Respirology Flashcards

0
Q

What happens to the total lung capacity and the residual volume in obstructive disease and restrictive disease?

A

The TLC and RV is increased in obstructive disease, and decreased in restrictive disease.

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1
Q

What happens to the FEV/FVC ratio in obstructive and restrictive lung disease?

A

In obstructive disease, the FEV/FVC ratio is decreased.

In restrictive disease the FEV/FVC ratio is increased or normal.

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2
Q

What happens to the residual volume/total lung capacity in obstructive disease? What happens in restrictive disease?

A

In obstructive disease the RV/TLC in increased or normal. In restrictive disease, it is normal.

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3
Q

What condition produces these PFT results?
Lung volumes normal
FEV/FVC normal
DLco decreased

A

Aneamia or pulmonary vascular disease

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4
Q

What condition produces these PLF results?
Reduced FEV/FVC <80% predicted. No change after giving a bronchodilator
High TLC and low DLco

A

Emphysema

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5
Q

What condition produces the following PFTs?
FEV/FVC <80% predicted, no change after bronchodilators
Normal TLC
Normal DLco

A

Chronic bronchitis

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6
Q

What condition do these Pulmonary lung function tests suggest?
FEV/FVC <80% predicted
Improvement with bronchodilators

A

Asthma

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7
Q
What condition do these PFT results suggest?
Reduced FEV1
FEV/FVC >80% predicted
Low TLC
Low RV
Low DLco
A

Interstitial lung disease

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8
Q
What condition do these PFT results suggest?
Low FEV1
FEV/FVC >80%
Low TLC
Low RV
DLco normal
FRC low
Normal RV
A

Chest wall disease

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9
Q
What do these PFT results suggest?
Low FEV1
FEV1/FVC >80%
Low TLC
Low RV
Low FRC
Increased RV
A

Neuromuscular disease

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10
Q

Diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide DLco decreases with what four factors?

A

Decreased surface area (eg emphysema)
Decreased heamoglobin
Interstitial lung disease
Pulmonary vascular disease

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11
Q

List four factors that cause the DLco to increase?

A

Asthma
Pulmonary haemorrhage
Polycythemia
Increased pulmonary blood volume

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12
Q

What is consolidation? What signs suggest consolidation? What conditions cause consolidation?

A

Consolidation ‘airspace disease’ is an area of normally compressible lung tissue that has filled with liquid, a condition marked by induration or a normally aerated lung.
Signs include air bronchi grams, silhouette sign, and less visible blood vessels.
Common DDxs include:
Acute: water (pulmonary oedema), pus (pneumonia), blood (haemorrhage)
Chronic: neoplasm (lymphoma), inflammatory(eosinophilic pneumonia), chronic infection (TB, fungal)

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13
Q

What is a reticular pattern? What are the signs of a reticular pattern? What are the common DDx’s for a CXR with a reticular pattern?

A

A reticular pattern indicates interstitial disease. A reticular pattern is an opacity of crisscrossing thin well defined linear densities, ‘net like’ or ‘honeycomb’.
Signs include increased pulmonary markings or honey combing.
DDx’s are interstitial lung disease (IPF, CVD, asbestos, drugs)

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14
Q

What signs indicate a nodules pattern on X-ray? What are the common DDx’s for nodular X-rays?

A

Signs are cavitory vs non cavitory nodular x rays.
Cavitory DDx’s include neoplasm (primary vs metastatic lung cancer), infectious (TB, fungal), and inflammatory (Wegeners, RA)
Non cavitory DDx’s include all of those above, as well as sarcoid, kaposis sarcoma (in HIV), and silicosis.

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15
Q

How do you calculate the anion gap? What is a normal anion gap?

A

[Na+] - [Cl-] - [HCO3-] = 10-15 mmol/L.
If the anion gap is increased, is the change in the anion gap the same as the change in bicarbonate? If not, consider a mixed metabolic picture.

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16
Q

What is the DDx’s for respiratory acidosis do to decreased PaCO2 due to hypo ventilation respiratory centre depression?

A

Shows a decreased resp rate.

  • drugs (anaesthesia, sedatives, narcotics)
  • trauma
  • increased ICP
  • encephalitis
  • stroke
  • central apnoea
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17
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of respiratory acidosis due to increased PaCO2 due to hypoventilation from decreased vital capacity?

A

This is caused by neuromuscular diseases.

  • myasthenia gravis
  • guillame barre
  • poliomyelitis
  • muscular dystrophies
  • ALS
  • myopathies
  • chest wall disease (obesity, kyphoscoliosis)
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18
Q

What are the DDx’s of respiratory acidosis from pulmonary disease?

A

Obstructive disease: asthma, COPD
Parenchymal disease: COPD, pulmonary oedema, pneumothorax, pneumonia, interstitial lung disease (late stage), acute respiratory distress syndrome.

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19
Q

What is the differential diagnoses for respiratory alkalosis due to a decreased PaCO2 secondary to hyperventilation as a result of hypoxemia.

A

Pulmonary disease (pneumonia, oedema, PE, interstitial fibrosis)
Severe aneamia
Heart failure
High altitude

Or mechanical hyperventilation

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20
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for respiratory alkalosis due to decreased PaCO2 from hyperventilation as a result of hyperventilation due to respiratory centre stimulation?

A
CNS disorders
Hepatic failure
Gram negative sepsis
Pregnancy
Anxiety
Pain
Drugs (ASA, progesterone, theophylline, catecholamines, psychotropics)
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21
Q

What is the effect of acidosis and alkalosis on potassium?

A

Acidosis leads to hyperkalemia, alkalosis leads to hypokaleamia.

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22
Q

How do you calculate the alveolar arteriole gradient? What should the Aa gradient be on room air?

