Respiratory System Flashcards

1
Q

What makes up the upper respiratory tract?

A

the nose, the nasal cavity, and the pharynx and associated structures

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2
Q

What makes up the lower respiratory tract?

A

the larynx, trachea, bronchi and the lungs.

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3
Q

Define respiration

A

the exchange of gases between the atmosphere, blood and cells.

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4
Q

What are the three basic steps of respiration?

A
  1. ventilation (breathing)
  2. external (pulmonary) respiration
  3. internal (tissue) respiration
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5
Q

What is the conducting system?

A

a series of cavities and tubes - nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchiole, and terminal briochioles - that conduct air into the lungs

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6
Q

When talking about the functional divisions of the respiratory system what is the respiratory portion?

A

-the area where gas exchange occurs - respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli.

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7
Q

What type of cells make up the respiratory region of the nasal cavity?

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium with many goblet cells.

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8
Q

True or False: There are goblet cells in the olfactory region.

A

False. there are cilia but no goblet cells.

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9
Q

What kind of cells are in the nasopharynx?

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells

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10
Q

What type of cells are in the oropharynx?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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11
Q

What type of cells are in the laryngopharynx?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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12
Q

In what region do you find the pharyngeal tonsils, the palatine tonsils, and the lingual tonsils?

A

pharyngeal tonsils = nasopharynx
palatine tonsils = post. oral cavity
lingual tonsils = oropharynx

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13
Q

What are the nasal conchae?

A

shelf-like projections lined with mucous membranes that extend from the lateral wall of the nasal cavity.

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14
Q

What does the nasal conchae divide?

A

They divide the nasal cavity into groove-like passageways called the superior, middle and inferior meatuses.

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15
Q

What is the function of the nasal conchae and meatuses?

A

to warm air; trap water molecules on exhalation (moistens)

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16
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses?

A

the frontal, the sphenoid, the maxillary, and the ethmoidal

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17
Q

What are nasal polyps?

A

outgrowths of the mucous membranes usually found around the openings of the paranasal sinuses

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18
Q

What is the function of the paranasal sinuses and the nasolacrimal ducts?

A

to produce mucus and resonate sound and tears.

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19
Q

What is the function of the internal nose structures?

A
  • to warm, moisten, and filter incoming air
  • receive olfactory stimuli
  • serve as a large, hollow resonating chamber to modify speech sounds
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20
Q

What type of cells are in the nasal cavity?

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar with goblet cells

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21
Q

What do the cells in the nasal cavity do?

A
  • warm air due to high vascularity
  • mucous moistens air and traps dust
  • cilia move mucous towards pharynx
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22
Q

If you are a smoker, what function of the cells in the nasal cavity does not work?

A

the cilica do not function therefore smokers must cough to release mucus.

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23
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

a 5 inch muscular tube lined by a mucous membrane that extends from the internal nares to the cricoid cartilage

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24
Q

What are the functions of the nasopharynx, oropharynx and the laryngopharynx?

A
  • passageway for food and air
  • resonating chamber for speech production
  • tonsil (lymphatic tissue) in the walls protects entryway into the body
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25
Q

Of the three regions of the pharynx, which have respiratory and digestive functions?

A

the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx

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26
Q

What do the cilia do in the upper respiratory tract vs the cilia in the lower respiratory tract?

A

the cilia in the upper respiratory tract move mucous and trapped particles down toward the pharynx and the cilia in the lower tract move them up toward the pharynx.

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27
Q

What is the larynx constructed of?

A

3 single cartilages:

  1. thyroid cartilage
  2. the epiglottis
  3. the cricoid cartilage

3 paired cartilages:

  1. arytenoid
  2. corniculate
  3. cuneiform cartilages
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28
Q

What is the thyroid cartilage commonly called?

A

Adam’s apple

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29
Q

What does the epiglottis do?

A

prevent food from entering the larynx

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30
Q

What do the cuneiform cartilages do?

A

support vocal folds and lateral epiglottis

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31
Q

What is the larynx lining made of?

A
  • superior to the vocal folds is non-keratinized stratified epithelium
  • inferior to the vocal folds is pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells
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32
Q

What are the false vocal chords called?

