Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Cranial Nerves - 12

A

I. Olfactory II. Optic III. Oculomotor IV. Trochlear V. Trigeminal VI. Abducens VII. Facial VIII. Acoustic IX. Glossopharyngeal X. Vagus XI. Spinal Accessory XII. Hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypoglossal CN

A

XII - tongue movement - motor ; stick out tongue; weakness ? - tongue goes to stronger side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Spinal accessory

A

sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscle control - neck strength and shoulder shrug (against resistance) - motor ;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Glossopharyngeal + Vagus

A

gag, swallow, and cough reflexes; voice quality; vagal parasympathetic response - both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acoustic

A

hearing and balance - sensory ; test by whispering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Facial CN

A

VII - anterior taste buds + facial muscles - both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Trigeminal

A

motor function of temporal and jaw muscles ; sensory on face - both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Oculomotor + Tronchlear + Abducens

A

ocular muscle movement - motor - PEARLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Optic

A

visual acuity - sensory ; Snellen chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Olfactory

A

smell - sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CNS consists of …

A
  1. Brain - cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem 2. Spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

PNS consists of …

A
  1. 31 pairs of spinal nerves 2. 12 pairs of cranial 3. Autonomic NS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Autonomic NS consists of …

A
  1. Sympathetic NS - speeds ; anticholinergic 2. Parasympathetic NS - slows; cholinergic - responsible for involuntary movement of smooth muscles present in GI tract, urinary tract and lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Flexed arms, extended legs, plantar flexion, internal rotation of limbs and feet - “toward the cord” - affecting cortical area of brain

A

Decorticate posturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Extended arms and legs, plantar flexion, external rotations of limbs and feet; dysfunction in the brainstem area

A

Decerebrate posturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

No motor function or response

A

Flaccid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

White fiber tracts that connect the neurons in the brain and spinal cord ; only one … attached to each neuron ( can extend down the entire spinal cord)

A

Axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A white, lipid covering many axons; white matter; … axons have gaps called nodes of Ranvier - play a major role in impulse conduction

A

Myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Autoimmune disease; characterized by inflammatory response that results in diffuse random or patchy areas of plaque in the white matter of the CNS - myelin sheath is damaged (demyelinated) - impulses still transmitted but not as effective; over time can become completely blocked.

A

Multiple Sclerosis - pathophysiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MS: Classification

A
  1. Benign MS - 1-2 attacks - complete recovery 2. Relapsing Remitting MS - most common - relapses with partial or full recovery - no progression between attacks 3. Secondary Progressive MS - follows RRMS in 50 % - progressive disability 4. Primary Progressive MS - steady slow progression ; uncommon; little tx available 5. Progressive Relapsing MS - progressive + flare ups ; rare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MS: 1.axons of the nerve remains intact - … 2. both myelin and axon are destroyed - …

A
  1. Pt. will regain all function and sensation during remission 2. Permanent loss of motor and sensory function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MS: Etiology

A
  1. Autoimmune - following stress 2. Viral 3. Familial tendency 4. Cold climates 5. Females - 15-50 (20-40)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MS: S/s

A
  1. Visual disturbances 2. Internuclear opthalmoplegia - abducting eye ( to the side) - nystagmus 3. Sensory sensations - tingling, numbness… 4. Unusual clumsiness, extremity weakness, leg dragging … 5. All symptoms intensified by hyperthermia 6. Lhermitte’s sign - flex neck - electrical sensation - down the back - into legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MS: Visual problems

A
  1. Nystagmus - involuntary rapid eye movement 2. Diplopia - double vision 3. Blurry vision 4. Scotoma - patchy blindness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MS: TX - medications

A
  1. Corticosteroids - exacerbation 2. Immunomodulators - for life to slow or stop 3. immunosuppresant agent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Immunosuppresant agent; tx of MS; anticancer; lifetime limit of 8-12 doses - or cardiac damage occurs; shuts down part of immune system causing MS.

A

Mitoxantrone hydrochloride ( Novantrone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Avonex 2. Betaseron 3. Copaxone
A

Immunomodulators - tx of relapsing-remitting MS ; remission therapy

  1. drug of choice; IM/weekly
  2. sub-q daily or 3x’s weekly SE: flue like S/s - decrease in 3 mo; nightmares
  3. acts like decoy; subcut/daily ; SE: skin decubiti; chest pain (like MI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

A

Cholinergic agent - parasympathomimetic ; MS: treat flaccid bladder; neurologic bladder (incontinence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Oxybutynin Chloride (Ditropan)

A

Anticholinergic (cholinergic blocker; parasympathetic depressant) - tx spastic bladder - MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Baclofen 2. Flexeril 3. Robaxin 4. Zanaflex
A

CNS depressant; sympathetic depressant; treat muscle spasticity + spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dandrolene (Dantrium)

A

CNS direct acting (peripheral) - treat muscle spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Decubiti

A

pressure sore or bed sore - A pressure-induced ulceration of the skin occurring in persons confined to bed for long periods of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Decadrone (Dexamethasone) 2. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Reticular activating system

A

special cells throughout the brainstem - control awareness + alertness ; the reticular formation are has many connections with the cerebrum, the rest of the brainstem and the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Caloric test

A

ice/warm water is forced into ear canal - eyes rotate to opposite/same side of head (Nystagmus) ; performed to evaluate the vestibular (inner ear) portion of auditory nerve ; helps to determine brain death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Obtunded

A

awakes only momentarily; confused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Persistent Vegetative State

A

awake, but unaware of surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Locked-in syndrome

A

due to brain stem damage - awake and alert , but unable to move or respond, except by blinking eyes; death due to respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Light vs deep coma

A

unresponsive, except to painful stimuli vs unresponsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Brain stem consists of

A

Midbrain Pons Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

connects brain stem and cerebrum

A

Midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

bridges the two halves of the cerebellum to the medulla and cerebrum

A

Pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

site of reflex centers for many vital functions, i.e.: • respiratory • cardiac • vasomotor

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The NS is composed of two types of cells

A
  1. Neurons 2. Neuroglial cells - support, nourishment, and protection for neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Neuroglial cells - types

A
  1. Astrocytes 2. Oligodendroglia 3. Ependymal cells 4. Microglia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A tumor that arises from cells that comprise the supporting tissue of the nervous system; Malignant !!!

A

Gliomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pituitary adenoma types : Benign !!!

A
  1. Prolacting secreting - Galacterhea (milk production)
  2. ACTH secreting - Cushings syndrome (increase in corticosteroids)
  3. Growth hormone secreting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

controls the hormones released by the adrenal gland that support blood pressure, metabolism, and the body’s response to stress

A

Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Transphenoidal micro surgical approach

A

through the nasal passage, going along the septum - then through the sphenoid sinus cavity located deep above the back of the throat to the pituitary gland immediately behind it; tx of pituitary adenoma; Mustache dressing - nose is packed - prevent sneezing ( increase ICP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Tumor of the 8th CN, can grow quite large; always benign; S/s - vertigo + ringing in the ears (tinnitus) + staggering gait

A

Acoustic neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Tumor - mass of blood vessels usually congenital ; risk for hemorrhagic stroke; benign

A

Angioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Benign, highly vascular tumors which originate in the meningeal layer

A

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Infratentorial tumor - craniotomy - positioning ; + cervical fx

A

Bed flat with small pillow for pt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hydrocephalus - increased CSF related to obstraction of the flow of CSF or displacement of the lateral ventricles by the expending lesions - increased ICP - S/s and TX

A

S/s : 1. gait disturbance 2. incontinence 3. confusion

TX: Ventriculoperitoneal or ventricular jugular shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Halo sign

A

red stain of blood surrounded with yellow “halo” stain, which is CSF. Need to test with a glucose strip to ensure this is what stain is showing - then call doctor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

S/s of increased ICP

A
  1. Headache 2. Deteriorating LOC 3. Restlessness 4. Irritability 5. Dilated or pinpoint pupils that are slow to react or nonreactive to light
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

DI - diabetes insipidus

A

failure of posterior pituitary gland to release ADH - failure of renal tubules to reabsorb water - urine output is increased (polyuria) - dehydration ( polydipsia) , hypovolemic shock ; Hypernatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Vasopressin (Pitressin) - IV

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) - IV or nasal spray

A

antidiuretic hormone; tx of diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

SIADH

A

syndrome of inappropriate ADH - posterior pituitary gland releases too much ADH - water retention - loss of thirst, weight gain, muscle weakness, decreased LOC; Hyponatremia (dilutional)

60
Q
  1. Epidural - between skull and dura - least invasive - least accurate
  2. Subarachnoid screw - CSF flows - small sample - cannot drain CSF
  3. Intraventricular - most invasive - most accurate (transducer) - can drain CSF if ICP is elevated
A

