Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2nd Year > Restorative 2 > Flashcards

Restorative 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is an impression?

A

negative imprint of an oral structure used to make a positive replica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the components of alginate?

A 
irriversible hydrocolloid 
carbonated polysaccharide based on alginic acid - gels by cross linking of calcium ions
sodium alginate
calcium phopshate 
sodium phosphate - retarder
fillers - zinc carbonate
pH indicators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the working time of alginate?

A

gelation ideal time of 3-4 mins
spatulation of 1 min
working time - 30 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what should an impression tray cover?

A

retromolar area of mandible
maxillary tuberosity
anterior - clears most protruded incisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how do you seat a lower impression?

A

pt should lift tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do you seat an upper impression?

A

seat post before ant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do you disinfect an impression?

A

sodium hypochlorite 5-10 mins

10- tabs/litre for 2 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a wax bite?

A

interocclusal record

registration of normal positional relationship of arches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is gate control theory?>

A

melzack and wall 1965

pain is modulated at the spinal cord and influenced by physiological and psychological and socoiocultural factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the adults pain index?

childrens?

A

mcgill

wong and baker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are other forms of pain and anxiety control?

A

hypnosis
acupuncture
electric analegsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the aim of analgesia?

A

elimination of pain

haemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how is haemostasis achieved by anaesthetic?

A

vasoconstrictor

tissue blanching - local ischaemia, prolonged activity, reduced toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do the nodes of the ranvier take part in anaesthesia?

A

ionic exchange of pain impulses

analgesic solution gains access here and blocks nerve conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what causes pain?

A 
inflammation
trauma
necrosis
ischaemia
K, Na, Cl, Ca
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the stages of polarisation?

A

1 - polarisation - no pain, potassium in cytoplasm, na outside
2 - depolarisation - ionic exchange, destruction of polarity, sodium outside
3 - action potential - change in membrane potential permeability, transference of ions
4 - repolarisation - sodium potassium pump, reverts ion to polarised state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the contents of LA?

A

vasoconstrictor - prolongs anaesthetic time
reducing agent - prevents oxidation of vasoconstrictor, competes with adrenaline for oxygen
preservative - poss allergic reaction
fungicide - thymol
carrier solution - modified ringers lactate solution adjusted for biocompatible pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is lidocaine?

A

dissolved in solution as HCL salt

2% solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is prilocaine?

A

3% octapressin
4% plain
less effective at haemorrhage control but only slightly vasoconstrictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is mepivicaine?

A

2% 1:100000 ep

3% plain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is articaine?

A

more quickly metabolised good for repeat injections with ep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does epinephrine give?

A

more profound anaesthesia, longer lasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what to be careful with giving LA to someone with liver disease?

A

risk of toxicity

bc impaired metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what to be careful with giving someone with cardiac disease?

A

impact on epinephrine use

arrhythmias/unstable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the max dose of plain lidocaine?

2%

A

11 cartidges/70kg adult

6-8/70kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the max dose of plain prilocaine?

with octapressin?

A

9/70kg

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what may the analgesic component of LA interact with?

A

beta blockers

calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what may the vasoconstrictor component of LA interact with?

A 
beta blockers
diuretics
calcium channel blockers
antiparkinson drugs
canabis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are contraindications to LA?

A

leukaemia, antcoag therapy, steroid therapy, liver dysfunction, renal disease, local sepsis/vascular abnormality
pregnancy, rheumatic fever, uncontrolled diabetes, toxaemia, haemophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are local complications to LA?

A 
infection
IV infection 
haematoma
nerve damage
needle fracture
cartidge failure
facial palsy
needle stick
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the divs of the trigeminal nerve?

A

opthalmic nerve
maxillary
mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the main divisions of the maxillary nerve?

A

superior alveolar nerve
nasopalatine
greater palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the main divisions of the of the mandibular nerve?

A 
inferior alveolar nerve
incisive nerve
mental nerve
long buccal nerve
lingual nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the superior alveolar nerve?

A

sensory branch of the mandibular nerve
foramen ovale - infratemporal fossa
passes through lateral and medial pterygoids
through mandibular foramen into mandibular canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

where is an IDB placed?

A

analgesia introduced to nerve through lateral side of mouth into fat of pterygomandibuar space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are contra indications to an IDB?

A

haemophiliacs
anticoagulant tx
co operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the aim of an IDB?

A

to deposit the solution as close to the mandibuar foramen as poss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the anatomy associate with an IDB?

A

external oblique ridge at anterior aspect of ascending ramus
pterygomandibular raphe
thumb palpates ramus
needle from premolars of opp side
barrel of syringe parallel to lower occluasal plane
above occlusal level of last standing molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the nerve supply to the maxillary incisors and canines?

