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AL120 > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogens have 3 functions. What are they?

A
  1. Multiply and cause obstruction
  2. Cause tissue damage
  3. Secrete organic exotoxins (or substances)
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2
Q

What are the 4 types of pathogens or infectious microorganisms?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoa
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3
Q

Cleaning & Waste Disposal:

How to handle linen

A
  • Handle linen as little as possible.
  • Don’t shake or flap.
  • Never use for more than one patient.
  • Grossly contaminated linens in specially marked bags.
  • If in doubt, don’t use!*
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4
Q

Cleaning & Waste Disposal:

How to handle tables and needles

A
  • Clean tables between patients.
  • Clean from least to most contaminated.
  • Contaminated needles in sharps box.
  • If in doubt, don’t use!*
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5
Q

Cycle of Infection

A 
Encounter
Entry
Spread
Multiplication
Outcome (Damage)
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6
Q

Cycle of Infection:

Encounter

A
  • Involves infectious organism coming in contact with the host.
  • Each encounter varies to the host and microorganism.
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7
Q

What are some encounter portals

ways to encounter an infection

A
  • Skin
  • Respiratory Tract
  • Gastrointestinal Tract
  • Urinary Tract
  • Circulatory System
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8
Q

Cycle of Infection:

Entry

A

-Access to the organism through a portal of entry.

  • Ingression (Attachment)
  • Penetration
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9
Q

Entry may be one of two types:

A
  1. Ingression (Attachment)

2. Penetration

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10
Q

Cycle of Infection:

Spread

A

-Modes of transmission

  • Direct
  • Indirect

-Vehicle (food/blood) VS Formite (touch/food/equipment)

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11
Q

Cycle of Infection: Spread

What is the difference between Direct and Indirect

A

Direct:

  • Droplet
  • Direct Contact

Indirect:

  • Airborne
  • Vector (Insects)
  • Formites (Touch/Food/Equipment)
  • Vehicle (Food/Blood)
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12
Q

Cycle of Infection:

Multiplication

A

-The growth in microbe numbers as a function of mitosis.
-Many infectious agents undergo great multiplication before their impact is recognized by the host.
-Incubation Period
(Multiplication = intent to spread)

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13
Q

Cycle of Infection:

Damage

A

-Damage can be either direct or indirect.
-A microbe can induce a host response that can also cause tissue and cell death through activation of the hosts inflammatory and immune responses.
(Direct = cell death or release of toxins)

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14
Q

Cycle of Infection: Outcome

What are 3 possible outcomes of an infection?

A
  1. Host gains control of the infectious agent and eliminates it.
  2. Infectious agent overcomes hosts immunities to cause disease.
  3. Host and infectious agents compromise and live in a sort of symbiotic state.
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15
Q

One drug can be classified under 3 different names. What are the 3 names?

A

-The Generic Name
(Given by the original manufacturer of the drug)
-The Chemical Name
(Derived from the chemical makeup of the compound)
-The Trade (Brand) Name
(Name is provided by the pharmaceutical company that distributes the medication)

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16
Q

What are drugs used as?

A

Drugs are substance used as medicine to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of disease for patients.

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17
Q

Drug

A

Is any chemical substance that produces a biologic response in a living system.

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18
Q

Pharmacology

A

Defined as the study of drug actions and interactions with living organisms. In other words, pharmacology is the study of how drugs affect different organisms.

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19
Q

Surgical Asepsis/Sterile Technique

[AY] + [SEP] + [SIS]

A

Procedure used to prevent contamination by microbes and endospores before, during, or after surgery using the sterile technique.

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20
Q

Medical Asepsis

[AY] + [SEP] + [SIS]

A

Reduction in numbers of infectious agents, which in turn, decreases the probability of infection but does not necessarily reduce it to zero.

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21
Q

Asepsis

[AY] + [SEP] + [SIS]

A

Freedom from infection

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22
Q

Sterilization

A

It is the complete destruction of microorganisms. It kills microorganisms and their spores (sterilizes).

Complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms accomplished by physical methods (dry or moist heat), chemical agents, radiation, or mechanical methods (filtration)

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23
Q

Disinfectant

A

Kills microorganisms but not theirs spores (bleach)

Chemicals used to free an environment from pathogenic organisms or to render such organisms inert, especially as applied to the treatment of inanimate materials to reduce or eliminate infectious organisms

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24
Q

Disease

A

Any deviation from/interruption of normal structure/function of any part, organ, or system (or combination) of the body.

  • Caused by microorganisms
  • Absence of health
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25
Q

Infection

A

A microorganism on/in a host, resulting in injury to the host.

-Caused by pathogenic organisms

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26
Q

Microorganisms

A

Microscopic Organisms - those of medical interest including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa.

  • Microbes: a living thing that is too small to be seen with a naked eye. Need to use a microscope to see them.
  • Microscopic Organism: a microscopic living organism (plant or animal)
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27
Q

Reservoir

A

Alternative/passive host/carrier that harbors pathogenic organisms, without injury to itself, and serves as a source from which other individuals can be infected.
(sight where organisms can live and transfer to others)

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28
Q

Protozoa

A

Organisms are neither plant nor animal (parasite)

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29
Q

Fungi

A

Eukaryotic

Has a nucleus and membrane - bound organelles

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30
Q

Viruses

A

Microscopic, single-celled

Replicates only within living host cells

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31
Q

Bacteria

A

Microscopic, single-celled organisms

prokaryotic, ubiquitous

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32
Q

Nosocomial

A

Pertaining to or originating in the hospital; said of an infection not present or incubating before admittance to the hospital but generally developing 72 hours after admittance

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33
Q

HAI

A

Infection that patients acquire while they are receiving treatment for another health care issue

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34
Q

Host

A

An animal or plant that harbors or nourishes another organism

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35
Q

Antiseptic

A

Inhibits organism on the skin

Inhibits the growth of microorganisms

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36
Q

Physicians Desk Reference

A
  • Commonly called PDR.
  • Annual publication that contains current product information.
  • PDR gives the accepted uses, side effects, contraindications, biochemical action, drug class, and dosage considerations for FDA approved drugs.
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37
Q

Iatrogen Infection

A

Result of intervention with physician.

  • Medical error
  • Adverse effects of prescription drugs
  • Misdiagnosis
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38
Q

What are two defense mechanisms of the body?

A
  1. Internal Mechanisms

2. External Mechanisms

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39
Q

What is a internal mechanism?

A
  • Mechanical barriers (skin/hair)
  • Chemical processes
  • Cellular processes (white blood cells + antibodies)
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40
Q

What is a external mechanism?

A
  • Normal microbial flora (siliva)

- Physical methods (hand washing)

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41
Q

Blood-borne Pathogens

A

Disease-causing microorganisms present in human blood

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42
Q

Bacteriostatic Agent / Bactericidal Agent

A

Kills cells, stops bacterial growth

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43
Q

AP Projection of the Femur
True or False
There is knee rotation on the distal femur.

A

FALSE!

No knee rotation on the distal femur

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44
Q

Can you see the lesser trochanter on an AP projection of the femur?

A

No/partially. Lesser trochanter not seen beyond the medial border of the femur or only a very small portion seen on the proximal femur

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45
Q

Ionizing Radiation

A

Is a photon that possesses enough energy to eject an electron from an atom.
(The loss of the electron will cause the atom to become ionized. The ionization process can cause biological damage.)

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46
Q

What are the two primary sources of exposure? (ionizing radiation)

A
  1. Natural

2. Man-made

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47
Q

What is natural radiation?

A

Exists naturally in our environment and the population is continuously exposed to this type of ionizing radiation.

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48
Q

What is human-made (man-made) radiation?

A

Source of ionizing radiation humans are exposed to. This radiation comes from several different sources.

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49
Q

ALARA

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

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50
Q

Which bone serves as a base for the trunk and a girdle for the attachment of the lower limbs?

A

Pelvis

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51
Q

The pelvis consists of four bones. What are they?

A

Two hip bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx

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52
Q

The pelvic girdle is composed of what bones?

A

Two hip bones

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53
Q

The hip bone is often referred to as the….