A

the ventricular folds

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33
Q

What are true vocal chords made of?

A

skeletal muscle and an elastic ligament

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34
Q

What is the purpose of false vocal chords?

A

pitch, speech and whispering

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35
Q

If pitch is controlled by tension on the vocal folds, what will happen if they are pulled taut by muscles?

A

a faster vibration which causes a higher pitch

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36
Q

If pitch is controlled by tension on the vocal folds, what will happen if the muscles tension on the folds decreases?

A

a slower vibration which causes a lower pitch

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37
Q

Why do men have a lower pitch?

A

Their vocal folds are thicker and longer and so vibrate slower and produce a lower pitch

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38
Q

How do you increase volume of sound?

A

by pushing air harder through the folds.

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39
Q

How is speech created?

A

by using the pharynx, mouth, nasal cavity and sinuses to resonate sound

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40
Q

What forms words?

A

the tongue and mouth

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41
Q

What is the mechanism of whispering?

A

forcing air through an almost closed rima glottidis which causes no vibration and so no pitch

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42
Q

Where is the trachea located?

A

from the larynx to T5, anterior to the esophagus

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43
Q

What makes up the trachea?

A

smooth muscle, c-chaped rings of cartilage and pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells

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44
Q

What is the submucosa in the trachea?

A

loose connective tissue and seromucous glands

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45
Q

What purpose does the trachealis muscle and the CT serve?

A

they provide support and maintain patency so the tracheal wall does not collapse inward

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46
Q

What is adventita?

A

composed of loose connective tissue that binds the trachea to other tissues

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47
Q

What is significant about the carina?

A

widening or distortion usually indicates a carcinoma of the lymph nodes around the region where the trachea divides

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48
Q

How many pleural membranes are there?

A

2; the parietal pleura and the visceral pleura

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49
Q

Where is the parietal pleura?

A

on the thoracic wall and superior face of diaphragm

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50
Q

Where is the visceral pleura?

A

on the the external cavity

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51
Q

What is the purpose of pleural fluid and where is it?

A

to provide lubrication and surface tension and is located in the pleural cavity

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52
Q

What are the names of the different regions of the parietal pleura?

A
  • costal pleura
  • diaphragmatic
  • mediastinal
  • cervical
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53
Q

What is an open pneumothorax?

A

occurs when air enters through pleural cavity following a penetrating wound

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54
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

occurs when a piece of tissue covers and become a flap over the wound into the thorax

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55
Q

What is a pleural reflection?

A

occurs when pleura abruptly changes direction from one wall to another.

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56
Q

What is the significance of a pleural reflection?

A

fluid can accumulate in these recesses

57
Q

Where is the cardiac notch?

A

on the left lung

58
Q

What are the differences between the left and right lung?

A

the right lung has three lobes separated by two fissures. the left lung has two lobes separated by one fissure and the cardiac notch.

59
Q

Which lung is smaller and why?

A

left lung is 10% smaller due to the heart

60
Q

What lung is shorter and why?

A

the right lung is shorter due to the liver pushing up on the diaphragm.

61
Q

What structures lie within the mediastinum?

A

heart, thymus, esophagus, trachea, large blood vessels

62
Q

What does the bronchial tree consist of?

A

the trachea; primary, secondary, and tertiary bronchi; bronchioles; terminal brochioles

63
Q

The right primary bronchus divides into…

A

3 secondary (lobar) bronchi

64
Q

the left primary bronchus divides into…

A

2 secondary (lobar) bronchi

65
Q

What lung is more likely to have an aspired object in it and why?

A

The right lung because it is more vertical, shorter and wider than the left.

66
Q

How many tertiary bronchi are in each lung?

A

10

67
Q

what is a brochopulmonary segment?

A

a triangular shaped unit of the lungs supplied by the tertiary bronchus

68
Q

What type of cells are respiratory bronchioles lined with?

A

simple squamous epithelium

69
Q

True of False: epithelium changes from pseudostratified ciliated columnar to nonciliated simple cuboidal as it goes deeper into the lungs.