A

superior alveolar nerve

palatal - nasopalatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the nerve supply to the maxillary premolars?

A

mid sup/plexus

palatal - gretater paltine/nasopalatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the nerve supply to the max molars?

A

superior post alv nerve

palatal greater palatine nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how can the zygomatic arch cause problems with LA>

A

mesial and distal LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how do you aneasthetise the lingual nerve?

A

interpapillary

LIA under lingual attached gingivae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

why do teeth need restored?

A

restore tooth integrity
restore function
remove disease
restore appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the tx of a proximal enamel lesion?

A

monitor

duraphat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the tx of a proximal enamel lesion at ADJ?

A

high risk - restore

low risk - monitor

47
Q

what is the tx of a proximal dentinal lesion in outer third of dentine? mid third of dentine?

A

outer third - high risk - restore
low - monitor
mid - restore

48
Q

what is microprep?

A

burs and handpieces of reduced size used with magnification

49
Q

what is chemo mech caries removal?

A

sodium hypochlorite 0.5% carisolv

50
Q

what is sonic prep?

A

vibration rather than rotary movements

51
Q

what is air abrasion?

A

aluminium oxide through a nozzle

52
Q

what are lasers used for?

A

soft and hard tissue removal

53
Q

what is ozone?

A

caries identified with a laser

acitve oxygen to anaerobic bacteria

54
Q

what is ART?

A

hand excavation and GI

55
Q

what is blacks classification?

A

1 - occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars and buccal pits of molars
2 - approximal surfaces of molars and premolars
3 - approximal surfaces of incisors and canines
4 - inicisal edges of incisors and canines
5 - cervical margins

56
Q

what is wrong with blacks classification?

A

pre adhesive materials
removes too much tooth tissue
does not include secondary or root surface caries

57
Q

what are the stages of a filling?

A 
outline form
resistance form
retention form
tx of residual caries
correction of enamel margins
cavity debridement
58
Q

what is outline form?

A

gaining access to caries

- direct access/cutting through enamel

59
Q

what is resistance form?

A

resisiting occlusal forces
cavity floor at right angle to direction of occlusal forces
ensure sufficient depth

60
Q

what is retention form?

A

retaining material in cavity

grooves/undercuts/occlusal keys/bond

61
Q

how do you treat residual caries?

A

1st ADJ.2nd base of cavity

firm stained dentine can be left in cavity base

62
Q

why do you correct the enamel margins?

A

leave no unsupported margins

bevel surface to increase bonding area

63
Q

what are names of the walls/floors of the cavity?

A

occlusal floor
pulpoaxial wall
gingival floor

64
Q

what is a line angle?

A

where 2 lines meet

65
Q

what is a cavosurface angle?

A

where the cavity wall meets the tooth surface at an angle of 90 to 110 degrees

66
Q

what is a point angle?

A

3 or more lines

67
Q

what is a fissure sealant?

A

hard insoluble material in liquid form used to fill pits and fissures without cutting enamel

68
Q

what is the aim of using FS?

A

eradicate fissures
aid cleaning
prevent caries

69
Q

what is acid etch and what does it do?

A

30-50% phosphoric acid
dissolves enamel - up to 8 micrometers of enamel
porosities up to 50micrometres deep

70
Q

what are they etching patterns?

A

1 - core removed, periphery left = most common
2 - core intact, peripheries removed
3 - haphazard effect - not related to prism morphology

71
Q

what are the diff types of set fissure sealants?

A

self polymerised
UV light cure
white light polymerised

72
Q

what can fissure sealants be filled with? what does this do?

A

lithium alumina silicate
increased abrasion resistance
increased wear of opposing teeth

73
Q

when to use FS?

A 
high caries risk
medically compromised
limited dexterity
tooth cant be isolated
deep fissure pattern
74
Q

what are occult caries?

A

occlusal surface intact but carious underneath - bacteria enter deepest part of fissure and rapidly spread along ACJ

75
Q

when do you restore caries?

A

obv cavitation
caries at EDJ
infected dentine

76
Q

what is a PRR?

A

restore carious part of fissure system and seal over rest

77
Q

what is the c factor?

A

number of bonded surfaces over the number of unbonded surfaces

78
Q

what class cavities are approximal cavities?

A 
anterior - class 3
posterior - class 2
79
Q 
how do class 2 cavities develop?
how are they diagnosed?
A

below contact point
visual
bitewings
transillumination

80
Q

what is the use of a matrix band?

A

retain material in cavity
restore contact points
protection of adj tooth during cavity prep

81
Q

what is a tunnel prep?

A

gaining access to caries from occlusal and leaving marginal ridge intact

82
Q

what are cervical caries a sign of?

A

high risk pt

83
Q

what is the tx of cervical caries?

