Respiratory System Flashcards

1
Q

Oxygen - Hemoglobin Dissociation Curve

PaO2 100-60 - Pulse ox 97-90% - plateau ( reserve of O2)

A

describes the affinity (relationship) of hemoglobin for oxygen ; oxygen delivery to the cell depends upon the amount of oxygen in the blood and the release of the oxygen once it reaches the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Shift to Right

A

Decreased pH - acidosis
Increased CO2, T, 2,3 - DPG ( made by RBC)
!!! Hgb releases O2, decreased affinity ( bond )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Shift to Left

A

Increased pH
Decreased CO2, T
!!! Hgb latches onto O2 ( picks up )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ABGs - determines oxygenation and acid-base balance ; evaluates respiratory, renal and cardiovascular function

A
  1. pH 7.35-7.45
  2. PaO2 80-100
  3. PaCO2 35-45
  4. HCO3 21-28
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Oxygenation

A
  1. Changes with age - lower in infants & after 30 with aging
    PaO2 = 104- (age x 0.27 )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pulse oximetry

A

Amount of O2 contained in Hgb ; > 95 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Positive pressure mechanical ventilation (MV)

A

pushes air into lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MV can be programmed to

A
  1. Assist - pt breathes - set Vt delivered
  2. Control - set Vt + RR
  3. Assist-control - most common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vt - Tidal volume

A

air inhales and exhaled with each breath 0.5 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MV - Assist-control

A

can initiate breathes - Vt delivered ; if pt does not initiate a breath - machine will ( set rate ) Risk !!! - hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SIMV - synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation ( + CPAP )

A

Commonly used for weaning ; when breathing above ventilator - get their own Vt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MV pressure support modes

A
  1. PSV - pressure support ventilation-decrease WOB
  2. PC-IVR - pressure controlled inverse ration ventilation - inspiratory > expiratory time - to expend airways and alveloli ( no normal pattern - sedation )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PEEP and CPAP - maybe used with MV - can cause cardiac output impairment - breathing against the pressure

A
  1. PEEP - positive end expiratory pressure - allows reduction of FlO2 while improving oxygenation - maintains positive pressure in lungs at the end of expiration to keep alveoli open
  2. CPAP - continuous positive airway pressure - breathes on their own ; weaning, sleep apnea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adverse effects of MV - Barotrauma

A

rupture of blebs or alveoli - pneumothorax

Monitor - subcut emphysema ; lung sounds - displacement of tube into right bronchus ; TX anxiety hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Adverse effects of MV - Compromised CO

A

positive pressure increases intrathoracic pressure - decreases venous return to the heart and CO - hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adverse effects of MV - Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

A
  1. decreased CO - decreased blood flow to kidneys - activate renin-angiotensin-aldosteron systme - Fluid retained
  2. Fluid loss - increased RR
    Monitor: I&O, weight, hydration, electrolytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adverse effects of MV - GI complications

A
  1. Stress ulcers - antacids, PPI, histamine blockers

2. Malnutrition - parenteral or enteral nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adverse effects of MV- Infection

A
  1. hand washing
  2. Sterile
  3. secretion mobilization
  4. nutrition, aspiration precautions
  5. frequent oral care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ventilator settings

A
  1. Vt
  2. Rate
  3. FlO2
  4. Sighs - an intermittent inflation of the lungs with a large volume from a mechanical ventilator ( !!! Barotrauma )
  5. PIP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PIP

A

peak airway inspiratory pressure - amount of pressure needed to deliver the Vt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Increased PIP

A
  1. pinched tubing
  2. secretions - suction
  3. PE
  4. decreased pulmonary compliance
  5. bronchospasms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chest tube ( or thoracostomy tube ) placement

A

tube inserted into the space to drain air or fluid

  1. anterior 2nd intercostal - remove air
  2. lateral 5th - fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chest tube - indications

A
  1. Pneumothorax
  2. Hemothorax
  3. Pleural Effusion
  4. Empyema - pus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chest tube - collection system - 3 - below level of the chest - sterility

A
  1. Fluid collection
  2. Water seal - permits air out but no air in ; tidaling - function well
  3. Suction control - setting on the chamber determines suction - not the suction device !!! wet suction - bubbling - works well
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chest tube - complications