A

Aa gradient = PaO2 alveolar - PaO2 arteriole = [150 - 1.25(PaCO2))] - PaO2
A normal Aa is <15mmHg and increases with age.

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23
Q

What causes hypoxemia with a normal Aa gradient and increased PaCO2?

A

HypoventilTion

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24
Q

What causes hypoxemia with a normal Aa gradient and normal PaCO2?

A

Low FiO2 (eg altitude)

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25
Q

What causes hypoxemia, with a high Aa that does not improve after giving 100% O2?

A
  • shunt
  • atelectasis
  • intraalveolar filling (eg pulmonary oedema, pneumonia)
  • intra cardiac shunt
  • vascular shunt within lungs
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26
Q

What causes hypoxemia with an increased Aa gradient that improves with oxygen?

A
V/Q mismatch
Airway disease (asthma, COPD)
Interstitial lung disease
Alveolar disease
Pulmonary vascular disease
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27
Q

What is asthma?

A

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways resulting in episodes of reversible bronchi spasm causing airflow obstruction. It is associated with reversible airflow limitation and airway hyperresponsiveness to endogenous or exogenous stimuli.
Px with dyspnoea, wheezing, chest tightness, cough, sputum, respiratory distress and symptoms worse at night.
There is an improvement of >12% of FEV after giving bronchodilators.

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28
Q

What are the causes of obstructive Airways disease?

A

Asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis and inhalation of a foreign body

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29
Q

What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A

COPD is the progressive development of airway obstruction that is not completely reversible. Patients typically have periodic exacerbations characterised by weight loss, lung hyperinflation, and gas trapping. There are 2 subtypes characterised by chronic bronchitis and emphysema. These subtypes usually coexist to various degrees.
There is a gradual decrease in FEv1 over time with episodes of acute exacerbations.

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30
Q

Define chronic bronchitis

A

Chronic bronchitis is a productive cough on most days for at least 2 consecutive years. The obstruction is due to the narrowing of the airway lumen by mucosal thickening and excess mucous.w

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31
Q

What is emphysema?

A

Emphysema is the dilation and destruction of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole without obvious fibrosis. There is decreased elastic recoil of the lung parenchyma causing decreased expiratory driving pressure, airway collapse, and air trapping.
There are two types of emphysema.
Centracinar emphysema is when the respiratory bronchioles are predominantly affected. The typical form seen in smokers primarily affects upper lung zones.
Panacinar emphysema is where the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveolar sacs are affected. This accounts for less than 1% of emphysema cases such as in a1 antitrypsin deficiency, and primarily affects the lower lobes.

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32
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of bronchitis? What are the signs?

A

Bronchitis presents with ‘blue bloater’ signs and symptoms

  • chronic productive cough with purulent sputum and heamoptysis
  • initially only mild dyspnoea
  • cyanosis (hypoxemia and hypercapnia)
  • peripheral oedema for RVF (Cor pulmonale)
  • crackles, wheezes
  • prolonged obstructive expiration
  • frequently obese
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33
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of someone presenting with emphysema?

A

Emphysema typically presents with symptoms of a ‘pink puffer’

  • dyspnoea (+/- exertion)
  • tachypnoea and decreased excercise intolerance
  • minimal cough
  • pink skin
  • pursed lip breathing and acessory muscle use
  • cachetic appearance due to anorexia and increased work of breathing
  • hyperinflation/barrel chest, hyperresonant percussion
  • decreased breath sounds
  • decreased diaphragmatic excursion
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34
Q

How do you treat stable COPD?

A

COPDERS
C- Inhaled corticosteroids (poor response in COPD)
O- Oxygen. Home oxygen prevents Cor pulmonale and can decrease mortality
P- Prevention (vaccines for pneumococcus and influenza, smoking cessation)
D- Dilators. No mortality benefit. LAch (triotropium bromide) & SACh (ipratropium bromide) >SABA, LABA,
E- Experimental: lung volume reduction, lung transplant
R- Rehabilitation: patient education, eliminate irritant/allergens, excercise rehabilitation to improve physical endurance

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35
Q

What are the complications of COPD?

A

Chronic hypoxemia, pulmonary hypertension from vasoconstriction, and or pulmonale

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36
Q

What is an acute exacerbation of COPd and what are its causes?

A

An acute exacerbation of COPD is a sustained worsening of dyspnoea, cough, or sputum production leading to an increased use of medications. Acute exacerbations of COPD may be triggered by a viral URTI, bacterial infection, air pollution, CHF, PE, or an MI.

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37
Q

How do you manage a acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

Give oxygen. For CO2 retainers target 88-92%
Bronchodilators SABA + ACh
Systemic corticosteroids eg prednisone
Give antibiotics if sputum is purelent.
Rehabilitation for post exacerbation.
Consider ICU admission for life threatening exacerbations and ventilatory support (NIPPV, BiPAP, mechanical ventilation)

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38
Q

What is the MMRC scale?

A

Modified medical research scale for dyspnoea

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39
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Bronchiectasis is irreversible dilatation of the airways due to destruction of the airways wall resulting from persistently infected mucous. The most common pathogen to cause this is pseudomonas aueroginosa. Bronchiectasis usually affects the medium sized airways.

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40
Q

What are the different causes of bronchiectasis?

A
  • Obstruction: tumour, foreign body, thick mucous
  • Post Infection: pneumonia, TB, measles, pertussis, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, mycobacterium avian complex (MAC)
  • Impaired Defences: Cystic Fibrosis, Ciliary Dysfunction (Kartagener’s syndrome:situs inversus, bronchiectasis, sinusitis), hypogammaglobiaemia, defective leukocyte function
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41
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Bronchiectasis?