ICP monitoring devices

61
Q
  1. Brudzinski’s sign 2. Kernig’s sign
A
  1. Severe neck stiffness causes a patient’s hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed. 2. Severe stiffness of the hamstrings causes an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees.
62
Q

The spinal cord is composed of 31 pairs of spinal nerves:

A

• 8 cervical • 12 thoracic • 5 lumbar • 5 sacral • 1 coccygeal

63
Q

Dorsal root

A

Posterior. Contains the sensory portion; afferent in nature (from the body inward to the cord). Part of the body picks up a sensory stimulus which travels ↑ cord to the brain.

64
Q

Ventral root

A

Anterior. Is efferent in nature. Impulses travel outward from the brain ↓ cord → body. Contains the motor portion.

65
Q

UMN lesions

A
  1. Loss of voluntary movements;
  2. Tense muscles - increased tone
  3. Spastic muscles
  4. Hyperactive reflexes
66
Q

LMN lesions

A
  1. Loss of voluntary movements
  2. Decreased muscle tone
  3. Muscle atrophy
  4. Absent or dimished reflexes
67
Q

Autoimmune disease; loss of motor neurons in the anterior (ventral) horns of the spinal cord + motor nuclei of the lower brain stem - muscle atrophy - both upper and lower motor neurons ; death due to respiratory failure; bowel and bladder are not affected - pt remains continent

A

Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) - Lou Gehrig’s Disease

68
Q

Riluzole (Rilutek)

A

tx of ALS - slows progression of the disease

69
Q

Brain injury; Jarring of the brain-possibly microscopic hemorrhages; closed injury; mild; up to 5 min ( neurological s/s) to 48 hours (headache + N/V); tx: unconscious 5 min - hospital for observation.

A

Concussion

70
Q

Brain injury; brain is bruised; loss of consciousness > 24 hrs; 60 % behavioral changes; may recover completely.

A

Contusion

71
Q

Skull fractures types

A
  1. Open - depressed ( corrective sx) & non-depressed; basilar 2. Closed - coup/ contre coup
72
Q

Open skull fracture - Basilar

A

base of the skull; CSF leakage; motorcycle accidents; swelling may affect brain stem; Battles sign

73
Q

Battles sign

A

a palpable bogginess of the area behind the ear that may indicate a fracture of a bone of the lower skull; basilar skull fracture

74
Q

Intracranial hemorrhages

A
  1. Epidural 2. Subdural 3. Subarachnoid - due to blunt trauma, aneurysm 4. Intracerebral
75
Q

Bleeding between the inner skull and the dura; compression of surrounding tissue; due to head trauma; EMERGENCY- bleeding from meningeal artery; loss consciousness - lucid - changes in MS - coma - death; tx: burr hole opening to evacuate blood + repair the artery

A

Epidural hemorrhage

76
Q

Bleeding between dural membrane and arachnoid membrane; venous in origin - s/s develop more slowly; 48 hrs-2 weeks; tx: surgical burr hole;

A

Subdural hemorrhage

77
Q

Bleeding withing the brain tissue; due to head injury, hypertension, diseases that reduce platelets (ITP, leukemia); nothing can be done; < 5-10 ml - may be reabsorbed without consequences

A

Intracerebral bleed

78
Q

The wall of a cerebral artery or vein weakens, dilates and forms a sac - ruptured - subarachnoid bleed ; common - Berry aneurysm ( Circle of Willis); - after rupture - cerebral vasospasm + increase in ICP; dx: cerebral angiography

A

Cerebral aneurysm

79
Q

Osmotic diuretic - pulling fluid from brain tissue into vasculature ; used to tx increased ICP ; most effective given IV boluses ( filter needle) ; + Lasix ( to help to pee it out) ; Monitor: I&O, serum electrolytes + serum osmolarity; Assess increase in urinary output and decrease in ICP

A

Mannitol

80
Q

An infection by bacteria that have origin in another part of body (sinus, ear or teeth); tx: antibiotics; dx: CSF positive for bacteria (strep or staph) ; CT - abnormal tissue density; EEG: abnormal.

A

Brain abscess

81
Q

An inflammation of the brain tissue with no purulent exudate; caused by mosquitoes (west nile); ticks; vaccines; Tx; supportive; antiviral meds; dx: WBC elevated (lymphocytes)

A

Encephalitis

82
Q

An acute infection of the meninges - arachnoid and pia mater; types: bacterial, viral ( after chickenpox, mumps) and fungul (AIDS pts)

A

Meningitis

83
Q

Most dangerous, contagious and deadly type of meningitis ???