A
  1. Bleeding
  2. Infection
  3. Subcut emphysema
  4. Pneumothorax , cardiac tamponade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chest tube - key points

A
  1. Tiding ( bubbling) rising with insp, falling with exp - NOT - blocked or lungs are reexpanded ( clear LS)
  2. CDB - Q1 hr
  3. ROM of the affected side
  4. Pain ; turn and position
  5. Cont. bubbling - air leak
  6. Do not strip, milk, clamp
27
Q

Traumatic chest injuries - Emergency care

A
  1. Airway
  2. O2
  3. IV - large bore
  4. cover sucking wound on 3 sides
  5. stabilize impaled objects - do not remove
  6. Flail chest - place on injured side - prevent movement
  7. Semi-fowlers or uninjured side
28
Q

Pneumothorax - open or closed - S/s - chest tube

A
  1. Chest pain - SHARP , increased with respirations
  2. Absent / decreased breath sounds
  3. Hyperresonace over the area
  4. tachycardia , tachypnea
29
Q

Heimlich valve

A

one way valve to remove air from the pleural space

30
Q

Hemothorax - causes - chest tube or thoracocentesis

A

Trauma, surgery, malignancy, PE, anticoagulation therapy

31
Q

Tension Pneumothorax - Medical emergency - deviation of trachea

A

Mediastinal shift ; impairs CO and venous return

Cuses - pneumothorax; blocked or clamped CT

32
Q

Flail chest - multiple fractured ribs - S/s and TX

A

Paradoxical chest movement - prevent adequate ventilation ; shallow respirations
TX: MV with PEEP is used to stabilize

33
Q

ARDS - acute respiratory distress syndrome S/s

A
  1. Hypoxemia - unresponsive to O2 therapy
  2. PE - Increased RR - respiratory alkalosis ( decreased O2; increased WOB)
  3. Initial CXR - normal or patchy infiltrates
  4. Later CXR - diffuse consolidation - “white-out” or “ground glass”
  5. Pulmonary hypertension may occur
34
Q

ARDS - causes - main trigger - systemic inflammatory response

A
  1. Sepsis
  2. Massive trauma
  3. Pneumonia
  4. O2 toxicity
  5. Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome
  6. Pancreatitis
35
Q

ARDS - pathophisiology

A

Systemic inflammatory response - injury to alveolar-capillary membrane & release of chemical and cellular mediators - leaking fluid in alveolar interstinal spaces - surfactant and alveolar dysfunction - decrease lung compliance - refractory hypoxemia - VQ mismatch - alveoli receive blood but cannot oxygenate it - increasing shunt

36
Q

ARDS - TX

A
  1. Corticosteroids - anti inflammatory; can decrease immune system
  2. Antibiotics - prevent infection
  3. Colloids - to restore osmotic pressure in vasculature - to suck fluid out of lungs back to vasculature
  4. Proning - face down ( on stomach ) - Increase oxygenation; decrease atelectasis
37
Q

Oxygen toxicity - high flow rates for extended periods - > 60 % for more than 24-48 hrs

A
  1. Cough
  2. Hypoxia
  3. Pulmonary edema
38
Q

Shunting - extreme VQ mismatch

A
  1. Anatomic ( septal defect)

2. Intrapulmonary -blood flows through pulmonary capillaries without participating in gas exchange

39
Q

Trach cuffs used for patients

A
  1. Risk of aspiration
  2. Mechanical ventilation
    Complications : overinflated - occlude airway; pressure on inominate artery - rupture
40
Q

Fenestrated Trach

A

one or more holes in the outer cannula. The holes allow air to pass from your lungs up through your vocal cords and out through your mouth and nose - can talk

41
Q

Cancer of the Larynx - Risk factors

A
  1. Smoking - chewing
  2. Alcohol
  3. Over 50
  4. Male
42
Q

Cancer of the Larynx - S/s

A
  1. Hoarseness/ voice change
  2. Lump in throat or neck
  3. Oral lesions - leukoplakia or erythroplakia
  4. Dysphagia - swallowing
  5. Persistent or recurring sore throat
  6. Late - anorexia, weight loss, SOB
43
Q

Cancer of the Larynx DX

A
  1. Swallow test - barium
  2. Laryngoscopy & bronchoscopy - biopsy
  3. ST, MRI, CAT scan
  4. PET scan - metabolic activity
  5. Blood tests - anemia ( alcoholic - poor nutrition - folic acid or iron deficiency
44
Q

