Respiratory Pathology Flashcards

0
Q

Describe Aerogenous spread of invasion to the lungs

A

Infection reaches the lung as inhaled droplets or larger food particles or fluid. As particle size decreases, increased proportion of particles will pass down the respiratory tract. The bronchiolar-alveolar junction is vulnerable to damage as the total air space area suddenly increases at this point so particles can settle by gravity.

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1
Q

What are the varying defence mechanisms of the zones of the respiratory system?

A

Conducting - mucus and mucocilliary clearance, antibodies and lyzozyme.
Transitional (bronchioles) - clara cells, antibodies and lyzozyme
Exchange (alveoli) - macrophages, surfactant, antibodies.

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2
Q

Describe Haematogenous Spread of infection to the lungs

A

The pulmonary capillary bed is very large. Haematongenous lesions tend to localise in caudal lobes - but all lobes can be affected when challenge is high. There is no orientation in the airways.

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3
Q

Describe Transcoelomic spread of infection to the Lungs

A

Infection via extension from pleura or mediastinum, or traumatic penetration from the chest wall (e.g bite), diaphragm, or oesophagus e.g foreign body.

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4
Q

What is Haemoptysis?

A

Blood in the saliva or sputum.

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5
Q

Describe Rhinitis and its causes.

A

Rhinitis and sinusitis often occur together. Rhinitis may be acute or chronic. Aetiologies are infectious, allergic, toxic or traumatic. Within respiratory epithelium are two non ciliated secretory cells, serous cells that secrete clear thin sero mucin and goblet cells that secrete thick opaque mucus.

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6
Q

What is serous rhinitis?

A

The mildest form - serous cells increase secretion. Early stages of infectious disease, allergy or irritation.

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7
Q

What is catarrhal rhinitis?

A

Goblet cells and mucous glands now contribute to the secretion. With chronicity there may be goblet cell hyperplasia. May contain white blood cells, exfoliated debris (mucupurulent.)

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8
Q

What is purulent suppurative rhinitis?

A

This is thicker exudate with many more cells. It is dominated by neutrophils.

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9
Q

What is fibrinous rhinitis?

A

There is an increase in vascular permeability which allows exudation of fibrinogen which coagulates to fibrin and forms a yellow mat on the affected surface. May be associated with severe underlying ulceration.

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10
Q

Describe granulomatous Rhinitis?

A

It is macrophage dominated - either specific pathogens or chronic allergic reaction.

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11
Q

Describe Chronic Rhinitis?

A

Failure to resolve acute rhinitis - chronic rhinitis is typically catarrhal or purulent. In chronic purulent rhinitis there is extensive fibrosis of the lamina propria, atrophy of nasal glands and squamous metaplasia in severe cases. Another feature seen is polypoid thickening of the inflamed nasal mucosa known as nasal polyps. - Round large multiple protuberances into the nasal meatus.

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12
Q

What is Sinusitis?

A

Often as a sequel or associated with rhinitis. It can also be caused by dental or periodontal disease and penetration of infections from dehorning wounds and fractures of the facial bones. Purulent inflammation of the sinuses is likely to become chronic because of poor drainage.

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13
Q

Describe Viruses that may cause Rhinitis

A

Common cause of infectious rhinitis - in some fairly specific for nasal mucosa - others cause rhinitis as part of respiratory or more generalised disease. Eg feline calicivirus, canine distemper, parainfluenza, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, bovine adenovirus, inclusion body rhinitis (porine), swine influenza, equine rhinovirus.

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14
Q

Describe Atrophic Rhinitis in pigs?

A

Causes atrophy of nasal turbinates and distortion and shorening of the snout. It is caused by co-infection of the nasal mucosa with bordetella bronchiseptica and a toxin producing strain of pasteurella multocida capsular type D. The bordetella appears to facilitate colonisation of nasal epithelium by the toxigenic pasteurella. There is experimental evidence that the toxin acts directly on bone cells of the nasal turbinates to cause bone loss.

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15
Q

Describe Strangles in horses and its potential complications?

A

Haemolytic streptoocoocci - streptococcus equi, is pathogenic and causes strangles, characterised by suppurative rhinitis, pharyngitis and lymphadenitis of the lymph nodes of the head and neck that drain the URT. Lymph nodes often rupture and discharge pus. Complications can occur such as metastatic abscesses, (bastard strangles), retropharyngeal abscesses can rupture into guttoral pouches and cause chondroid formation, and purpura haemorrhagica can occur - an acute vasculitis - urticaria and extensive oedema of ventrum, head and distal limbs.

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16
Q

What is Glanders?

A

Caused by burkholderia mallei. It exists in Eastern Europe and Asia. The rhinitis of glanders is characterised by multiple small nodules in the nasal mucosa composed of cores of neutrophils surrounded by a rim of macrophages and granulation tissue. there is fever and head/neck lymphadenitis.