A

Meningococcal ( Neisseria) - spreads by secretions; often presents with rash and petechiae - often kills within hours of onset

84
Q
  1. Ergotamine + Caffeine (Cafergot) 2. Ergotamine tartate (Ergostat) 3. Dihydroergotamine mesylate (Migranal) 4. Methysergite maleate (Sansert)
A

Ergotamines - tx migraines - activating serotonin receptors - vasoconstriction - abortive therapy

85
Q

Triptans

A

Abortive therapy - migraines - activating serotonin receptors - vasoconstriction ; SE: actual or suspected cardiovascular diseases - risk for coronary vasospasm ; Use contraception; Don’t take with SSRI and St. John’s wort (tx of depression) SE: flushing, tingling, hot sensations.

86
Q

Autoimmune response to a viral infection or vaccines; T cells attack and destroy myelin of the PNS (Schwann cells); initial 2 we; plateau 2 we; recovery 2 ye; Complication - loss of respiratory function

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

87
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

facial paralysis; VII CN - facial ; rapid onset; lasts 3-5 weeks; Inflammation causes pressure on the nerve which is in a snug channel; S/s - like stroke - one side of the face is paralyzed; tx: steroids; pain meds; eye care ( manually close); facial exercise and massage

88
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

motor function of temporal and jaw muscles ; sensory on face - both ; pain provoked by movement and stimulation : brushing teeth, chewing, washing face; due to inflammation? or pressure on the nerve ? tx: seizures meds: blood levels drawn for therapeutic range.

89
Q

Glascow Coma Scale

A
90
Q

Sympathetic NS vs Parasympathetic NS

A
91
Q

Changes in vital signs ( low BP & HR) due to impaired communication between upper and lower motor neurons; - impaired sympathetic NS activity - massive vasodialation (low BP) - unoposed parasympathetic NS (low HR) - Emergency - low BP - low perfusion to injured cord - no O2 - edema & ischemia increase ;

A

Neurogenic shock - complication of spinal cord injuries

92
Q

Neurogenic shock - TX

A
  1. Volume expanders ( Dextran )
  2. Dopamine - to vasoconstrict
  3. Elevate legs , sequentials , abdominal binder
93
Q

Unconscious pt must never be placed on their …

A

backs - danger of aspiration !!!

94
Q

Interventional neurosurgery - repairing aneurysms - coil or glue procedure - Post op care

A
  1. Keep pt on his back with HOB at or below 30 degrees
  2. Keep affected leg straight (femoral arterial sheath) - 6 hrs after sheath is removed
  3. Pain meds
  4. Monitor site for bleeding or hematoma - 5 Ps
  5. Assess neurological status
  6. Urine output
  7. Check BS - if pt is on Decadron (steroid)
  8. Coil - heparin post op; aspirin for life
  9. Glue - MAP < 90 - antihypertensives
95
Q

Demyelination of the peripheral nerves ( they regenerate ) - ascending paralysis ( lower limbs before upper) - muscle weakness + paralysis; causes unknown - post viral ? vaccination ?; Pt. can recover fully ( 1 year) or have long standing neurological deficits

A

Guillain - Barre Syndrome

96
Q

Plasmaphoresis and Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

removes circulating antibodies thought to be responsible for the disease - plasma is selectively separated from whole blood - blood cells returned to the pt without the plasma - plasma replaces itself or albumin (colloid) is given ; should be done within several days after the onset of the illness

97
Q

Plasmapheresis - Complications + Nursing Interventions

A
98
Q

Disease that affects the trigeminal - V CN; - sensory branch to face and scalp ; Main issue - Pain; TX: Antiseizure meds (Neurontin) - tx nerve pain.

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

99
Q

Acute paralysis of CN VII but may also affect CN V ; motor part - Ptosis ( drooping) - can’t close the eye completely - risk for corneal abrasion or dry eye - lybricate patch at night ; sensory part - Pain ; Usually recover within a few weeks

A

Bell’s Palsy - Facial paralysis

100
Q

Migranes - Preventive medications - 2 migranes / week

A
  1. Beta-blockers - Inderal
  2. Tricyclic antidepressants - Elavil & Tofranil
  3. Antiseizure - Depakote, Neurontin
  4. Ergotamines - Migranal
101
Q

Migranes - Abortive medications

A
  1. Acetaminophen / NSAIDs; Excedrin ( acetam. + aspirin + caffeine )
  2. Ergotamines - Cafergot
  3. Triptans - Imitrex
102
Q

Ergotamines + Triptans - !!! Caution

A

Vasoconstrict - use with caution in pts with hx of CAD, angina, PVD

103
Q

Autoimmune disorder causing a decrease in the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the neuromascular synaptic junction ; mainly affects face and eyes (muscles intervated by the cranial nerves)- drooping, difficulty chewing; dysphasia; dysarthria; weakness; trouble with secretions ; affects skeletal and respiratory muscles as well.

A

Myasthenia Gravis

104
Q

Anticholinesterase medication - cholinesterase (enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine) inhibitors

A

TX of Myasthenia Gravis - Mestinon + Prostigmin - every 4-6 hrs; PO; 45-60 min before meals

105
Q

Mestinon + Prostigmin - SE

A

Cholinesterase inhibbitors - diarrhea, cramping, increased salivation - until body adjust

106
Q

Myasthenia Gravis - DX

A
  1. Blood test - acetylcholine receptor antibody ( not positive in every pt)
  2. Tensilon test - give drug to increase acetylcholine (short life) - within a minute - improvement in S/s

COMPLICATION - PNS - bradycardia ( Atropin )

107
Q

Myasthenic crisis vs cholinergic crisis

A

Meds not on time ; throwing up due to illness or infection vs too much meds

108
Q

Medications that should be avoided with myasthenia gravis

A
  1. Morphine
  2. Curare
  3. Quinine (antimalarial)
  4. Quinidine + Procainamide -Antiarrhythmic drugs
  5. Mycin-type antibiotics
  6. Drugs containing magnesium
109
Q

MS - DX

A
  1. MRI - can see plaques - intefere with impulse to the muscle
  2. LP - SCF - immunoglobulins (IgG)
  3. Evoked potential studies - auditory, visual
110
Q

Multiple Sclerosis - exacerbation/ acute phase tx

A
  1. Steroids - big doses - Solu-Medrol
  2. ACTH ( hormone from pituitary gland - adrenal cortex - increase secretion of corticosteroids )
111
Q

Priority nursing diagnosis for patient with spinal cord injuries at C 5 or higher

A
  1. Ineffective Airway Clearence
  2. Ineffective Breathing Pattern
  3. Impaired Gas Exchange

Closely monitor the pt for pneumonia, PE, atelectasis - this problems decrease life expectancy of SCI patients - leading cause of death

112
Q

Decadron + Solu-Medrol - use and SE

A

High doses steroids are given asap after spinal cord injury to reduce edema ; IV; SE: Infection, elevated serum glucose, stress ulcers ; low K.

113
Q

Intervertabral disc herniation and degenerative disk disease - most common regions ?

A

Lumbur (5) - legs + Cervical (7) - shoulders and arms

114
Q

Intervertebral disk herniation + degenerative disc disease - non-surgical management

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Medrol Dosepak - steroid
  3. Muscle relaxants - Robaxin + Flexeril - may help control severe muscle spasticity (UMN injuries) ; spasms

SE: severe drowsiness + sedation

115
Q

Sciatic Pain

A

pain, weakness, numbness or tingling in the leg - herniated disk - lumbar region (5)

116
Q

Microdiskectomy

A

Involves microscopic surgery directly through 1-inch incision ; endoscope - remove herniated disk - relieve pressure ; 24 hrs - in and out

117
Q

Removal of part of laminae and facet joints to obtain access to the disk space ; when repeated laminectomies are performed or if the spine is unstable - spinal fusion is performed to stabilize affected area ; chips of bone are removed (from iliac crest) or obtained from donor bone and are grafted between vertebrae for support and to strenghten the back - metal implants (titanium pins, screws, plates or rods) may be used to ensure the fusion of the spine

A

Laminectomy

118
Q

Laminectomy - post op - correct turning - log rolling

A

Every 2 hours from side to back and vice versa ; pt turns as a unit while his or her back is kept as strainght as possible

119
Q

Anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion - cervical corpectomy

A

The priority of care is maintaining airway - swelling from surgery can narrow the trachea causing a partial obstruction

No lifting

No driving until physician permission

No strenuous activities

Walk every day

Wear brace or collar per surgeons prescription

120
Q

S/s of spinal tumor - depends on location (thoracic 12 - most common)

A
  1. Pais due to pressure on the spinal cord nerve roots
  2. Numbness
  3. Tingling
  4. Loss of bladder/bowel function
  5. Foot drop
121
Q

Spinal shock

A

trauma to cord itself - flaccid paralysis initially - 4 hrs-2 weeks - until pt comes out of this state - can’t assess how much function pt will have - all reflexes are gone - no peristalsis - Risk - paralytic ileus (NG tube) ; Foley.