Cancer of the Larynx - SX

A
  1. Laser sx - laryngoscopy, small tumors
  2. Cordectomy
  3. Hemilaryngectomy
  4. Supraglottic Laryngectomy
  5. Total Laryngectomy
  6. Radical neck dissection
45
Q

Cordectomy

A

partial removal of vocal cords ; in-situ lesions ; retain voice - hoarseness

46
Q

Hemilaryngectomy

A

removal of one true and one false vocal cord ; temporary trach ; changed but understandable voice

47
Q

Supraglottic Laryngectomy

A

removes the false vocal cords and epiglottis ( aspiration !!! ) ; temp. trach; changed but understandable voice

48
Q

Total Laryngectomy - Aspiration is not a concern !!! - uncuffed trach

A

removes the vocal cords ; changed airflow pattern ; permanent trach (or laryngectomy tube ) ; no voice - no air is going via mouth and nose

49
Q

Radical neck dissection

A

wide excision of lymph nodes and associated neck structures - muscles, mandible, glands, …

50
Q

Cancer of the Larynx - Voice Rehabilitation

A
  1. Esophageal Speech - burping of air
  2. Electronic larynx
  3. Tracheoesophageal voice prosthesis
51
Q

Tracheoesophageal voice prosthesis

A
  1. Electronic larynx - placed against the neck or a tube into the mouth - mechanical sound is produced
  2. Blom-Singer voice prosthesis or Panje voice button - inserted into a created fistula between esophagus and the trachea - stoma must be blocked with the finger to speak
52
Q

Cancer of the Larynx - prevent aspiration ( supraglottic laryngectomy )

A

*Thicken liquids ( avoid thin liquids and water )
Chin tuck when swallowing
Avoid straws
Trach cuff inflating - check
Supraglottic swallow - Take a breath and hold it - take a small bite - swallow - cough - swallow - do not breath in until completed

53
Q

Pulmonary hypertension

A
  1. Primary ( women ; Fen-Phen - diet drug ) > 25 mmHg ( absence of cause ) - no cure -lung transplant - Prostacyclin (IV)
  2. Secondary - due to respiratory or cardiac condition - TX underlying disorder
54
Q

Lung cancer

A
  1. NSCLC - Squamous, Adenocarcinoma ( not associated with smoking ) , Large cell
  2. SCLC - poor prognosis !! Smoking !!!
55
Q

Lung cancer S/s - late and nonspecific

A
  1. Cough
  2. Hemoptysis
  3. Chest pain
  4. Dyspnea
  5. Weight loss
56
Q

Lung cancer - SX

  1. Wedge - chest tube
  2. Segmental
  3. Lobectomy - common
  4. Pneumonectomy - no chest tube
A
  1. small area of lung
  2. partial lobe
  3. one lobe of lung
  4. entire lung - space fills with fluid which later semisoldifies - Do not lay on unaffected side - pressure on the heart
57
Q

Lung abscess

A
  1. pus in the lung - cavity forms
  2. caused by aspiration, infectious organism - bacterial, TB
  3. S/s - cough with purulent, malodorous sputum
  4. TX: antibiotics for a prolonged period
58
Q

Empyema

A
  1. pleural effusion containing pus ;

2. associated with TB, pneumonia, lung abscess infection of wounds ;

59
Q

Pleural Effusion - symptom not a disease

A
  1. collection of fluid in the pleural space
  2. related to malignant process, CHF, infection
  3. TX: thoracentesis - treat underlying condition
60
Q

ERV and IRV

A

expiratory reserve volume - air exhaled after normal exhalation 1.0 L
inspiratory - inhaled 3.0 L

61
Q

RV

A

residual volume - air remaining in lungs after maximal expiration - 1.5 L

62
Q

VQ scan ( radioactive ) - Dx of PE ( embolus ) - no injected material reaches …mismatch of inhaled and injected compounds on the lung scan images

A

Lung perfusion scan + inhalation (ventilation) scan

63
Q

PET scan - nursing care

A

Positron Emission Tomography

  1. Avoid caffeine, alcohol, and tobacco for 24 hrs pretest
  2. Drugs that alter glucose metabolism - may alter test
  3. Eat 4 hrs before test
  4. Fluids 24-48 hrs post test