A

Bronchiectasis may be difficult to differentiate from chronic bronchitis.
Signs and symptoms include:
-clubbing
- chronic cough purelent sputum, heamoptysis (can be massive)
- recurrent pneumonia
-local crackles (inspiratory and expiratory)
- wheezes

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42
Q

How is emphysema seen on CXR?

A

Diffuse hyoerinflation with flattening of the diaphragms, increased retro sternal space, bullae (Lucent, air containing spaces that have no vessels and are not perfused), and enlargement of the PA/RV (Cor pulmonale).
Findings do not correlate well with pathology and PFTs or high resolution CT are more informative (CT can differentiate between different types eg pan lobular, intra lobular, paraseptal)

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43
Q

What investigations do you order and what do you expect to see in bronchiectasis?

A

Obstructive pattern on PFTs
CXR: non specific findings. Increased marking, linear atelectasis, loss of volume in affected areas, cysts or tram tracking
High resolution CT: “signet ring” dilated bronchi with thickened walls where diameter bronchus >diameter of the accompanying artery.
Also take sputum cultures, serum Ig levels,

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44
Q

How do you treat bronchiectasis?

A

Vaccination for pneumococcal and influenza,
Antibiotics for exacerbations
Inhaled corticosteroids
Oral corticosteroids for acute major exacerbations
Chest physiotherapy
Excercise
Pulmonary resection for focal bronchiectasis.

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45
Q

What is interstitial lung disease?

A

Interstitial lung disease is an inflammatory or fibrosing process that occurs in the alveolar walls causing thickening and possible destruction of pulmonary vessels and fibrosis of interstitium leading to:

  • decreased lung compliance (increased or normal FEV1/FVC)
  • decreased lung volumes (decreased TLC, decreased VC, decreased RV)
  • impaired diffusion(decreased DLCO)
  • hypoxia usually without hypercapnia due to V/Q mismatch
  • pulmonary HTN and Cor pulmonale occur with advance disease secondary to hypoxia and blood vessel destruction
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46
Q

What are the causes of ILD that affects the upper lobes?

A

FASSTEN

Farmer’s lung (hypersensitivity pneumonitis)
Anklylosing spondylitis
Sarcoidosis
Silicosis
TB
Eosinophilic granuloma (langerhans histiocytosis)
Neurofibromas oasis

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47
Q

What are the causes of Interstitial Lung Disease that affects the lower lobes?

A

BAD RASH

Bronchiolitis obliterates with organising pneumonia (BOOP)
Asbestosis / silicosis / pneumoconiosis / berylliosis
Drugs (amiodarone, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, chemo)
Rheumatological disease (RA, SLE, polymyositis, dermatomyositis)
Aspiration
Scleroderma
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

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48
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of interstitial lung disease?

A
  • SOB especially on exertion
  • dry crackles
  • non productive cough
  • cyanosis
  • clubbing (especially in IPF and asbestosis)
  • features of Cor pulmonale
  • signs and symptoms vary with each type of ILD
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49
Q

What investigations do you order for ILD?

A

CXR/ HRCT: may be normal or show decreased lung volumes, reticular, nodular, or reticule doulas patterns, Kerley B lines, hilar/mediastinal adenopathy
Lines and ground glass appearance in early IPF, this progresses to honey combing in later disease

PFTs: decreased lung volume and compliance, normal or increased FEV/FVC. DLco decreased due to V/Q mismatch (less surface area for gas exchange) and pulmonary vascular disease.

ABGs: hypoxia and decreased CO2
May also do a bronchoscope, bronchi alveolar lavage, lung biopsy, cANCa(Wegeners) antiGbM (Goodpastures), ESr, ANA (lupus) RF, serum precipitating antibodies to inhaled organic antigens (hypersensitivity pneumonitis)

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50
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis? What symptoms would they present with? What investigations would you order?

A

IPF is a diagnosis of exclusion. IPF is also known as cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, or usual interstitial pneumonitis.mit commonly presents over the age of 50, with the incidence rising with age, and is more common in males than females. Pts present with dyspnoea on exertion, non productive cough, constitutional symptoms, late inspiratory fine crackles at the lung bases, and clubbing.
Investigations you would order include ESR, ANAs, RF
CXR, high resolution CT, and biopsy to exclude granulomas.

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51
Q

How do you treat idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Oxygen and steroids. Lung transplantation, mean survival is 3-5 years after diagnosis.

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52
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A

Sarcoidosis is an idiopathic non infectious granulomatous multi system disease other lung involvement in 90% of cases. It is characterised by non caseating granulomas. Proposed triggers include infectious, allergic, and environmental exposures, sarcoidosis typically affects young and middle aged patients. There is a higher incidence among black North Americans.

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53
Q

What are the presenting signs and symptoms of sarcoidosis?

A

Asymptomatic, or cough, dyspnoea, fever, arthralgia, malaise, erythema nodosum, chest pain
Chest exam usually normal
Common extra pulmonary manifestations include:
- cardiac (arrhythmias, sudden death)
- eye involvement (anterior uveitis)
- skin involvement (skin papular, erythema nodosum, lupus)
- peripheral lymphadenopathy
- arthralgia
- hepatomegaly

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54
Q

Hat is hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is also known as extrinsic allergic alveolitis. It is caused by intense/repeated inhalation and sensitisation to certain organic agents. There is non IgE mediated inflammation of the lung parenchyma, lymphocytic inflammation and granulomas present.
Exposure is usually related to occupation or hobby.
Farmers lung = thermophillic actinomyces
Bird breeders/bird fanciers lung= chlamydia psittaci
Humidifier’s lung: aureobasidium pullulans
Sauna takers lung: aureobasidium spp.

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55
Q

What is pneumoconiosis?