A

ensure cavity is self cleansing

intervene when pulp is threatened

84
Q

what are problems with restoring cervical cavities?

A

access
moisture control - blood/gcf
contouring

85
Q

what are risk factors for RSC?

A 
xerostomia 
diet
partial denture wearing
poor oh
high caries experience
salivary s mutans count
86
Q

what is physiological tooth wear?

pathological tooth wear?

A

occurs with age

excessive toothwear

87
Q

what is attrition?

A

loss of tooth substance as a result of mastication or of occlusal/proximal contact between the teeth

88
Q

what is physiological attrition?

A

occlusal surfaces/incisal edges
prox surfaces because of mastication
deciduous more susceptible
-

89
Q

what are signs of physiological attrition?

A

disappearance of mammelons
occlusal cusps flatten
exposed dentine - brown cup shaped lesions

90
Q

what is pathological attrition?

A

confined to local areas, parafunction or misalignment

e.g - bruxism/clenching/grinding

91
Q

what are signs of pathological attrition?

A 
visible wear facets
abnormal attrition rate
hypertrophy of masticatory muscles
TMJ pain
tooth mobility
sensitive to cold
92
Q

what is abrasion?

A

pathological wearing away of tooth structure because of repetitive mechanical habit - notches in root surface

93
Q

why are pulpal exposures commonly avoided in NCTSl?

A

slow process - secondary dentine laid down

94
Q

what are the types of abrasion and what are they caused by?

A

1 cervical abrasion - v shape - horizontal brushing
2 habitual abrasion
3 iatrogenic - grinding to accomodate filling
4 industrial abrasion

95
Q

what is abfraction?

A

tooth flexure from occlusal loading
microfractures in enamel
cavitiation

96
Q

what is erosion?

A

progressive loss of tooth structure by an acidic chemical process without bacterial involvement

97
Q

what are signs of erosion?

A 
smooth polished surface
shallow depressions
proud restorations
palatal/incisal chipping of edges
cupping of molar cusps
98
Q

where does extrinsic erosion affect the teeth?

A

labial surfaces of ant teeth

occlusal surfaces of lower molars

99
Q

where does intrinsic erosion affect the teeth?

A

palatal surfaces of uppers

occlusal surfaces of lower perm molars

100
Q

what are sources of intrinsic erosion?

A 
hiatus hernia
alcohol abuse
bullimia
pregnancy
gastric ulceration
reflux
101
Q

what does the pulp need protection from?

A
  • chem attack - acrylic resin/acids in dentine, bonding agents and residual acid from acidogenic bacteria
  • thermal attack - polymerisation exothermic setting reactions, hot/cold food and drink, cavity prep
  • galvanic shock - restorations of disimilar material in close proximity set up an electrolyte cell = pain
102
Q

how does cavity prep insult the pulp?

A

increased inflammatory cell infiltrate

smear layer produced = occludes tubules with bacteria from cavity, collagen and HA

103
Q

describe calcium hydroxide?

A

high pH - bacteriocidal
high pH - initially irritant - reactionary dentine produced
insulator, radiopaque, compatible, strong
no coronal seal

104
Q

describe zinc polycarboxylate?

A

high MW = reduced tubule penetration, mild irritation
F = bacteriostatic
strong,, insulates, compatible, radiopaque

105
Q

describe zinc eugenol?

A 
slight irritancy
bacteriocidal and radiopaque bc zinc content
insulates
not compatible, no coronal seal
v obtundant
106
Q

describe zinc phosphate?

A

low pH. low MW = highly irritant
insulator, bacteriocidal, radiopaque, compatible, strong
not obtundant, no seal

107
Q

desrcibe glass polyalkenoates?

A

low pH high MW = mild irritancy
F = bacteriostatic
insulates, strong, direct adhesive, good seal
compatible

108
Q

when to line a cavity?

A

<2mm no lining
>2mm line
line pulpal wall and occlusal floor

109
Q

when would you feel discomfort from a tooth?

A

when caries is within 0.5mm of pulp

110
Q

what is an indirect pulp cap?

A

cavity in 0.5mm of pulp

caoh and GI

111
Q

what is a direct pulp cap?

A

exposed pulp
vital tooth, no history of pathology, no periradicular pathology, pulp pink and healthy, no excessive bleeding,
caoh and GI

112
Q

what is a stepwise excavation?

A 
stained soft dentine is left in the base of a cavity but a cleared ADJ
seal over base with dycal
dress with GI cement
remove 6-12 months
= stained but firm base of cavity
113
Q

what is the restorative staircase?

A

with each restoration = larger prep and prep eases gradually towards pulp

114
Q

when can a restoration be repaired or refurbished?

A

aesthetics
no pain
no caries

2nd Year (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions