Respiratory Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction

A

local reaction that occurs in response to a reduction in alveolar oxygen tension (not arterial PO2)
* The pulmonary vascular bed is the only region in the body that responds to hypoxia with vasoconstricion
* HPV selectively increases the pulmonary vascular resistance in poorly ventilated areas to minimize shunt flow to these regions. The response begins within seconds and achieves its full effect in about 15 minutes.
* HPV is a protective mechanism that minimizes shunt flow during atelectasis or one lung ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Factors that impair HPV

A

Drugs:
Volatile Anesthetics >1.5 MAC
*Vasodilators, phosphodiesterase inhibitors (sildenafil, milrinone), dobutamine, and some calcium channel blockers increase shunt flow by inhibiting HPV
*Vasoconstrictive drugs such as phenylephrine, epi, and dopamine may constrict well-oxygenated vessels and increase shunt flow
*(induction drugs do NOT affect HPV)
Altered physiology:
*Hypervolemia (LAP>25) and elevated CO may distend constricted vessels and increase shunt flow, although hypovolemia may cause pulmonary vasoconstriction to well ventilated alveolar units. Therefore, euvolemia is best.
*Excessive PEEP or high tidal volumes increase dead space (zone 1) and reduce optimal V/Q matching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Muscles of inspiration

A

*Sternocleidomastoid (accessory muscle)
*Anterior Scalene (Accessory muscle)
*Middle Scalene (accessory muscle)
*Posterior Scalene (Accessory muscle)
*External Intercostals (increase the anterior- posterior diameter)
*Diaphragm (increases in the superior-inferior dimension of chest)
*Contraction of the inspiratory muscles reduces thoracic pressure and increases thoracic volume. This is an example of Boyle’s law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Muscles of expiration

A
  • Transversus Abdominis
  • Internal intercostals
  • Rectus abdominis
  • External Oblique
  • Internal oblique
  • Exhalation is usually passive. The process is driven by the recoil of the chest wall.
  • Active Exhalation is carried out by the abdominal musculature (rectus abdominis, internal obliques, and external obliques), preset when MV increases or pt has lung disease like COPD.
  • Forced exhalation to cough VC-15mL/kg required for it to be effective
  • Mnemonic: I let the air out (exhale) of my TIREs (Transverse abdominis, Internal oblique, Rectus abdominis, External oblique)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Functional divisions of the airway

A

Three zones:
*Conduction Zone (bulk gas movement): Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles (anatomic dead space, starts with nose/mouth)
* Transitional Zone- (Bulk gas movement): Respiratory bronchioles (air conduit and gas exchange)
*Respiratory Zone (Gas Exchange): Alveolar Ducts, Alveolar Sacs (Gas exchange across flat epithelium (type 1 pneumocytes) by diffusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Airway patency

A

To keep airway patent down to bronchioles that don’t have cartilage the pressure inside the airway must be greater that the pressure outside of the airway.
* Alveolar pressure is the pressure inside the airway
* Intrapleural pressure is the pressure outside of the airway
* Transpulmonary pulmonary pressure (TPP) is the difference between the pressure inside the airway and the pressure outside of the airway
*TPP=Alveolar pressure-intrapleural pressure
* if value is positive= airway stays open
* if negative=airway collapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tidal Breathing

A

Transpulmonary pressure (TPP) is always positive (keeps airway open)
intrapleural pressure is always negative (keeps lungs inflated)
Alveolar pressure becomes slightly negative during inspiration and slight positive during expiration
there is no airflow at FRC or end-inspiration
Aside from pneumo, the only time intrapleural pressure becomes positive is during forced expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the most common cause of increased Vd/Vt under general anesthesia?

A

reduction in CO.
If the EtCO2 acutely decreases, you should first rule out hypotension before considering other causes of increased dead space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does an LMA, atropine and neck extension affect Vd?

A

an LMA reduces Vd because it bypasses much of the anatomic Vd between the mouth and the glottis
Atropine increase Vd, because its bronchodilator action increases the volume of the conduction airway
Neck extension increases Vd, because it opens the hypopharynx and increases its volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List of increases to Vd and decreases

A

Increased: facemask, HME, PPV, anticholinergics, old age, extension, Decreased CO, COPD, PE, sitting

Decreased- ETT, LMA, tracheostomy, flexion, supine, trendelenburg

in the circle system, dead space begins at the y-piece. If Vd increased MV must increase to maintain normal PaCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bohr Equation

A

This equation compares the partial pressure of CO2 in the blood vs the partial pressure of CO2 exhaled. The greater difference=the greater amount of dead space.
Vd/Vt= (paco2-PeCO2)/PaCO2….EtCO2 can be used instead of PeCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is ventilation greatest?