A

Pneumoconiosis is an acute reaction to inhaled organic dusts that are 0.5- 5 micrometers in size. There is no effective treatment, therefore prevention of exposure through the use of PPE is the key intervention.

56
Q

Who is at risk of asbestosis?

A

Insulation workers, shipyard workers, pipe fitters, plumbers, construction workers and brake lining workers. Also the spouses of these workers who may have handled their clothing.

57
Q

What is asbestosis?

A

Asbestosis is a slowly progressive diffuse interstitial fibrosis from dose related inhalation of asbestos. Usually involves >10 -20 years of of exposure. May develop with heavier but shorter exposure. Typically there is a prolonged period between exposure and clinical manifestation of disease.

58
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of asbestosis?

A

Insidious in onset. SOB on exertion usually the first symptom with increased dyspnoea as disease progresses. Paroxysmal, non productive cough, fine end inspiratory crackles increased at the bases, and clubbing (more lie,ly in asbestosis the silicosis or pneumoconiosis) oedema, jugular venous distension.
Affects the lower lobe more than the upper lobe.
CXR: early shows fibrosis and streaking, later shows cysts and honey combing.
Asbestos exposure can cause pleural and diaphragmatic plaques (+- calcification ), pleural effusion, and round atelectasis.

59
Q

What is found on microscopic examination of asbestosis?

A

Microscopic examination of asbestosis shows ferruginous bodies of yellow brown shaped rod structures which represent asbestos fibres coated in macrophages.

60
Q

What are the complications of asbestos exposure?

A

Asbestosis, mesothelioma, and bronchi genie cancer.

61
Q

How do you treat asbestosis?

A

Removal of exposure, smoking cessation, proper nutrition, excercise, home oxygen PRN, treatment of respiratory infections, annual influenza, and pneumococcal vaccinations

62
Q

What populations are at risk of silicosis?

A

Sandblasters, rock miners, stone cutters, quarry and highway workers. It generally requires >20 years worth of exposure but may develop with a much shorter and heavier exposure.

63
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of silicosis?

A

Dyspnoea, cough, and wheezing.
CXR affects upper lobe >lower lobe. Early changes show nodular disease with normal lung function. Late changes show nodules that coalesce into masses (progressive massive fibrosis) there is possible hilar lymphadenopathy that is frequently calcified, especially ‘egg shell’ calcification,. Complications include mycobacterium infection (eg TB).
Treat with prevention, removal from exposure, supportive measures (bronchodilators, oxygen), and lung transplant

64
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

Pulmonary hypertension is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure of >25 mmHg at rest and >30 mmHg with exercise, or a systolic pulmonary artery pressure of >40 mmHg. In the past, pulmonary hypertension was classified as primary or secondary pulmonary hypertension but is has since been modified.

65
Q

What are the different classifications of pulmonary hypertension?

A

Pulmonary arterial hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension due to left heart disease
Pulmonary hypertension due to lung disease and/or hypoxia
Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension with unclear multifactorial mechanisms

66
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension?

A

Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension occurs in young women aged 20-40 with no demonstrable cause. Presents with exertion all dyspnoea, fatigue, syncope, exertion all chest pain, ray aids phenomenon. There is a mean survival rate of 2-3 years from time of diagnosis

67
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary hypertension?

A

Symptoms include Dyspnoea, fatigue, substernal chest pain, syncope, symptoms of underlying disease.
Signs include a loud palpable P2, a RV heave, right sided S4, systolic murmur (tricuspid regurg)
If RVF; increased JVP, peripheral oedema, TR

68
Q

How do you treat persistent pulmonary hypertension?

A

Calcium channel blockers (nifedipine or diltiazem, but not verapramil)
Vasodilators: oral phosphoritesase inhibitors (eg sildafenil), endothelin receptor antagonists, and parenteral prostaniods
Oxygen therapy
Consider anticoagulants
Sometimes diuretics

69
Q

What is Virchows triad?

A

Venous stasis
Endothelial cell damage
Hypercoagulable states

70
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

A pulmonary embolus is a lodging of a blood clot in the pulmonary arterial tree with a subsequent increase in pulmonary vascular resistance, impaired V/Q matching, and possibly reduced pulmonary blood flow. Thrombus generally comes from the proximal leg (popliteal, femoral, or iliac veins). Fewer than 30% of patients have clinical evidence of DVTs. . Always expect a PE if a patient develops sudden dyspnoea, chest pain, or collapse 1-2 weeks after surgery.

70
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

A pulmonary embolus is a lodging of a blood clot in the pulmonary arterial tree with a subsequent increase in pulmonary vascular resistance, impaired V/Q matching, and possibly reduced pulmonary blood flow. Thrombus generally comes from the proximal leg (popliteal, femoral, or iliac veins). Fewer than 30% of patients have clinical evidence of DVTs. . Always expect a PE if a patient develops sudden dyspnoea, chest pain, or collapse 1-2 weeks after surgery.

72
Q

When would you use a d-dimer test to aid with a a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?

A

A d-dimer test measures products of the thrombotic/fibrinolytic process. An ELISA is better than a latex agglutination. D-dimer results are have a good sensitivity and negative predictive value, but a poor specificity and positive predictive value. Consider only in out patients with a low pre test probability, and always use in conjunction with leg dopplers. If a d-dimer is positive, then go on to do a spiral CT scan. However, if there is a high ore test probability of pulmonary embolus, go straight to the spiral CT. D-dimer is elevated in patients with recent surgery, cancer, inflammation, infection, and severe renal dysfunction.

73
Q

When would you order a V/Q scan to help with the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolus?

