hours)
  • Perform BACTI testing
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59
Q

when disinfecting the potable water system what are the main steps for method 2

A
  • Spray 200ppm solution all through tank surfaces
  • flush pipes wit h10 ppm
  • 30 minute contact time
  • perform BACTI testing
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60
Q

when disinfecting the potable water system what are the main steps for method 3

A
  • fill tank 5% full with 50ppm
  • hold 6 hours
  • fill remaining with potable water (hold 24 hours)
  • BACTI testing
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61
Q

what steps do all three potable system disinfection methods have in common?

A

BACTI testing a the end

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62
Q

when you have a foul odor with an unidentified source what must you do?

A
  • Super chlorinate to 5.0 ppm

- distribute the water at 2.0 ppm

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63
Q

what taste and odor control method needs NAVSEA approval?

A

Steam method

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64
Q

for smell and odor control of water who would you call for outside assistance?

A

NEPMU via TYCOM medical officer

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65
Q

what strength of Calcium Hypochlorite (HTH) do we use?

A

65%-70%

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66
Q

what size bottle of HTH do we use?

A

6oz

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67
Q

how must HTH be stored?

A

in a locked box with three 1/4 inch holes drilled in it for venting chlorine gas

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68
Q

what warning must be on a HTH locker?

A

“Hazardous material, Calcium Hypochlorite” in red letters on a white background

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69
Q

what department typically has the HTH locker?

A

Engineering

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70
Q

who keeps records of potable water surveillance and for how long?

A

MDR for 2 years

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71
Q

when must CHT workers be trained on health hazards and personal hygiene?

A
  • indoc

- periodically

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72
Q

who has to supervise CHT cleanup?

A

Medical

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73
Q

what modes can the CHT system operate in?

A
  • Restricted waters
  • At sea
  • in port
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74
Q

what is another name for the CHT system?

A

Marine Sanitation Device

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75
Q

what is the most common CHT system?

A

Type II - B

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76
Q

what does the Collection element do for the CHT system?

A

soil drains or sewage

divers over the side of the ship or into holding tanks

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77
Q

what does the holding element of the CHT system do?

A

Retains sewage

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78
Q

How much sewage can tanks hold?

A

12 hours worth

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79
Q

what does the transfer element in the CHT system do?

A

sewage pumps to remove waste off ship.

80
Q

in the CHT system what poses the greatest risk to workers?

A

Hydrogen sulfide gas

81
Q

what must all CHT pump rooms have?

A
  • 2 EEBD

- proper warning plates outside pump rooms and near tank access

82
Q

how long are EEBDs usually good for?

A

10 minutes

83
Q

what toxic or explosive gasses are associated with CHT?

A
  • hydrogen sulfide
  • Methane
  • Ammonia
  • Carbon Dioxide
84
Q

what CHT gas is associated with a rotten egg smell?

A

Hydrogen sulfide

85
Q

what is extremely important for CHT workers to do?

A

Adhere to strict proper personal hygiene

86
Q

when cleaning up sewage spills, chemicals must be____ approved

A

EPA

87
Q

what are the two types of germicide used for sewage spills?

A
  • Phenolic

- Iodine

88
Q

what color are internal CHT valves painted?

A

Gold

89
Q

what publication is used for disposing of shipboard waste?

A

NAVFAC Pub MO-340

90
Q

how far from shore must a ship be to dump sewage?

A

3 nautical miles

91
Q

for ground force waters who advised the CO on water quality issues?

A

MDR

92
Q

for ground force waters who provides sufficient water for the population?

A

Engineering Officer

93
Q

for ground force waters who ensures there’s sufficient water for the forces?

A

unit commander

94
Q

for ground forces water what are sources?

A
  • public supply
  • ground water
  • surface water
95
Q

what is the most common method of treating water for ground forces?

A

Military ROWPU

96
Q

what kind of water can the ROWPU use?

A
  • fresh
  • sea
  • brackish
97
Q

Light Weight water purifier (LWP)

A
  • 125 gallons per hour
98
Q

Tactical water purification system

A

1500 gallons per hour

99
Q

ground water ppm requirement?

A

2ppm FAC after 30 minute contact time

100
Q

surface water ppm requirement?

A

5ppm FAC after 30 minute contact time

101
Q

when is ground water allowed to be used for drinking?

A

in emergencies only

102
Q

what is an easily mobile large fabric water tank?

A

3,000 gallon onion tank

103
Q

how much water can the Load handling system store?

A

(HIPPO)

2,000 gallons

104
Q

how much water can the semitrailer- mounted fabric tank hold?