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17
Q

What is mycotic Rhintis?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus is the commonest cause in the dog - where is also involves the frontal sinus. Infection causes a chronic necrotising inflammation with friable containing necrotic tissue and fungal hyphae. These lesions can be aggressive causing destruction of turbinates and nasal septum.

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18
Q

Describe another cause of mycotic rhinitis?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans causes a granulomatous rhinitis in cats. Formation of nodules or destructive masses which often result in facial swelling. In severe cases, extension from nasal cavity to involve skin and oral mucosa can occur.

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19
Q

Describe Neoplasia of the Nasal cavity and sinuses

A

Generally rare entities - can arise from any of the tissues in the region e.g adenoma from glands/epithelium, sarcomas from cartilage, bone, connective tissue. Most are malignant and are usually secondarily infected hence distinguishing severe chronic inflammation and neoplasia can be difficult.

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20
Q

Describe inflammation of the larynx and trachea

A

Acute inflammation of the airways passes through changes similar to those describe for acute rhinitis. Inflammatory disease involving pharynx, larynx and trachea areas are important because of the potential to obstruct airflow and to cause aspiration pneumonia. Trauma and foreign bodies can cause problems in this area as can masses in the surrounding area which obstruct the airway.

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21
Q

What is laryngeal chondritis?

A

Cause uncertain but there appears to be a genetic predisposition in short-necked breeds such as texels or southdowns, although any breed can be affected. Causes chronic suppuration within the arytenoid cartilages of the larynx resulting in swelling and occlusion of the lumen.

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22
Q

What is filaroides osleri?

A

A parasite which forms nodules around the tracheal bifurcation - submucosal nodules (up to 1cm diameter). Associated with a mild chronic inflammatory reaction when the parasites are alive - subsequently, when the parasites die, an intense foreign body reaction develops.

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23
Q

What is tracheal collapse?

A

Malformations of the trachea that lead to tracheal collapse are important in the dog and occurs principally in miniature dog breeds, also in horses and cattle. The trachea is flattened dorsoventrally with a widened, flaccid dorsal tracheal membrane. Upon inspiration the flaccid membrane is sucked into the tracheal lumen causing obstruction.

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24
Q

What is laryngeal paralysis?

A

Horses and occasionally dogs develop paralysis of the larynx. It is the most common cause of abnormal respiratory noise (roaring) in horses. It is usually a left sided hemiplegia in horses due to degeneration of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve. Neurogenic atrophy of the left cricoarytenoid muscle causes the left arytenoid cartilage to sag into the laryngeal lumen during inspiration.

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25
Q

Describe Kennel Cough?

A

This is a common condition characterised pathologically by persistent tracheobronchial inflammation. There can be extension to serous/mucupurulent rhinitis or cranioventral bronchopneumonia. Tonsils and RPLNs are enlarged.

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26
Q

What is chronic bronchitis?

A

Bronchial irritation and mucus hypersecretion causes a chronic intractable cough. necropsy findings are dominated by excess mucoid or mucopurulent exudate within the trachea and lower airways. The underlying bronchial mucosa is thickened, hyperaemic and oedematous - this is a consequence of increase in size and number of mucus glands, extensive infiltration of the lamina propria by inflammatory cells. Another important feature is smooth muscle hypertrophy in pulmonary arteries can result in pulmonary hypertension - cor pulmonale.

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27
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

This is permanent saccular or cylindrical dilatation of bronchi as a result of the accumulation of exudate within the lumen and partial rupture of the bronchial walls. It usually occurs secondary to chronic bronchitis in which there is a weakening of the bronchial wall. It has a classical appearance characterised by sac like nodules in the lungs which are filled with purulent exudate. Cattle are particularly prone to the development of bronchiectasis due to the combination of complete lobular septation and lack of collateral ventilation.

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28
Q

Describe inflammation of the bronchioles?

A

Bronchiolar epithelium is highly susceptible to injury due to the presence of clara cells which contain oxidases that can locally generate metabolites that are toxic, and the vulnerability to free radical damage. Bronchioles are much more prone to obstruct when inflamed than bronchi. Bronchiolitis can occur as follows: as an extension of bronchitis or concurrently with bronchitis and pneumonia. Can occur as a distinct entity e.g certain viral infections; pulmonary toxicity.

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29
Q

Describe the structure of Alveoli and their response to injury.

A

Alveoli have a delicate structure, the type 1 pneumocytes are most susceptible to injury. Irreversible injury results in swelling and sloughing of these cells. As long as the underlying basement membrane remains intact, repair can proceed as a result of type II pneuomocyte division. In severe, diffuse forms of alveolar injury, this process can be so spectacular that the affected tissue can take on the appearance of a gland - alveolar epithelialisation.

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30
Q

What is pneuomonia?

A

Pneumonia is inflammation that takes place in the alveoli and their walls. Pneumonias can be classified in many ways, such as bronchopneuomina suppurative or fibrinous. Bronchinterstitial, interstitial, granulomatous, embolic.