A

A V/Q scan is very sensitive but has a low specificity. You order a V/Q scan if the CXR is normal, and there is no COPD. You may also consider ordering a V/Q scan if there is a contraindication to CT (contrast allergy, renal dysfunction).
You should avoid a V/Q if CXR is abnormal, or they have COPD, they are an inpatient, or you have a high clinical suspicion of PE. If the results are normal, then the diagnosis of a PE is excluded.

74
Q

What are the available tests that you could use to help you diagnoses PE?

A

A d-dimer, a V/Q scan, a Doppler ultrasound, an ECG, a CXR, a spiral CT.

75
Q

How do you manage a patient with a PE?

A

Admit for observation, provide supplemental oxygen if short of breath or hypoxemic. Pain relief if needed.
Give fluids in BP is low.
Anticoagulation: stops clot propagation, prevents new clots, and allows the body’s fibrinolytic system to dissolve existing thromboembolic over months. Use UFH if no contraindications (easier to get a stable level and quicker to reverse) use LMWH if pregnant.
Get a baseline FBC, INR, aPTT, EUC, and LFT.
For SC LMWHS give dalteparin or enoxaparin, no lab monitoring
Long term anticoagulation: warfarin- start the same day as LMWHS/heparin, overlap with heparin for at least 5 days. Use LmWH for pregnancy, active cancer, or high bleeding risk patients.
IV thrombolytic therapy:if the patient has a massive PE (hypotension if clinical right heart failure) and no contraindications.
IVC filter can be used if recent proximal DVT and absolute contraindications to anticoagulation. Can also consider an embolecto my

76
Q

What criteria makes someone low risk for VTE? If someone is at low risk of VTE, what prophylaxis would you use?

A

A low thrombosis risk group is medical patients that are fully mobile, or who had surgery for <30 mins and are fully mobile.
Prophylaxis used is to have frequent ambulation.

77
Q

What criteria makes someone moderate risk for VTE? If someone is at moderate risk of VTE, what prophylaxis would you use?

A

Most general, gneacologic and urological surgery pAtients are at moderate risk of thrombosis. It also includes sick medical patients.
Give LmWH or low dose heperin

78
Q

What criteria makes someone high risk for VTE? If someone is at high risk of VTE, what prophylaxis would you use?

A

High thrombosis risk patients include arthroplasty patients, and hip fracture surgery patients. It also includes patients that have undergone major trauma, or spinal cord injury.
Treat with LMWH, fondaparinux, warfarin (INR 2-3), or dabigatran.

79
Q

What are the different types of pulmonary vasculitides?

A

Wegeners granulomatosus, Churg-Strauss, and Goodpastures disease.

80
Q

If there is a mass in the anterior compartment, what could it be?

A

Five T’s : Thymoma, thyroid enlargement, teratoma, thoracic aortic aneurysm, tumours (lymphoma, parathyroid, oesophageal angiomas)

81
Q

What is the middle compartment of the mediastinum? What are the likely causes of a mass in the middle compartment?

A

The middle compartment is the anterior to posterior pericardium.
Causes of a middle compartment mediastinal mass include pericardial cyst, bronchi genie cyst/tumour, lymphoma, lymph node enlargement, aortic aneurysm.

82
Q

What is the posterior compartment of the mediastinum? What causes poster compartment masses?

A

The posterior compartment is the posterior pericardium to the vertebral column. The causes of posterior mediastinal masses include neurogenic tumours, meningocele, enteric cysts, lymphoma. Diaphragmatic hernias, oesophageal tumours, aortic aneurysms.

83
Q

What is mediastinitis?

A

Mediastinitis is most commonly caused by postoperative complications of cardiovascular or thoracic surgical procedures.
It can be a complication of endoscopy (oesophageal perforation providing entry point for infection), oesophageal or cardiac surgery , or tumour necrosis.
Signs and symptoms include fever, substernal pain. Pneumo mediastinum, mediastinal compression, and Hamman’s sign (an auscultatory ‘crunch’ during cardiac systole).
Treat with antibiotics, drainage, plus or minus surgical closure of the perforation.
Chronic mediastinitis is usually a granulomatous process or fibrosis related to previous infection (eg. Histoplasmosis, TB, sarcoidosis, syphilis)

84
Q

What are the causes of transudative pleural effusions?

A

CHF (usually right sided or bilateral), cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, pulmonary embolism (may cause transudative but more likely exudative pleural effusion), peritoneal dialysis, hypothyroidism, CF, urinothorax.

85
Q

What are the causes of an exudative pleural effusion?

A
  • Infectious: para pneumonic effusion (associated with bacterial pneumonia, lung abscess), and empyema (bacterial, fungal, TB pleuritis, viral infection.
  • Malignancy: lung carcinoma (35%), lymphoma (10%), metastases (breast, overly, kidney), mesothelioma
  • Inflammatory: RA, SLE, pulmonary embolism, post coronary artery bypass surgery, drug reaction.
  • Intrabdominal: subphrenic absess, pancreatic disease (elevated pleural fluid amylase), Meig’s syndrome (ascites and hydro thorax associated with ovarian fibroma or other pelvic tumour)
  • Intrathoracic: oesophageal perforation (elevated pleural fluid amylase)
  • Trauma: chylothorax (occurs when the thoracic duct is disrupted), heamothorax due to rupture of a blood vessel, pneumothorax
86
Q

What is a pleural effusion?

A

A pleural effusion is an excess amount of fluid in the pleural space (normally up to 25mL). It is caused by a disruption of the normal equilibrium between pleural fluid formation/entry and pleural fluid absorption/ exit. It can be classified as transudative or exudative, traditionally using Light’s criteria.

87
Q

What is the difference between transudative and exudative pleural effusion?