A

3,000 or 5,000 gallons

105
Q

Ground force water storage disinfection method 1 procedures:

A
  • chlorinate water to 100 ppm
  • run water through all valves and spigots
  • keep for 60 minutes
  • drain and rinse twice
106
Q

Ground force water storage disinfection method 2 procedures:

A
  • prepare 5 gallon bucket of 100ppm
  • use a PFC to wipe down the inside with a stick and solution
  • keep walls wet for 1 hour
  • drain and rinse twice
107
Q

Ground force water storage disinfection alternate procedures:

A
  • chlorinate water to 10 ppm. hold for 24 hours

- drain and rinse twice

108
Q

Accommodations:

A

Number of personnel to be permanently supported in the ship by way of habitability spaces, systems, fixtures

109
Q

Surge:

A

Personnel embarked on ship for a short period of time/ special operations or exercises

110
Q

Transients:

A

personnel embarked on the ship who do not contribute to the capability

111
Q

what are the habitability factors?

A
  • floor space
  • ventilation
  • heating
  • sanitary fixtures
  • water supply
  • lighting
  • color
112
Q

what is designed to minimize humidity and odor?

A

Ventilation

113
Q

what type of pillow is prohibited from ships?

A

Polyurethane

114
Q

what can make routine walk through inspections of toilets, lavatories and berthing spaces?

A
  • XO
  • MDR
  • OOD
  • JOOD
  • Chief Master-at-arms
  • Div O
  • Division CPO
115
Q

how often must all toilet and shower areas be cleaned?

A

Daily

116
Q

how often must all habitability inspections be conducted?

A

Quarterly

117
Q

who are habitability inspections routed to?

A

Co via COC

118
Q

who must approve of disinfectants used?

A

EPA

FDA

119
Q

what must all barbers get from medical?

A

Medical clearance that they are free from communicable disease

120
Q

what must all barbers wear?

A

Clean smock or outer garment

121
Q

if a barber shop is in a BEQ, BOQ, Enlisted/officer Club what must it be?

A

located in its own room away from living spaces

122
Q

what pressure must compressed air used in barbershops not exceed?

A

15 PSI

123
Q

how often must barbers wash their hands and disinfect their tools?

A

after each patron

124
Q

when must disinfection solution be changed in a barber shop?

A

weekly or when visibly soiled

125
Q

how often are barber shops inspected?

A

quarterly

126
Q

how do you clean the floor of a laundry facility?

A

Daily using he dustless method

127
Q

lint must be removed from:

A
  • Bulkhead
  • overhead
  • structural supports
128
Q

ear pro must be worn when?

A

in spaces over 84m db

129
Q

First aid kits are required by who?

A

OSHA

130
Q

how do you wash cloths to make them Hygienically safe?

A
  • 120-140 F water

- must be heat dried

131
Q

what laundry are you allowed to sort?

A

Soiled linen

132
Q

what type of laundry must be in a double sealed bag marked biohazard

A

Contaminated

133
Q

what is the purpose of the navy’s quarantine regulations?

A

to prevent disease from entering or exiting US or foreign ports

134
Q

what are quarantinable diseases?

A
  • Cholera
  • Plague
  • yellow fever
  • Diphtheria
  • Smallpox
  • viral Hemorrhagic fevers
  • TB
  • SARS
135
Q

what is the infectious agent of cholera?

A

Vibrio Cholerae

136
Q

where is Vibrio Cholerae found?

A
  • brackish rivers

- coastal waters

137
Q

what are the methods of control for cholera?

A
  • Enteric precautions
  • active immz
  • concurrent disinfection
138
Q

what is the infective agent of the plague?

A

Yersinia Pestis

139
Q

what are the types of plague?

A
  • Bubonic

- Pneumonic

140
Q

what are the methods of control for plague?

A
  • rat-proofing
  • storage and disposal of waste
  • patient isolation and concurrent disinfection
  • clothing repellant
141
Q

what disease is very rare among travelers?

A

Yellow fever

142
Q

what is the main vector for yellow fever?

A

Ades Agepti mosquito

143
Q

what is the infectious agent for small pox?

A

Variola Virus

144
Q

what year was smallpox eradicated?

A

1979 declared by the WHO

145
Q

what is the instruction for the shipboard sanitation program?

A

BUMEDINST 6210.4

146
Q

how far ahead of pulling into port does a CO have to report quarantine status?

A

12-72 hours

147
Q

what is the instruction for the TB surveillance and control program?

A

BUMEDINST 6224.8

148
Q

what are the elements of the TB control program?

A
  • screening
  • prev therapy
  • PT identification
  • PT management
  • contact investigation
149
Q

what two brands are used for the PPD?

A
  • Tubersol (preferred)

- Aplisol

150
Q

what are the methods used to test for TB?

