Respiratory terminology Flashcards

1
Q

what is interstitial lung disease

A

umbrella term describing lung conditions that affect the lung parenchyma (tissue) causing inflammation and fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is fibrosis

A

replacement of normal elastic lung tissue to scarred tissue that is stiff and does not function effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Conditions under umbrella of ILD

A

asbestosis
cyrptogenic organising pnuemonia
hypersensitivity pnuemonitis
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
drug induced pulmonary fibrosis
secondary pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

type III hypersensitivity reaction to an environmental allergen that causes parenchymal inflammation and destruction in people that are sensitive to that allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is acute bronchitis

A

usually an inflammatory response to a virus
rarely a bacterial cause or inflammatory response to an irritant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is asthma

A

chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes episodic exacerbations of bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risk factors PE

A

Immobility (long haul flight, recent surgery)
Pregnancy
Hormone therapy with oestrogen
Malignancy
Polycythaemia (high RBCs)
SLE
thrombophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What scoring system do you use for a PE and what is it made up of

A

Wells score
clinical signs/symptoms of DVT
PE is number 1 likely diagnosis
tachycardic
Immobilisation at least 3 days or surgery in previous 4 weeks
Previous diagnosed PE or DVT
Haemoptysis
Malignancy w treatment within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

metabolic disturbance in a patient presenting with a PE

A

usually respiratory alkalosis because high RR causes them to blow off CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to diagnose patient presenting with a PE

A

history
examination
CXR
Wells score - likely perform CTPA; unlikely perform D dimer and if positive perform CTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Initial management of patient with a PE

A

first line - apixaban or rivaroxaban
- LMWH an alternative or in antiphospholipid syndrome
- Should be started immediately before confirming diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Long term anticoagulation for patient with a PE

A

options: DOAC, warfarin or LMWH

INR for warfarin is 2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do you thrombolyse PE patients

A

in massive PEs -> when they are haem-dynamically unstable

give streptokinase, alteplase or tenectplase

can be done peripheral IV or central catheter into pulmonary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of a pneumothorax

A

spontaneous
trauma
iatrogenic
lung pathologies -> infection, asthma or COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Investigations for a pneumothorax

A

CXR
CT if too small to see on CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of a patient with a pneumothorax and no SoB and <2cm rim of air on CXR

A

No treatment required as it will resolve spontaneously
follow up in 2-4weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of a pneumothorax with SoB and/or >2cm rim of air on CXR

A
  • Aspiration followed by reassessment
  • If aspiration fails twice then chest drain is required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is a chest drain inserted

A
  • Inserted in the triangle of safety
    • 5th intercostal space (inferior of the nipple line)
    • Midaxillary line ( Lateral edge of latissimus Dorsi)
    • Anterior axillary line (Lateral edge of pectoralis major)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is the needle inserted in a chest drain (in relation to the rib)

A

just above the rib to avoid the neurovascular bundle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Two complications of a chest drain

A
  • Air leaks around drain site → indicated by persistent bubbling of fluid, particularly on coughing
  • Surgical emphysema → (also known as subcutaenous emphysema) when air collects in subcut tissue
21
Q

When would a pneumothorax require surgical intervention

A
  • Chest drain fails to correct it
  • Persistent air leak in the drain
  • Pneumothorax recurs
22
Q

Surgical options for a pneumothorax

A
  • Abrasive pleurodesis(using direct physical irritation of the pleura)
  • Chemical pleurodesis(using chemicals, such astalc powder, to irritate the pleura)
  • Pleurectomy(removal of the pleura)
23
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax

A

Caused by trauma to the chest wall that creates a one-way valve that lets air in but not out

24
Q

Signs of a tension pneumothorax

A
  • Tracheal deviation away from the side of the pneumothorax
  • Reduced breath sounds on the side of the pneumothorax
  • Increased resonance to percussion on affected side
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
25
Management of a tension pneumothorax
- ***Insert a large bore cannula into the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line*** - If suspected do not wait for investigations - Once pressure is relieved with cannula inset a chest drain for definitive management
26
TB bacteria and staining
described as acid fast bacillus special staining technique using the Zeihl-Neelsen stain. This turns TB bacteria bright red against a blue background.
27
Miliary TB
when the immune system is unable to control the disease it causes a disseminated, severe disease
28
what is BCG vaccine for
TB
29
Typical signs and symptoms of TB
- Lethargy - Fever or night sweats - Weight loss - Cough with or without haemoptysis - Lymphadenopathy - Erythema nodosum
30
Potts disease of the spine
spinal TB
31
Investigations for TB
- Ziehl-Nelson stain - Two tests for immune response to TB caused by latent, previous or active TB - Mantoux test or interferon-gamma release assay - Where active disease is suspected support diagnosis with CXR and cultures
32
What is the Mantoux test
Used to look for previous immune response to TB
33
Primary TB on a CXR
may show patchy consolidation, pleural effusions and hilar lymphadenopathy
34
Reactivated TB on a CXR
may show patchy or nodular consolidation with cavitation (gas filled spaces in the lungs) typically in the upper zones
35
Disseminated miliary TB on a CXR
give a picture of “millet seeds” uniformly distributed throughout the lung fields
36
types of cultures for TB
Sputum mycobacterium blood cultures Lymph node aspiration
37
Management of latent TB
- Isoniazid and rifampicin for 3 months - Isoniazid for 6 months
38
Management of active pulmonary TB
- Rifampicin for 6 months -Isoniazid for 6 months - Pyrazinamide for 2 months -isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy and pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is usually co-prescribed prophylactically to help prevent this*** - Ethambutol for 2 months
39
Other management considerations for someone who has TB
- Test for other infectious diseases (HIV, hepatitis B and hepatitis C). - Test contacts for TB. - Notify Public Health of all suspected cases.
40
side effect of Rifampicin
can cause red/orange discolouration of secretions like urine and tears reduces effect of oCP
41
side effect of Isoniazid
can cause peripheral neuropathy. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is usually co-prescribed prophylactically to reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy
42
Pyrazinamide
can cause hyperuricaemia (high uric acid levels) resulting in gout
43
Ethambutol
can cause colour blindness and reduced visual acuity.
44
Patient around 20-40 year old black women presenting with a dry cough and SoB. May have nodules on skins suggesting erythema nodosum think what??
Sarcoidosis
45
Lofgren’s Syndrome
- Specific presentation of sarcoidosis - Triad of - Erythema nodosum - Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy - Polyarthralgia (joint pain in multiple joints)
46
Blood tests/results for sarcoidosis
- Raised Serum ACE - Hypercalcaemia is a key finding - Raised serum soluble interleukin 2 receptor - Raised CRP - Raised immunoglobulins
47
Gold standard to diagnose sarcoidosis
confirm with histology from biopsy shows non-caseating granulomas with epithelioid cells
47
Gold standard to diagnose sarcoidosis
confirm with histology from biopsy shows non-caseating granulomas with epithelioid cells
48
Management for sarcoidosis
- No treatment → considered first line in patients with mild or no symptoms as the condition can resolve spontaneously - Oral steroids → first line when treatment is required and are given for between 6-24 months - Patients should be given bisphosphonates to protect against osteoporosis whilst on such long term steroids