A

In transudative pleural effusions there may be an increased capillary hydrostatic pressure or an decreased plasma oncotic pressure. In exudative processes there is increased permeability of pleural capillaries or lymphatic dysfunction.
Lights Criteria:
To be a transudative effusion: protein (pleural/serum) <0.5, LDH (pleural/serum) <0.6, and pleural LDG <2/3rds of upper limit of N serum LDH.
To be an exudative effusion, one of these criteria must be met. Protein (pleural/serum)>0.5, LDH >0.6, and pleural LDH >2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH.

88
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a pleural effusion?

A

Pleural effusions are often asymptomatic. However, they may present with dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain.
Trachea may deviate away from the effusion, there may be ipsilateral decreased expansion,. There may be decreased tactile fremitis, or dullness.
Auscultation may show decreased breath sounds, bronchial breathing, and a pleural friction rub.

89
Q

What investigations would you consider ordering for a pleural effusion?

A

CXR PA and lateral. In a decubitus fluid will shift unless it is loculated.
Thoracocentesis: indicated if pleural effusion is a new finding (risk of re-expansion pulmonary oedema if >1.5 L of fluid is removed). Analyse fluid for colour, protein, LDH, gram stain, cell count differential, cytology, glucose, RF, ANA, amylase, pH, blood, triglycerides.

90
Q

What is a complicated pleural effusion?

A

A complicated pleural effusion is persistent bacteria in the pleural space, but fluid is non-purelent. There are neutrophils, pleural fluid acidosis, and high LDH. Often no bacteria is grown, since it is rapidly cleared from the pleural fluid. There is a fibrin layer that can lead to loculation of pleural fluid. Treat with antibiotics and drainage. Treat as an empyema.

91
Q

What is an empyema?

A

An empyema is pus in the pleural space, or an effusion with organisms seen on a gram stain or culture (eg. Pleural fluid is grossly purelent). A positive culture is not required for diagnosis.

92
Q

What causes an empyema?

A

An empyema is generally caused by contiguous spread from lung infection (most commonly anaerobes), or infection through the chest wall (eg trauma, surgery).
Signs and symptoms include fever, and pleuritic chest pain.
Investigations include a CT chest, thoracocentesis, or PMNs +- visible organisms on gram stain.
Treat with antibiotic therapy for at least 4-6 weeks (rarely effective alone), complete pleural drainage with a chest tube. If loculated, it may be more difficult to drain, and may require surgical drainage.

93
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Atelectasis is when there is decreased volume of all or part of the lung. It can be due to obstruction causes,or non obstructive causes.
Obstructive causes include mucous trapping, tumour, or foreign body aspiration.
Non obstructive causes include pleural effusion, empyema, or pneumothorax. They also include a loss of surfactant, compression by a space occupying lesion, or replacement of parenchymal tissue by scarring or malignant infiltration.

94
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of atelectasis?

A

Symptoms are often absent in chronic atelectasis, but in acute atelectasis they can include dyspnoea, pain, cyanosis, hypotension, and tachycardia.
Signs can include decreased breath sounds, a dullness to percussion, and shifting of the trachea towards the side of the atelectasis.

95
Q

What is a pneumothorax? What are the signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax?

A

A pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural space. A pneumothorax can be asymptomatic. It may also present with chest pain, dyspnoea, tachypnoea, tachycardia, contralateral tracheal deviation, ipsilateral diminished chest expansion, decreased tactile/vocal fremitis, hyperresonance, ipsilateral dimished breath sounds.

96
Q

What are the causes of pneumothorax?

A

Traumatic: penetrating or non penetrating injuries.
Iatrogenic: Central venous catheter, thoracocentesis, mechanical ventilation with barotrauma
Spontaneous : primary (no underlying lung disease) normally in young tall healthy males caused by rupture of a sub pleural blob of lung into pleural space. Secondary (underlying lung disease).

97
Q

What signs indicate a life threatening pneumothorax?

A

Severe respiratory distress., tracheal deviation to the contralateral side, distended neck veins (increased JVP), hypotension.

98
Q

How do you treat a (non emergency) pneumothorax?

A

A small pneumothorax can resolve spontaneously (breathing 100% oxygen can speed up the resorption of air).
A small intercostal tube with a Heinrich valve can be used for most spontaneous pneumothoraces.
Large pneumothoraces require the placement of a chest tube connected to an underwater seal plus or minus suction.
Treat underlying cause.

99
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of mesothelioma?

A

Mesothelioma is a primary malignancy of the pleura. Persistent chest pain, dyspnoea, cough, bloody pleural effusion, weightloss.

Note: asbestos exposure can also results in a benign exudative pleural effusion, and pleural plaques that are usually calcified are a marker of exposure and are usually an asymptomatic radiological finding.

100
Q

What is respiratory failure?

A

Respiratory failure is an impairment of gas exchange between ambient air and circulating blood. Hypoxeamix is <60mmHg, hypercapnia is >50 mmHg.
Signs of hypoxemia include restlessness, confusion, cyanosis, coma, Cor pulmonale.
Signs of hypercapnia include headache, dyspnoea, drowsiness, asterixis, warm periphery, plethora, increased ICP (secondary to vasodilation)

101
Q

What are the causes of hypoxia?

A
  • Low FiO2 (altitude)
  • Hypoventilation
  • Shunting (alveolar collapse, intra-alveolar filling (pneumonia, oedema) intra cardiac, intra pulmonary AVM
  • Low mixed venous O2 content (aneamia, low cardiac output, hypermetabolism)
  • V/Q mismatch (airway disease/asthma/COPD, alveolar disease/pneumonia/oedema, vascular disease/PE)
102
Q

What are the causes of hypercapnia?

A
  • high inspired CO2
  • low total ventilation
  • high dead space ventilation
  • high CO2 production (fever, sepsis, seizure, acidosis, CHO load)

Alveolar hypoventilation: COPD, asthma, CF, chest wall disorder, rapid shallow breathing.