A
  • TST

- QuantiFERON gold

151
Q

what is the infectious agent for TB?

A

Mycobacterium TB

152
Q

what is the treatment for LTBI?

A

INH weekly for 3 months

- 15Mg per KG (max 900Mg)

153
Q

what is the alternate treatment for LTBI

A

Rifampin daily at 10mg/kg (600mg max) for 4 months

154
Q

who gets the TST?

A

anyone entering service or civ for MSC

155
Q

what is the TB screening form?

A

NAVMED 6224/8

156
Q

when do you perform a CXR for TB?

A
  • when clinically indicated

- R/O Active TB

157
Q

what does BCG stand for?

A

Bacilluis Calmette Guerin

158
Q

how big must the wheal be when performing a TST?

A

6mm in diameter

159
Q

when do you read a TST?

A

48-72 hours later

160
Q

what do you document a TST on?

A
  • DD 2766

- NAVMED 6230/4

161
Q

how often must medical see someone whos on INH?

A

monthly

162
Q

what must be discussed at the monthly INH visit?

A
  • physical assessment for active TB
  • Counseling for drug reactions
  • when to DC meds
  • when to report for prompt medical attention
163
Q

what do you document the monthly INH visit on?

A

NAVMED 6224/9

164
Q

what would cause you to withhold INH?

A

LFTs 3 times higher than normal with symptoms

5 times normal without symptoms

165
Q

who is responsible for the continuation of contact tracing of TB?

A

CO or OIC

166
Q

treatment of active TB?

A

Chemotherapy is very effective

167
Q

what two types of meds do you give for active TB?

A
  • Bactericidal

- bacteriostatic

168
Q

to prevent from resistance how many meds do you give for active TB?

A

2 through different mechanisms

169
Q

what is the publication for medical event reporting?

A

NMCPHC-TM 6220.12

170
Q

when internet is unavailable how do you make routine medical reports?

A

US postal service

171
Q

how may urgent reports be made?

A
  • phone
  • priority naval message
  • Encrypted email
172
Q

what time frame must urgent reports be made in?

A

24 hours

173
Q

what are diseases that require urgent reporting?

A
  • anthrax
  • botulism
  • diphtheria
  • hemorrhagic fever
  • Flu, novel
  • Malaria
  • Measles
  • Meningococcal
  • outbreak
  • plague
  • polio
  • rabies
  • SARS
  • smallpox
  • TB
  • Tularemia
174
Q

what security clearance do MERs usually have?

A

unclassified

175
Q

who is responsible for sending the MER?

A

the physician who identified the disease

176
Q

a disease is considered reportable when:

A
  • suspected
  • possible
  • confirmed
177
Q

how many shots is the anthrax vaccine and at what interval?

A

5 shot series

0, 1month, 6months, 12months, 18 months

178
Q

what route is anthrax given?

A

IM

179
Q

how often is the anthrax booster required?

A

annually

180
Q

how many doses is the HEP A vaccine and at what interval?

A

2 doses

0, 6month

181
Q

HEP B Dosage and interval

A

3 doses

0, 4 weeks, 5months

182
Q

JEV doses and interval

A

2 doses

0, 7-28 days

183
Q

women receiving what vaccine are advised to not get pregnant for how many days?

A

MMR, 28 days

184
Q

MMR doses and intervals

A

2 doses
0, 4 weeks
Sub Q

185
Q

when would you give the typhoid vaccine?

A

Over seas deployment where typhoid is endemic

- when exposed to foodborne salmonella typhi

186
Q

Yellow fever storage procedure

A

36-46F (2-8C)

187
Q

MMR Storage procedures

A

-58 to 5F (-50 to-15C)
keep dark
discard after 8 hours of reconstitution

188
Q

for short order deployment who makes arrangements for SM to finish shot regiments?

A

SMs medical

189
Q

who prepares the VIS?

A

US dept of health and human services, CDC

190
Q

what medical supplies must be available at shot locations?

A
  • oxygen
  • airways
  • IV fluid
  • ALS meds (EPI)
  • Dfib
191
Q

who does all the research and advises the CDC on vaccine dosage and intervals?

A

Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP)

192
Q

what immunization must NOT be given while under way?

A

yellow fever

193
Q

what instruction states yellow fever cant be given underway?

A

COMNAVSURFORINST 6000.1

194
Q

types of vaccine exemptions?

A
  • medical

- admin

195
Q

two types of medical exemptions from vaccination:

A
  • temp

- permeant

196
Q

what do you document imms on?

A
  • NAVMED 6230/4
  • CDC 731
  • DD 2766

Prevmed 2 (9 decks)

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