A

Ventilation is greatest at the lung base due to higher alveolar compliance. Perfusion is greatest at the lung base due to gravity.

Alveoli with greater volumetric change during a breath is going to be better ventilated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dead space and shunt ratios, what is the clinical correlation

A

Dead space=VQ= Infinity- good ventilation, no perfusion
Shunt= V/Q=0- good perfusion, no ventilation

V/Q mismatch (specifically atelectasis) is the most common cause of hypoxemia in the PACU

As FRC becomes smaller (the result of anesthesia and surgery), There is less radial traction to hold the airways open. The result is atelectasis, right to left shunt, V/Q mismatch, and hypoxemia.

Treatment includes humidified O2 and maneuvers designed to reopen the airways (mobility, coughing, deep breathing, and IS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Compensation of V/Q mismatch

A

The body responds to these imbalances by attempting to match ventilation to perfusion.
* To combat dead space (zone1), the bronchioles constrict to minimize ventilation of poorly perfused alveoli
* To combat shunt (zone 3), hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction reduces pulmonary blood flow to poorly ventilated alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the Law of Laplace

A

the relationship between pressure, radius, and wall tension.
cylinder shape Tension= pressure x radius ie blood vessels, cylindrical aneurysms
spherical shape Tension = pressure x radius/2 ie alveoli, cardiac ventricles, saccular aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

lung zones greatest to lowest

A

Zone 1 PA>Pa>Pv Dead Space
There is ventilation but no perfusion, does not occur in normal lungs, increased by hypotension, pulmonary embolus, or excessive pressure. Alveoli constrict to reduce dead space
Zone 2 Pa>PA>Pv Waterfall
VQ=1, blood flow is directly proportional to the difference in Pa-PA, the greater the difference the greater the blood flow
Zone 3 Pa>Pv>PA Shunt
V/Q=0, TO combat zone 3 hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction reduces pulmonary blood flow to underventilated units, tip of pulmonary artery catheter should be placed here
Zone 4 Pa>Pist>Pv>PA pulmonary edema
pulm edema occurs when the rate of fluid entry into the pulm interstitium exceeds the rate of fluid removal by the lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Alveolar gas equation

A

Alveolar oxygen= FiO2 x (Pb-PH2O) - (PaCO2/RQ)
FiO2= Fraction of inspired O2
Pb= barometric pressure (760, 1 atm)
PH20= humidity of inhaled gas ( assumed to be 47mmhg)
RQ= Respiratory quotient (assumed to be 0.8)
RQ= carbon dioxide production/ oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A-a gradient

A

Difference between alveolar oxygen and arterial oxygen. Allows for diagnosis of the cause of hypoxemia by indicating the amount of venous admixture.
When breathing room air, the normal A-a gradient is less than 15mmhg due to normal physiological shunt: thebesian, bronchiolar, and pleural veins bypass the alveolar-capillary interface and deliver deoxygenated blood to the left heart.
A large difference implies a significant degree of shunt, V/Q mismatch, or diffusion defect across the alveolar-capillary membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What increases A-a gradient

A

Aging (closing capacity increases relative to FRC)
Vasodilators (decreased hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)
Right-to-left shunt (atelectasis, pneumonia, bronchial intubation, intracardiac defect)
Diffusion limitation (alveolocapillary thickening hinders O2 diffusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Estimation of % shunt to A-a gradient

A

shunt increases 1% for every 20mmhg of A-a gradient
example A-a gradient is 218 then 218/20 shunt of 11%

normal A-a gradient is 5-10mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

lung volumes

A

all numbers based on 70kg male
Inspiratory reserve volume - 3000mL- volume of gas that can be inhaled after a tidal inhalation
Tidal volume- 500 - volume of gas that enters and exits the lungs during tidal breathing
Expiratory reserve volume -1100 - volume of gas that can be forcibly exhaled after tidal exhale
Residual volume - 1200- gas that remains in lungs after complete exhalation, can’t be exhaled, provides oxygen reservoir during apnea
Closing volume - variable around 30% at age 20, 55% at age 70 - the volume above residual volume where the small airways begin to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lung capacities

A

Total lung capacity -5800 - IRV+TV+ERV+ RV
vital capacity 4500- IRV+ TV+ERV
Inspiratory capacity 3500- IRV+TV
FRC 2300- RV+ERV it is the lung volume at end-expiration
Closing Capacity- Variable - RV+CV the absolute volume of gas contained in the lungs when small airways close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Key facts on volumes

A
  • TV is 6-8 mL/kg
  • VC is 65-75 m:/kg
  • FRC is 35 mL/kg
  • All are calculated on IBW
  • Lung volumes are 25% smaller in females
  • Lung volumes change with body position- larger when sitting and smaller when supine
  • Patients with obstructive lung disease such as asthma, emphysema, and bronchitis have an increased residual volume, closing capacity, and TLC
  • spirometry cannot measure residual volume, therefore it also can’t measure total lung capacity or FRC, CV, CC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is FRC measured?