103
Q

What is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A

ARDS is a clinical syndrome that is characterised by severe respiratory distress, hypoxemia, and non cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. The American European consensus conference criteria for ARDS includes:

  • acute onset
  • bilateral infiltrates on CXR
  • Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure <18 or no evidence of increased left atrial pressure.
  • PaO2/FiO2 <200
104
Q

What are the causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome?

A

ARDs may result from direct or indirect lung injury:

  • Airway: aspiration (gastric contents, drowning), pneumonia, gas inhalation (oxygen toxicity, nitrogen dioxide, smoke)
  • Circulation: sepsis, shock, trauma, pancreatitis, DIC, blood transfusion, embolism (fat, amniotic fluid), drug overdose (narcotics, sedatives, TCAs)
  • Neurogenic: head trauma, intracranial haemorrhage.
105
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind ARDS?

A

A disruption of alveolar capillary membranes leads to leaky capillaries, which leads to interstitial and alveolar pulmonary oedema, which leads to reduced compliance, which leads to reduced compliance, V/Q mismatch, shunt, hypoxemia, and pulmonary hypertension.

106
Q

Describe the exudative phase that’s art of the clinical course of ARDs.

A

The exudative phase occurs in the first 7days after exposure to the ARDs precipitant. The alveolar capillary endothelial cells and type 1 pneumocytes are injured, resulting in a loss of the normally tight alveolar barrier. Patients develop dyspnoea, tachypnoea, and increased work of breathing. This results in respiratory fatigue and eventually in respiratory failure.

107
Q

Describe the proliferative phase and fibrotic phase of the clinical path of ARDs.

A

The proliferative phase of ARDs occurs between days 7-21. The dyspnoea, tachycardia, fatigue, and hypoxemia may still last into this phase. Some patients will develop fibrotic lung disease, most patients clinically improve and are able to wean off their medications.
The fibrotic phase occurs only for some patients. These patients may require long term support on supplemental oxygen or even mechanical ventilation.

108
Q

How do you treat ARDs?

A

Treat underlying cause.
Provide mechanical ventilation using low tidal volumes to recent barotrauma.
Use fluids and inotropic therapy (dopamine, vasopressin) if cardiac output is inadequate.

109
Q

What are the complications of mechanical ventilation?

A
  • Barotrauma: pneumothorax, tension pneumo, pneumo mediastinum, subcutaneous emphysema
  • Ventilator assisted pneumonia (nosocomial pneumonia): patient intubated >72 hours at risk, commonly gram negative rods, anaerobes, S. aureus.
  • Hypotension (decreased Cardiac Output): increased Intrathoracic pressure with decreased venous return
  • Tracheal stenosis
  • laryngeal dysfunction
110
Q

What is a pulmonary nodule?

A

A pulmonary nodule is a round or oval, sharply circumscribed radio graphic lesion up to 3-4 cm which may or may not be calcified, and is surrounded by the normal lung.

111
Q

What is the corona radiate sign on CXR?

A

The corona radiata sign is highly associated with malignancy.there are fine strait ions that extend linearly from a nodule in a speculated fashion.

112
Q

What are the benign differential diagnoses for benign pulmonary nodules?

A
Infectious granuloma (TB, histoplasmosis, atypical mycobacterium)
Other infections (bacterial abscess, PCP, aspergilloma)
Benign neoplasms (heamatomas, lipoma, fibroma)
Vascular (AV malformation, pulmonary varix)
Developmental (bronchogenic cyst)
Inflammatory (wegener's granulomatosus, rheumatoid nodule, sarcoidosis)
Other (heamatoma, infarct, pseudo tumour,rounded atelectasis, lymph nodes, amyloidoma)
113
Q

What are the malignant differentials for a solitary pulmonary nodule?

A
  • Bronchogenic carcinoma: adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, large cell carcinoma, small cell carcinoma.
  • Metastatic lesions: breast, head and neck, melanoma, colon, kidney, sarcoma, germ cell tumours
  • Pulmonary carcinoid
114
Q

What are the features of a benign pulmonary nodule?

A

<3cm, round, regular.
Smooth margin
Calcified pattern. Central ‘popcorn’ pattern if heamatoma, usually no cavitation, if cavitated the the wall is thin and smooth, with no other lung pathology.

115
Q

What are the characteristics of a malignant pulmonary nodule?

A

A malignant pulmonary nodule is >3cm, irregular and spiculated. There is an ill defined or notched margin. A malignant nodule is usually not calcified, and if it is calcified then the pattern is eccentric. There are no satellite lesions, cavitation with a thick wall. There may be pleural effusions, and lymphadenopathy.

116
Q

What are the different types of benign lung tumours?

A

Less than 5% of lung tumours are benign. However, of those that are benign, 90% of them are bronchial adenomatous and heamartomas
Less common benign neoplasms of the lung include fibromas, lipomas, leiomyomas, hemangiomas, papillomas, chondromas, teratoma, and endometriosis.

117
Q

What is the typical presentation of a benign lung tumour?

A

Can present with a cough, wheezing, heamoptysis, recurrent pneumonia, and atelectasis. It may also present as an asymptomatic pulmonary nodule.

118
Q

What is a hamaetoma?

A

A hamaetoma is comprised of the tissues usually present in the lung (fat, epithelium, fibrous tissue, and cartilage), but they exhibit disorganised growth. The peak incidence is at age 60, it is more common in men, and they usually occur in the periphery, are clinically silent, and benign in behaviour. On CXR, they have a clustered ‘popcorn’ pattern of calcification that is pathognmonic for a hamaetoma.

119
Q

What are the different types of malignant lung cancers?