122
Q

Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis - DX

A
  1. Increased CK
  2. Abnormal EMG - electromyogram - give shocks to see how muscle responses - fasciculations (twitching)
  3. Dysarthria + Dysphagia
123
Q

Cushings syndrome

A
124
Q

Dilantin - SE

A

Antiepileptic - Antiseizure med - Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue) - Dental care !!!

125
Q

Cushings triad

A

classic but late sign of increased ICP

  1. Severe hypertension
  2. Widened pulse pressure
  3. Bradycardia
126
Q

ICP

A

keep below 20

127
Q

Meningitis S/s:

A
  1. Fever
  2. Headache
  3. Nuchal rigidity ( neck stiffness)
  4. Increase in WBC
  5. Brudzinskis and Kernigs signs
128
Q

SIDH - TX

A
  1. Fluid restriction - ( 800 ml/ 24 hrs)
  2. If Na very low ( < 125) - 3 % Saline solution - small amount , slowly - monitor closely - Risk for cerebral edema !!!
129
Q

Craniotomy -

A
  1. Supratentorial - cerebrum
  2. Infratentorial - cerebellum
130
Q

Brain Tumors - S/s - depends on location

A
  1. Changes in personality or behavior (frontal lobe)
  2. Headache
  3. N+V
  4. Seizures
  5. Visual disturbances (occipital lobe)
  6. Balance and coordination problems ( cerebellum) - ataxia, falls
131
Q

Antiseizure meds and SE

A
  1. Dilantin, Tegretol, Klonopin, Neurontin , Depakote, Valium

SE: drowsiness, lethargy, sleepiness, sedation (until get adjusted ) Do not drive !!!; Blood dyscrasia (CBC)

132
Q

PO corticosteroids

A

give in the morning ; with food (breackfast)

133
Q

Stereotactic Radiosurgery - advantages

A

for deep seated brain tumors : shrink (radiation) - no incision

  1. noninvasive nature
  2. lower risk, cost, morbidity , length of hospital stay , recovery time
134
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia - T6 or higher - pathophysiology

A

Noxious stimulus (distended bladder or bowel) - stimulates SNS - vasoconstriction - pounding headache + severe hypertension** (Risk - Stroke) - baroreceptors of carotid sinus + aortic arch stimulate vagus nerve (PNS) - **decreased HR + nausea** - dilates skin vessels above level of injury - _flushing, diaphoresis, nasal congestion _**

135
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia - Nursing Management

A
  1. Head up
  2. Call for help
  3. Assess for + remove noxious stimulus ( catheterize, disimpact )
  4. Monitor BP Q 10-15 min
  5. CCB (IV) or Nitrates (Nitroglycerin, Procardia) - sublingual
136
Q

Niphedipine (Procardia)

Nimodipine (Nimotop)

Verapamil (Calan)

A

Calcium Channel Blockers - tx cerebral vasospasm , hypertension

137
Q

Ruptured aneurysm S/s

A

Severe headache , N&V - die quickly if massive hemorrhage

138
Q

Aneurysm that is leaking - S/s

A

headache , stiff back and legs, intermittent nausea

139
Q

Strokes - FAST

A
140
Q

Complications of aneurysm

A
  1. Vasospasm - 4-10 days after initial bleed - ischemic episode - brain tissue death
    tx: Prevent !!! - control BP - CCB ( Procardia, Verapamil, Nimotop)
  2. Re-bleed - bleed that seals itself can re-bleed within 24-48 hrs or 7-10 days later
141
Q

Cervical injury suspected - how to open airway

A

Jaw thrust - fingers behind the mandible - push forward - will bring tongue forward

142
Q

Tetraplegia, also known as quadriplegia

A

Complete paralysis of the body from the neck down.

143
Q

Paraplegia

A

impairment in motor or sensory function of the lower extremities

144
Q
A
145
Q
A