A

Nitrogen washout
helium wash-in
body plethysmography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what affects FRC and what can restore it
What zone increases

A

Some conditions can reduce outward lung expansion and or reduce lung compliance
when FRC is reduced, intrapulmonary shunt (west zone 3) increases
Alveolar recruitment maneuvers and PEEP act to restore FRC by reducing West zone 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What decreases FRC

A

General anesthesia, obesity, pregnancy, neonates, neuromuscular blockade, light anesthesia, excessive IV fluids, High FiO2 (absorption atelectasis), reduced pulmonary compliance (acute lung injury, pulm edema, pulm fibrosis, atelectasis, effusion), positions: supine, lithotomy, trendelenburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What increase FRC

A

Advanced age- decreased lung elasticity causes air trapping which increases RV and FRC
Positions: prone, sitting, lateral, Obstructive lung disease-air trapping, PEEP, Sigh breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Factors that increase Closing volume (CV)

A

COPD, LV failure, obesity, surgery, extremes of age, and pregnancy Mnemonic CLOSE-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what happens when CC is greater than FRC

A

airway closure can occur during tidal breathing. this contributes to intrapulmonary shunting and hypoxemia

30
Q

CC as we age related to FRC

A

30 CC is around FRC under general anesthesia
44 CC is around FRC when supine
66 CC is around FRC when standing

31
Q

Oxygen content measures what and what is the equation

A

Measures how much O2 is present in 1 deciliter (100mL) of blood
CaO2= (1.34 x Hgb x SaO2) + (PaO2 x 0.003)
reference value = 20 mL O2 per dL

32
Q

Oxygen delivery what it measures and equation

A

Oxygen delivery tells us how fast a quantity of O2 is delivered to the tissues
DO2= CaO2 x Cardiac output x 10
reference value = 1000mL O2 per min

33
Q

Oxygen consumption measures and equation

A

The difference between the amount of O2 that leaves the lungs and the amount of O2 that returns to the lungs
VO2= (CaO2- CvO2) x Cardiac output x 10
Reference value= 250mL/min or 3.5 mL/kg/min

34
Q

what causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

A

Decrease in temperature
decrease in 2,3 DPG
Decrease in Hydrogen
Increase in pH
Increase in Hgb Met= methemoglobin
increase in HgbCO = carboxyhemoglobin
Increase in Hgb F= fetal hgb

35
Q

what causes a Right shift

A

Increase temperature
increase in 2,3 DPG
increase CO2
Increase Hydrogen
Decrease pH

36
Q

What is the Bohr Effect

A

CO2 and hydrogen ions cause a conformational change in the hemoglobin molecule; this facilitates the release of O2. Said in another way, an increase partial pressure of CO2 and decreased pH cause Hgb to release oxygen

37
Q

where does 2,3-DPG come from and why is it important

A

*2,3 DPG is produced during RBC glycolysis (Rapoport-luebering pathway)
* it maintains the curve in a slight right shifted position at all times
* hypoxia increases 2,3 DPG production. This facilitates O2 offloading.
* in banked blood, the concentration of 2,3 DPG falls. This shifts the curve to the left and reduces the amount of O2 available to the tissue level
*Hgb F doesn’t respond to 2,3 DPG, which explains why Hgb F has a left shift (P50=19 mmhg)

38
Q

Glycolysis

A

Goal is to convert 1 glucose to 2 pyruvic acid molecules. Pyruvic will either be converted to lactate in the cytoplasm if oxygen is available, if O2 is not available it will be transported into the mitochondria
Net gain : 2 ATP
Next 2 molecules of pyruvic acid are converted into 2 molecules of Acetyl Coenzyme A
The more glucose that goes through glycolysis the more 2,3 DPG is produced