A

Bronchogenic cancers
Lymphomas
Secondary metastases: breast, colon, prostate, kidney, thyroid, stomach, cervix, recto, testes, bone, melanoma

120
Q

What are the different types of bronchogenic malignant lung tumours?

A

Bronchogenic cancer makes up 90% of all lung cancer. Bronchogenic lung cancer can be classified into small cell lung cancer, , bronchioalveolar cancer (BAC), and non small cell lung cancer.
The types of non small cell lung cancers include adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, large cell carcinoma.

121
Q

Describe the properties of adenocarcinomas of the lung.

A

Adenocarcinomas are a type of bronchogenic cancer. They are malignant.
Adenocarcinomas are the most common bronchogenic carcinoma, and are slightly more common in women than men. There is a weak correlation with smoking. They are located peripherally, and come from the mucin producing glandular tissue. Adenocarcinomas metastasis early, and go to distant sites.

122
Q

Describe the properties of squamous cell carcinomas (SCC).

A

Squamous cell carcinomas are the second most common type of bronchogenic cancer. They have a strong correlation with smoking. Squamous cell carcinomas are located centrally, and develop from keratin and intercellular bridges. They metastasise by local invasion and distant spread, and may cavitate.

123
Q

Describe the properties of a small cell lung cancer.

A

Small cell lung cancers are a type of bronchogenic lung cancer that are strongly correlated with smoking.they are located centrally and develop from oat cells or neuroendocrine cells. Whilst they originate from endobronchial cells, they are often disseminated at presentation.

124
Q

Describe the properties of large cell carcinomas.

A

Large cell lung cancers are the least common type of bronchogenic lung cancers. They have a strong correlation with smoking. Large cell lung cancers occur peripherally and are a aplastic and undifferentiated. They metastasise early to distant locations.

125
Q

What are the different risk factors for lung cancer?

A
Smoking
Asbestos exposure
Radiation from Radon or uranium
Exposure to arsenic, chromium, or nickel.
Genetic damage
Parenchymal scarring: granulomatous disease, fibrosis, scleroderma
Passive exposure to cigarette smoke
HIV
126
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a malignant lung tumour?

A

Cough (particularly beware of a chronic cough that changes in character)
Dyspnoea
Chest pain
Heamoptysis
Other pain
Clubbing
Constitutional symptoms (anorexia, weight loss, fever, aneamia)

127
Q

What is superior vena cavasyndrome?

A

SVC syndrome occurs when there is obstruction of the superior vena cava. This causes neck and facial swelling, as well as dyspnoea, and a cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, tongue swelling, epistaxis, and heamoptysis. Physical findings include dilated neck veins, increased number of collateral veins, covering the anterior chest wall, cyanosis, oedema of the face, arms, and chest. Pemberton’s sign (facial flushing, cyanosis, and distension of neck veins upon raising both arms over head). There are milder symptoms if the obstruction is above the azygous vein.

128
Q

Which type of lung cancer is most commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

SCLC

129
Q

What is the 5 year prognosis for bronchogenic cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma has the best (25%), then Adenocarcinoma (12%), and large cell carcinoma (13%). Small cell carcinoma has the worst (1%).

130
Q

What is the treatment for bronchogenic cancer?

A

Surgery is not usually performed for small cell carcinoma as it is not curable. However, the preferred treatment for stage 1 and 2 NSCLC is resection with curative intent. Advanced NSCLC is often palliated and or radiation. Contraindications for surgery include spread to contralateral lymph nodes or distant sites. There is no role for chemotherapy alone, only in combination with other treatments. Radiotherapy is also used.

131
Q

What is bronchioalveolar carcinoma?

A

Bronchioalveolar carcinoma is a adenocarcinoma that grows along e alveolar wall in the periphery. Bronchioalveolar cancer may arise at sites of previous lung scaring. The clinical presentation of bronchioalveolar cancer is similar to bronchogenic cancer. It spreads within the lungs, but extra pulmonary metastases occurs late. Solitary lesions are respectable and have a survival rate of 69%. Overall five year survival rate is 25%.

132
Q

What is apnoea?

A

Apnoea is the absence of breathing for >10 seconds.

133
Q

What is hypopnea?

A

Hypopnea is an excessive or decreased rate of breathing (>50% reduction rate in ventilation).

134
Q

What is sleep apnoea? What are the different types?

A

Sleep apnoea is episodic decreases in airflow during sleep. Quantitatively measured by the apnoea/hypopnea index= # of apneic and hyponeic events per hour of sleep. Sleep apnoea is generally accepted to be present if AHI>15.

135
Q

What are the different types of sleep apnoea?

A

Sleep apnoea can either be obstructive, central or mixed. Obstructive apnoea is caused by transient, episodic obstruction of the upper airway, or by absent or reduced airflow despite persistent respiratory efforts.
Central sleep apnoea is caused by transient episodic decreases in the CNS drive to breath. There is no airflow because there is not respiratory effort.
Mixed sleep apnoea has features of both OSA and CSA. There is a loss of both hypoxic and hypercapnic drives to breath secondary to ‘resuscitative breathing’. Resuscitative breathing is overcompensatory hyperventilation upon awakening from OSA induced hypoxia.

136
Q

What are the risk factors for OSA?

A

Obesity, upper airway abnormality, neuromuscular disease, hypothyroidism, alcohol/sedative use, nasal congestion, sleep deprivation.

137
Q

What is Cheyne stokes respiration?

A

Cheyne stokes respiration is a form of CSA in which central apnoea so alternate with hyperneas to produce a crescendo-decreascedo pattern of tidal volume that is seen in severe LV dysfunction, brain injury and many other settings.

138
Q

What are the risk factors for CSA?

A

LV failure, brain stem lesions, encephalopathy, encephalitis, myxoedema, high altitude.