A

True

70
Q

What do the sympathetic nervous system and the adrenal glands have to do with the bronchial tree?

A

They release epinephrine that relaxes smooth muscles and dilates the airway

71
Q

How many alveoli are in each sac?

A

2 or more

72
Q

What are type I alveolar cells?

A

squamous pulmonary epithelial

73
Q

What are type II alveolar cells?

A

septal

74
Q

What are alveolar macrophages?

A

dust cells

75
Q

what happens at the type I alveolar cells?

A

gas exchange occurs

76
Q

What do type II alveolar cells do?

A

secrete alveolar fluid called surfactant

77
Q

What does surfactant do?

A

lowers the surface tension of alveolar fluid, preventing the collapse of alveoli with each expiration

78
Q

What are the layers of membrane that must be crossed during gas exchange in the alveolar-capillary membrane?

A
  • alveolar epithelial wall of type I cells
  • alveolar epithelial basement membrane
  • capillary basement membrane
  • endothelial cells of capillary
79
Q

How thick is the respiratory membrane?

A

1/2 (half) microns thick

80
Q

How much blood can participate in gas exchange at once?

A

900 ml of blood can participate in gas exchange at once

81
Q

What is nebulization?

A

a procedure for administering medication as small droplets suspended in air into the respiratory tract.

82
Q

What do asthma attacks or allergic reactions do in the respiratory system?

A

constrict distal bronchiole smooth muscles

83
Q

What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?

A

In the lungs vascoconstriction in response to hypoxia diverts pulmonayr blood from poorly ventilated areas to well ventilated areas.

84
Q

What factors affect pulmonary ventilation?

A

alveolar surface tension, compliance of the lungs, airway resistance.

85
Q

Define eupnea?

A

normal variation in breathing rate and depth

86
Q

Define apnea

A

refers to breath holding

87
Q

Define dyspnea

A

relates to painful or difficult breathing

88
Q

Define tachypnea

A

involves rapid breathing rate

89
Q

What is coughing?

A

deep inspiration, closure of rima glottidis and strong expiration blasts air out to clear respiratory passages

90
Q

What is hiccuping?

A

spasmodic contraction of diaphragm and quick closure of rima glottidis produce sharp inspiratory sound

91
Q

In clinical practice, respiration (ventilation) = ___ inspiration and _____ expiration.

A

one inspiration and one expiration

92
Q

In a healthy adult, 12 respiratiions/min = ____ litres ___ ___ _____ of lungs while ___ ______.

A

6; in and out; at rest

93
Q

What is anatomical dead space?

A

aka respiratory dead space

-the conducting airways with air that does not undergo respiratory exchange.

94
Q

Define tidal volume

A

the volume of one breath

95
Q

In the average adult how much of the tidal volume reaches the alveoli?

A

70% or 350ml. the other 30% (150 ml) remains in the anatomic dead space

96
Q

Define reserve volumes.

A

amount you can breathe either in or out above that amount of tidal volume

97
Q

Define inspiratory reserve.

A

(3100 ml) amount of air taken in during a deep breath, above tidal volume

98
Q

Define expiratory reserve.

A

(1200 ml) amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal inhale

99
Q

Define residual volume

A

(1200 ml) air permanently trapped in system/cannot be measured by spirometry

100
Q

Define minimal volume

A

amount of air that remains in lungs after some residual volume is forced out when thoracic cavity is opened

101
Q

Define alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

A

(4200 ml/min) volume of air/min that reaches the alveoli

102
Q

Define FEV1

A

(forced expiratory volume in 1 second) amount of air forcibly expired in 1 sec with maximal effort following maximal inhalation

103
Q

Define minute volume of respiration (MVR)

A

the total volume of air taken in during on minute (tidal volume x 12 respirations per minute = 6000 ml/min)

104
Q

How does height, gender and age of a person affect lung volumes?

A
  • larger volume - taller, younger and male

- smaller - female, shorter, elderly

105
Q

What respiratory system structures are in the anatomical dead space?