39
Q

Krebs cycle

A

takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria
* reaction begins with oxaloacetic acid and Acetyl coenzyme A react to produce citric acid
* the reaction end with the production of oxaloacetic acid (which is reused at the beginning), NADH, and CO2
* the primary goal of this reaction is to produce a large quantity of Hydrogen ions in the form of NADH. these are used in electron transport
Products of protein and lipid metabolism can also enter krebs cycle
Net Gain= 2 ATP

40
Q

oxidative phosphorylation

A

the primary goal of glycolysis and the krebs cycle is to liberate hydrogen from glucose. Up to this point, there has only been a net gain of 4 ATP molecules for 1 molecule of glucose
* NADH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is split into NAD, H, and 2 electrons
* the electrons are fed into the chemiosmotic mechanism. A proton gradient is generated across a membrane, which drive ATP synthesis with the help of ATP synthase
* Oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor
* the end products of oxidative phosphorylation are 34 ATP molecules and water
(ATP is used to carry out energy-dependent processes in the body)
NET GAIN 34 ATP

41
Q

Lactic acid pathway

A

when there is no oxygen pyruvic acid turns into lactic acid
this can lead to lactic acidosis=anion gap metabolic acidosis
the body’s enzymes tend to not function properly in an acidic environment
when the oxygen supply is re-established, intracellular lactate is converted back to pyruvic acid inside the cell, and aerobic metabolism starts again. Serum lactate is cleared primarily by the liver

42
Q

What is the primary byproduct of aerobic metabolism?

A

CO2

43
Q

What are the three ways CO2 is transported (buffered) in the blood

A

As bicarbonate (70%)
Bound to Hgb (23%)
dissolved in the plasma (7%)

44
Q

What is the Hamburger Shift?

A

TO maintain electroneutrality, for every molecule of HCO3 that leaves the erythrocyte, one Cl ion is transported in

45
Q

What is the Haldane effect

A

Describes effect of O2 on CO2 carriage. It says that oxygen causes erythrocyte to release CO2. You can think of the Haldane effect as the opposite of the Bohr effect
Right is release, left is latch
The presence of oxygenated Hgb shifts the CO2 dissociation curve to the right
The presence of deoxygenated Hgb shifts the CO2 dissociation curve to the left

46
Q

What are 7 causes of Hypercapnia by increasing CO2 production?

A

Sepsis
MH
Thyroid storm
Burns
Shivering
prolonged seizure activity
overfeeding

47
Q

7 causes of decreased CO2 elimination

A

Airway obstruction
ARDS
COPD
opioid overdose
increased dead space
inadequate NMB reversal
Respiratory center depression

48
Q

Causes of rebreathing

A

exhausted soda lime
faulty unidirectional valve in a circle system
inadequate FGF in a mapleson circuit

49
Q

consequences of hypercarbia

A

hypoxemia
acidosis
cardiac and smooth muscle depression
SNS stimulation
increased ICP- increased CBF and volume
hyperkalemia
increased P50
increased Pulmonary vascular resistance
hypercalcemia-helps increase inotropy to offset cardia depression
depressed level of consciousness (CO2 narcosis when PaCO2 > 90)

50
Q

Acute respiratory acidosis - for every 10mmHg increase above 40mmHG, how much does pH decrease by?

A

0.08

51
Q

Chronic Respiratory Acidosis for every 10mmhg increase above 40mmhg how much does the pH decrease by?

A

0.03 due to retention of HCO3 by the kidneys

52
Q

what is the primary and secondary monitors of PaCO2

A

the central chemoreceptor in the medulla is the primary monitor of PaCO2

the peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies and transverse aortic arch play a secondary role in monitoring PaCO2

53
Q

Causes of a right shift in CO2 respiratory Response Curve

A

Metabolic alkalosis
Carotid Endarterectomy
Drugs: Volatile anesthetics, opioids, NMBs

A right shift and decreased slope indicates that Ve is lower than expected for a given PaCO2. this creates respiratory acidosis

54
Q

Causes of Left shift in the CO2 Respiratory Response Curve

A

Hypoxemia
metabolic acidosis
surgical stimulation
CNS etiologies : increased ICP, Fear, anxiety
Drugs: Salicylates, aminophylline, doxapram, norepinephrine

a left shift and increased slope indicate that Ve is higher than expected for a given PaCO2. this creates a respiratory alkalosis

55
Q

What is the respiratory rate and pattern determined by

A

Neural control in the respiratory center- medulla
Chemical control in the central chemoreceptors - medulla
Chemical control in the peripheral chemoreceptors- carotid bodies and aortic arch
Baroreceptors- lungs