A 
os coxae 
(some textbooks continue to refer to it as the innominate bone)
Most widely used term is hip bone
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54
Q

The hip bone consists of what bones?

A

The ilium, pubis, and the ischium.

55
Q

The ilium, pubis, and the ischium join together to form what?

A

The acetabulum

The cup-shaped socket that receives the head of the femur

56
Q

The hip bone is divided further into two distinct areas:

A

The iliopubic column and the ilioischial column

these columns are used to identify fractures around the acetabulum

57
Q

What does the general shape of the human body, or the body habitus determine?

A

Determines the size, shape, position, and movement of the internal organs

58
Q

What are the four types of body habitus?

A

Hypersthenic, Sthenic, Hyposthenic, and Asthenic

59
Q

What type of body habitus is this?

A

Hyposthenic

60
Q

What type of body habitus is this?

A

Hypersthenic

61
Q

What type of body habitus is this?

A

Sthenic

62
Q

What type of body habitus is this?

A

Asthenic

63
Q

______ ______ is bounded by the walls of the thorax and extends from the superior thoracic aperture, where structures enter the thorax, to the inferior thoracic aperture.

A

Thoracic Cavity

64
Q

What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

A 
The diaphragm
(The anatomic structures that pass from the thorax to the abdomen go through the openings in the diaphragm)
65
Q

The thoracic cavity contains…

A

The lungs and heart; organs of the respiratory, cardiovascular, and lymphatic systems; the inferior portion of the esophagus; and the thymus gland.

66
Q

Within the thoracic cavity are three separate chambers:

A

A single pericardial cavity and the right and left pleural cavities

67
Q

What are the pleural cavities lined with?

A

Shiny, slippery, and delicate serous membranes

68
Q

What is the space between the two pleural cavities?

A

Mediastinum

69
Q

The mediastinum contains all thoracic structures except the…

A

lungs and pleurae

70
Q

What are the mediastinal structures?

A

Heart, esophagus, trachea, thymus, great vessels (aorta and SVC), nerves, fat, and lymphatics

71
Q

What does the bony thorax consist of?

part of the skeletal system providing a protective framework of the chest

A

Sternum (breastbone), clavicles (collarbones), scapulae (shoulder blades), ribs (12 pairs), and the thoracic vertebrae (12)

72
Q

What are the surface landmarks of the chest?

A

Jugular (Sternal) Notch - T2, T3
Sternal Angle - T4, T5
Inferior Angle Scapula - T7
Xiphoid Process - T9, T10

73
Q

What are the breathing instructions of the chest?

A

Inhalation & exhalation

Full inhalation - 2nd breath

74
Q

Atelectasis

A

Collapse of all or part of the lung

75
Q

What will happen if you have excessive kVp settings on the chest?

A
  • Will produce excess scatter making the contrast too low.

- Unable to see fine lung markings.

76
Q

What will happen if you have inadequate kVp settings of the chest?

A

Contrast too high, few shades of gray, mediastinum not penetrated

77
Q

Collimation of the x-ray beam prompts which of the following?

  1. An increase in radiographic contrast
  2. Reduction of scatter and secondary radiation
  3. Reduction in radiation to the patient
A

1, 2, & 3

78
Q

If a bone is projected longer than it actually is on the radiographic image, it is known as:

A

Distortion

79
Q

What is distortion?

A

One of the geometric properties affecting radiographic image quality; a misrepresentation of the size and shape of the structures being examined

80
Q

The primary controlling factor of radiographic contrast in radiography is:

A

kVp

81
Q

What are the four positioning terms most commonly used in radiology?

A
  1. Projection
  2. Position
  3. View
  4. Method
82
Q

Projection

A

Defined as the path of the central ray as it exits the x-ray tube and goes through the patient to the IR

83
Q

Projections are defined by…

A

entrance and exit points in the body and are based on the anatomic position

84
Q

The term position is used in two ways, what are they?

A

One way identifies the overall posture of the patient or the general body position. The patient may be described as upright, seated, or supine.