A

nose pharynx, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles

106
Q

Define inspiratory capacity

A

(3600 ml) tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume; total inspiratory volume of lungs

107
Q

Define functional residual capacity

A

(2400 ml) residual volume + expiratory reserve volume

108
Q

Define vital capacity

A

(4800 ml) inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume

109
Q

Define total lung capacity

A

(6000 ml) sum of all volumes

110
Q

What are obstructive patterns?

A

a disease that is characterized by increase in airway resistance that is measured as a decrease in expiratory flow rates
ie. chronic bronchitis and emphysema

111
Q

What are restrictive patterns?

A

a disease that is characterized by increase in elastic recoil, a decrease in lung compliance which is measured as a decrease in all lung volumes.

112
Q

What is Dalton’s law?

A

each gas in a mixture of gases exerts its own pressure as if all the other gases were not present.

113
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

the quantity of a gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas and its solubility coefficient (its physical or chemical attraction for water), when the temperature remains constant.

114
Q

What is the partial pressure of a gas?

A

the pressure exerted by that gas in a mixture of gases

115
Q

How much O2 enters the cells at rest?

A

25%

116
Q

What are the percentages of oxygen and nitrogen in the air at sea level?

A

O=21%

N=78%

117
Q

True or False: The higher the partial pressure of a gas the more it will dissolve in a liquid.

A

True

118
Q

What does the rate of diffusion of gases in the lungs depend on?

A
  1. partial pressure of gases in air
  2. large surface area of our alveoli
  3. diffusion distance (membrane thickness)
  4. solubility and molecular wight of gases
119
Q

Why does oxygen diffuse faster?

A

it is a smaller molecule and has a smaller molecular weight

120
Q

How much O2 is in 100 ml of oxygenated blood?

A

20ml

121
Q

When is a hemoglobin fully saturated?

A

When all 4 atoms of iron in a hemoglobin carry one oxygen molecule.

122
Q

How much of the O2 is dissolved in the plasma?

A

1.5% (.3 ml)

123
Q

How much of the O2 is carried with hemoglobin?

A

98.5% (19.7ml)

124
Q

What is the hemogloblin called once it has picked up the O2?

A

oxyhemoglobin (HbO2)

125
Q

When is a hemoglobin partially saturated?

A

When it only has 1-3 molecules of O2 attached.

126
Q

What is the most important factor that determines how much oxygen combines with hemoglobin?

A

the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2)

127
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

having more RBCs than you should

128
Q

True of False: Hemoglobin is 100% saturated with O2 and pO2 of 40mmHg.

A

False. Hemoglobin is only 75% saturated with O2 at a partial pressure of 40mmHg because only 25% of available O2 unloads from hemoglobin and is used by the tissues.

129
Q

True of False: The greater the partial pressure of O2, the more oxygen will combine with hemoglobin.

A

True. it will combine with hemoglobin until the Hb is saturated.

130
Q

What factors influence the affinity of O2 to Hb?

A
  1. Acidity (level of pH)
  2. partial pressure of carbon dioxide
  3. temperature
  4. BPG (2, 3 phosphoglycerate)
131
Q

How does an increase in temperature affect the affinity of O2 to Hb?

A

an increase of temperature, due to things like exercise, increases the amount of CO2 and lactic acid in the body (byproducts of energy consumption/creation in the cells) which in turn increases the acidity levels in the body.

132
Q

How does a low acidic (low pH) environment affect the affinity of O2?

A

The O2 will split more readily from Hb; called the Bohr effect.

133
Q

What does a high PCO2 do to the blood pH?

A

creates a low pH (acidic conditions)

134
Q

What does a high level of BPG do to the affinity of oxygen?

A

It causes more oxygen to be released from hemoglobin

135
Q

What does an increase in acidity do to the affinity of O2?

A

it decreases the affinity

136
Q

What happens to CO2 in the body?

A

CO2 converts to carbonic acid and becomes H+ and bicarbonate ions and lowers pH.

137
Q

More H+ does what to the pH?

A

make the pH more acidic

138
Q

More OH- does what to the pH?

A

makes it more basic (alkaline)

139
Q

Why does fetal Hb have a greater affinity for O2 than adult?

A

because fetal Hb is made of 2 alpha chains and 2 gamma chains while adults have 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains. gamma chains have a higher affinity for O2.