56
Q

Function and location of Pneumotaxic center

A

Located in the upper pons
Triggers the end of inspiration by inhibiting the DRG
* strong stimulus-. rapid shallow breathing
* weak stimulus -> slow and deep breathing

57
Q

Location and function of apneustic center

A

lower pons
antagonizes the pneumotaxic center which causes inspiration (Stimulates DRG)
* action is inhibited by pulmonary stretch receptors (J receptors)

58
Q

Dorsal Respiratory Group location and function

A

Medulla- nucleus tractus solitarius
Pacemaker for inspiration -primarily active during inspiration

59
Q

Ventral respiratory group

A

Medulla- nucleus ambiguous, nucleus retroambiguous
has inspiration and expiration functions (primarily active during expiration). Contains the pre-Botzinger complex
More important during exercise or stress

60
Q

CO2, H+, HCO3 and BBB and H+ and respiration

A

CO2 freely diffuses through the BBB
H+ and HCO3 do not diffuse through the BBB

The hydrogen ion concentration in the CSF is the most important stimulus for the central chemoreceptor
H+ drives the respiratory pacemaker in the dorsal respiratory center
as H+ rises the rate and depth of respiration increase until a new steady state for Ve is achieved

61
Q

do non-volatile acids cross the BBB

A

they do not pass through the BBB. Because of this they dont influence Ve on a short-term basis, however they do influence Ve on a longer-term bases
(lactic acid, phosphoric acid, sulfuric acid)

62
Q

Bicarbonate and the Central Chemoreceptor

A

HCO3 equilibrates between the blood and the CSF-this process begins after a few hours and peaks around 2 days. Therefore, the effect of hyperventilation on PaCO2 is limited to this window of time. After equilibration occurs, the pH of the CSF is restored to normal pH 7.32 as a result of active transport of HCO3 from the plasma to the CSF

63
Q

Response to excessive hypercarbia and hypoxemia to the central chemoreceptor

A

the central chemoreceptor is stimulated by hypercarbia and hypoxemia, however it’s depressed by profound hypercarbia and hypoxemia

64
Q

location and function of peripheral chemoreceptors

A

located in the adventitia of the carotid bodies at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery and the transverse aortic arch

Chief responsibility is to monitor for hypoxemia (PaO2 <60).
they do not monitor SaO2 or CaO2
the secondary responsibilities include monitor PaCO2, H+, and perfusion pressure

65
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors : response to hypoxemia

A
  1. PaO2 < 60 closes the oxygen sensitive K+ channels in type 1 glomus cells
  2. this raises the resting membrane potential, opens Ca+2 channels, and increases neurotransmitter release (Ach and ATP)
  3. An action potential is propagated along Hering’s nerve-> glossopharyngeal nerve CN9 and sends signal to tractus solitarius
66
Q

Conditions that impair the Hypoxic ventilatory response

A

Carotid endarterectomy severs the afferent limb and the response. this is why we don’t do bilateral CEA simultaneously or close to each other, takes time for the body to recalibrate

Sub anesthestic doses of inhalation and intravenous anesthetics (0.1 MAC) depress the hypoxic ventilatory drive, so post op hypoxia is not always countered by a reflexive increase in MV. Also volatile anesthetics impair diaphragmatic, intercostal, and upper airway muscle function

67
Q

Conditions that do NOT impair hypoxic ventilatory response

A

Even though CaO2 is reduced with anemia as well as carbon monoxide poisoning, the PaO2 is usually normal. This explains why these conditions do not stimulate the hypoxic ventilatory response.

68
Q

Pulmonary reflexes

A

respiration can be influenced by sensors in the lung. Stretch receptors in the smooth airway muscle transduce pressure conditions inside the airway. They transmit this information along the vagus nerves (CN10) to the dorsal respiratory center (respiratory pacemaker)

69
Q

Hering-Breuer inflation reflex

A

Provides a similar function as the pneumotaxic center, by a different mechanism
* when lung inflation is >1.5L above FRC (x3 normal Vt), this reflex (turns off) the dorsal respiratory center= stops further inspiration
* this reflex is not active during normal inspiration

70
Q

Hering-Breuer deflation reflex

A

when lung volume is too small, this reflex helps prevent atelectasis by stimulating the patient to take a deep breath

71
Q

J Receptors (pulmonary C fiber receptors)

A

Stimulation of J receptors cause tachypnea. THe J receptors are activated by things that Jam traffic in the pulmonary vasculature, such as pulmonary embolism or CHF

72
Q

Paradoxical reflex of Head

A

causes newborn baby to take first breath.
(name from Dr, Henry Head, doesn’t have anything to do with the babies head)