The second use of position refers to the specific placement of the body part in relation to the radiographic table or IR during imaging. This may be a right lateral, left anterior oblique, or other position depending on the examination and anatomy of interest.

85
Q

What is the term true (true projection)?

A

True is used specifically to indicate that the body part must be placed exactly in the anatomic position.

86
Q

What does “in-profile” mean?

A

In-profile is an outlined or silhouette view of an anatomic structure that has a distinctive shape. The distinctive aspect is not superimposed. The view is frequently seen from the side.

87
Q

Upright Position

A

Erect or marked by a vertical position

88
Q

Seated Position

A

Upright position in which the patient is sitting on a chair or a stool.

89
Q

Recumbent Position

A

General term referring to lying down in any position, such as dorsal recumbent (supine, on their back), ventral recumbent (prone, or on their stomach, face down), or lateral recumbent (on their side).

90
Q

Supine Position

A

Lying on the back (also termed dorsal recumbent)

91
Q

Prone Position

A

Lying face down (also termed as ventral recumbent)

92
Q

Trendelenburg Position

A

Supine position with head tilted downward.

93
Q

Fowler Position

A

Supine position with head higher than the feet

94
Q

Sims Position

A

Recumbent position with the patient lying on the left anterior side (semiprone) with left leg extended and right knee and thigh partially flexed

95
Q

Lithotomy Position

A

Supine position with knees and hip flexed and thighs abducted and rotated externally, supported by ankle or knee supports

96
Q

Anterior (Ventral)

A

Refers to forward or front part of the body or forward part of an organ

97
Q

Posterior (Dorsal)

A

Refers to back part of body or organ

98
Q

Caudad

A

Refers to parts away from the head of the body

99
Q

Cephalad

A

Refers to parts towards the head of the body

100
Q

Inferior

A

Refers to nearer the feet or situated below

101
Q

Superior

A

Refers to nearer the head or situated above

102
Q

Central

A

Refers to middle area or main part of an organ

103
Q

Peripheral

A

Refers to parts at or near the surface, edge, or outside of another body part

104
Q

Contralateral

A

Refers to part or parts on opposite side of the body

105
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Refers to part or parts on the same side of body

106
Q

Lateral

A

Refers to parts away from median plane of body or away from the middle of another body part to the right or left

107
Q

Medial

A

Refers to parts towards median plane of body or toward the middle of another body part

108
Q

Deep

A

Refers to parts far from the surface

109
Q

Superficial

A

Refers to parts near skin or surface

110
Q

Distal

A

Refers to parts farthest from point of attachment, point of reference, origin, or beginning; away from center of body

111
Q

Proximal

A

Refers to parts nearer point of attachment, point of attachment, point of reference, origin, or beginning; toward center of body

112
Q

External

A

Refers to parts outside an organ or on outside of body

113
Q

Internal

A

Refers to parts within or on the inside of an organ

114
Q

Parietal

A

Refers to the wall or lining of a body cavity

115
Q

Visceral

A

Refers to the covering of an organ

116
Q

Dorsum

A

Refers to the top or anterior surface of the foot or to the back or posterior surface of the hand

117
Q

Palmar

A

Refers to the palm of the hand

118
Q

Plantar

A

Refers to the sole of the foot

119
Q

What is the percentage of a Sthenic body type?

A

50%

120
Q

What is the percentage of a Asthenic body type?

A

10%

121
Q

What is the percentage of a Hyposthenic body type?

A

35%

122
Q

What is the percentage of a Hypersthenic body type?

A

5%

123
Q

What does PIP mean?

A

Proximal interphalangeal

124
Q

What does DIP mean?

A

Distal interphalangeal

125
Q

AEC

A

Automatic exposure control

126
Q

ALARA

A

As low as reasonably achievable

127
Q

AP

A

Anteroposterior

128
Q

APR

A

Anatomically programmed radiography

129
Q

ARRT

A

American Registry of Radiologic technologist

130
Q

ASIS

A

Anterior superior iliac spine

131
Q

ASRT

A

American society of radiologic technologists

132
Q

BMI

A

body mass index

133
Q

CDC

A

Centers for disease control and prevention

AL120 (4 decks)

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