Respiratory System - Finals Paper One Flashcards

1
Q

What is a feature of life-threatening asthma attacks?

A

Normal pCO2 Levels

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2
Q

What is a feature of a near-fatal asthma attack?

A

Raised pCO2 Levels

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3
Q

When are ABGs used to investigate acute asthma attacks?

A

Saturations < 92%

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4
Q

What are the four admission criteria for acute asthma?

A

Life Threatening

Severe With Management Failure

Previous Near-Fatal Attack

Pregnancy

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5
Q

When is nebulised SABA used to manage acute asthma attacks?

A

Life Threatening

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6
Q

What corticosteroid is used to manage acute asthma attacks?

A

Oral Prednisolone

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7
Q

When is nebulised ipratropium bromide used to manage acute asthma attacks?

A

Severe/Life-Threatening Astma

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8
Q

What ventilation method is recommended in acute asthma?

A

Intubation & Ventilation

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9
Q

What are the two management options of mild to moderate asthma attacks in children?

A

Beta-2 Agonist Bronchodilator

Oral Prednisolone

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10
Q

What are the two management options of mild to moderate asthma attacks in children?

A

Beta-2 Agonist Bronchodilator

Oral Prednisolone

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11
Q

What spirometry reversibility testing result indicates asthma?

A

FEV1 > 12% improvement

FEV1 > 200ml

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12
Q

When bronchodilator reversibility is negative, what is the most appropriate next step?

A

Fractioned Exhaled Nitric Oxide Testing

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13
Q

What is step one of asthma management in adults?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist

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14
Q

What is step two of asthma management in adults?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist

Low Dose Inhaled Corticosteroid

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15
Q

What is step three of asthma management in adults?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist

Low Dose Inhaled Corticosteroid

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist

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16
Q

What is step four of asthma management in adults?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist

Low Dose Inhaled Corticosteroid

Long-Acting Beta Agonist

*The Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist should be continued dependent on the patient’s response *

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17
Q

What is the most appropriate step down treatment of asthma?

A

Reduce inhaled corticosteroid dose by 25% - 50%

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18
Q

What is the most appropriate management step when occupational asthma is suspected?

A

Specialist Referral

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19
Q

What is step one of asthma management in children < 5 years old?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist

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20
Q

What is step two of asthma management in children < 5 years old?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist

8 Week Trial Moderate Dose Inhaled Corticosteroid

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21
Q

What is step three of asthma management in children < 5 years old?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist

Low Dose Inhaled Corticosteroid

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonis

22
Q

What is the most common organism associated with bronchiectasis?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae

23
Q

What is an indicator of surgical management of bronchiectasis?

A

Localised Disease

24
Q

What is the most common cause of infective exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae

25
What are the two management options of acute chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbations?
Nebulised Bronchodilator Oral Prednisolone for 5 Days
26
When are antibiotics used to manage acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
When sputum is purulent or there are clincial features of pneumonia
27
What are the three first line antibiotics used to manage acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Amoxicillin Clarithromycin Doxycycline
28
What ventilation method is used to manage acute chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbations with type two respiratory failure?
Non-invasive ventilation
29
What should be offerred to those with frequent chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbations?
A home supply of prednisolone and an antibiotic
30
What is used to determine the severity of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
FEV1
31
What FEV1 result indicates mild/stage one chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
> 80%
32
What FEV1 result indicates moderate/stage two chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
50% - 79%
33
What FEV1 result indicates severe/stage three chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
30% - 49%
34
What FEV1 result indicates very severe/stage four chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
< 30%
35
What are the two first line management options of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Short-Acting Beta2-Agonist OR Short-Acting Muscarinic Antagonist
36
Name a short-acting muscarinic antagonist inhaler used to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Ipratropium
37
What is the second line management options of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - in those with no asthmatic features?
Add Long-Acting Beta2 Agonist AND Add Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonist *When taking a short-acting muscarinic agonist, discontinue and switch to short-acting beta2 agonist*
38
Name a long -acting beta2 agonist inhaler used to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Formoterol
39
Name a long-acting muscarinic antagonist inhaler used to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Tiotropium
40
What are the four asthmatic features of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A previous diagnosis of asthma/atopy A higher blood eosinophil count A substantial variation in FEV1 over time > 400 ml A substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow > 20%
41
What is the second line management options of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - in those with asthmatic features?
Long Acting Beta2 Agonist AND Inhaled Corticosteroid
42
What is the third line management options of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - in those with asthmatic features?
Long Acting Beta2 Agonist AND Inhaled Corticosteroid AND Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonist
43
What prophylactic antibiotic is used to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Azithromycin
44
What investigation should be conducted prior to azithromycin administration? Why?
ECG Scan Side Effect = Prolonged QT
45
Which six feautres should indicate assessment for long term oxygen therapy in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
FEV1 < 30% O2 < 92% Cyanosis Polycythaemia Raised JVP Ankle Oedema
46
When is long term oxygen therapy used to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
pO2 < 7.3 (x2 positive results) OR pO2 7.3 - 8 with one of the following... * Secondary Polycythaemia * Peripheral Oedema * Pulmonary Hypertension
47
What heel prick test result indicates cystic fibrosis?
Increased Immunoreactive Trypsinogen (IRT) Levels
48
What is the dietary management option of cystic firbosis?
High calorie and high fat diet, with pancreatic enzyme supplemetation for every meal
49
What is the management option used to reduce chest infections in cystic fibrosis?
Advise individuals to minimise contract with each other due to the risk of cross infection
50
What antibotic is used to manage Pseudomonas Aeruginosa infection in cystic fibrosis?
Oral Ciprofloxacin
51
Which two organisms are associated with the greatest mortality risk in cystic fibrosis?
Pseudomonas Bulkholderia