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31
Q

Describe Bronchopneuomonia?

A

Inflammation focussed on bronchi, bronchioles and adjacent alveolar lumens. It originates and extends from terminal bronchioles. The most common types are bacterial and mycoplasma infections or aspiration. Suppurative bronchopneumonia will be characterised by neutrophils, cell debris and macrophages within the airway and alveolar lumens.

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32
Q

What is fibrinous bronchopneumonias?

A

Generally more severe and can cause sudden death due to associated toxaemia. Sometimes also called lobar pneumonia due to involvement of entire lobes and pleural surface. Due to severity, less likely to resolve completely - fibrosis and adehsions.

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33
Q

What is interstitial Pneumonia?

A

Inflammation that occurs primarily in alveolar walls rather than in alveolar spaces. Lesions in most cases result from blood-borne insult and the damage is often diffuse. Can also occur due to direct aerogenous injury to alveolar epithelial cells. Injury to alveoli may cause protein and fluid exudation and hyaline membrane formation.

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34
Q

describe an example of Interstitial Pneumonia

A

Fog fever/acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and oedema - usually seen in adult beef cattle in the autumn and is associated with a change in pasture. Underlying pathogenesis is ingestion of L-tryptophan in the pasture which is metabolised to 3-methylindole > bloodstream > lungs.

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35
Q

Describe another example of interstitial pneumonia?

A

Paraquat poisoning - in dogs and cats - depending on the dose - the lesions range from acute lesions (oedema, haemorrhage, hyaline membranes) - to chronic (fibroplasia of alveolar septae, replacement of alveolar cells with type II cells). Additional extrapulmonary lesions to note following paraquat intoxication are necrosis of the adrenal zona glomerulosa and renal tubular epithelium.

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36
Q

What is Embolic Pneumonia?

A

Lung inflammation caused by haematogenous spread of infections into the lung. This type of pneumonia has no orientation around airways and can occur in any lung region but most often affects caudal lobes. The inflammation is oriented around pulmonary arterioles or alveolar capillaries.

37
Q

What is granulomatous pneumonia?

A

A reaction dominated by macrophages +/- giant cells and varying associated lymphocytes and neutrophils. Seen as multiple granulomas scattered throughout the lungs.

38
Q

Describe pulmonary abscesses

A

Commonly found post mortem they can be a consequence of:
Septic emboli lodging in the pulmonary vessels
Extension from severe focal suppurative bronchopneumonia
Aspiration of foreign material
Direct penetration.

39
Q

Describe the main types of Equine Pneumonias

A

Equine influenza: a mild Bronchointerstitial pneumonia. Often complicated by secondary bacterial infection.
Equine viral rhinopneumonitis: mild bronchointerstitial pneumonia.
Rhodococcus equi: Foals or immunosuppressed adults, causes severe bronchopneumonia. R equi is phagocytosed by alveolar macrophages but survives within them - suppurative bronchopneumonia and abscess formation.

40
Q

What is bovine shipping/transit fever?

A

Pasteurellosis can manifest as acute septicaemia or in less acute forms more organ specific pathology can occur. Predisposing factors such as stress can affect local and systemic immunity such that disease can occur from normal bacterial flora in the nasopharyngeal and oral regions.

41
Q

What is Enzootic Pneumonia?

A

Often initiated by viruses or mycoplasmas. Secondary bacterial involvement then causes the lesions to progress e.g A pyogenes. clinically usually relatively mild and typified by lesions of bronchointerstitial pneumonia.

42
Q

Describe infection with Tuberculosis in the bovine

A

M tuberculosis and M bovis are the principle pathogens. They reside primarily within macrophages and can result in characteristic granulomatous inflammation.. Cattle can be infected by inhalation of the organism. The initial focus of infection is at the portal of entry (lungs) plus involvement of regional lymph nodes. If the infection is not contained in the primary complex, the mycobacteria can disseminate via lymphatics to other organs and lymph nodes. This can allow the development of miliary tuberculosis i.e numerous small foci of infection in many organs.

43
Q

What is respiratory syncytial Virus?

A

Affects Bovines, usually associated with winter housing, characterised by cranioventral atelectasis and consolidation, interstitial emphysema more prominent in caudal lung lobes.

44
Q

Describe parainfluenza virus type 3

A

This is a paramyxo virus which can induce acute respiratory disease in a range of species e.g ruminants. It is an example of a disease which is often part of a multi - aetiology disease complex. PI3 replicates in the airway epithelial cells and results in an initial bronchitis > bronchiolitis extension into the alveoli.

45
Q

Describe Canine distemper Virus (CDV)

A

Although many organs can be affected by CDV, a relatively constant feature is the respiratory signs which occur in varying severity. A syndrome of catharral oculonasal discharge, pharyngitis, and bronchitis is common. Since one of the primary sites of action of this virus is lymphoid tissue, the resultant immunosuppression > predisposition to secondary bacterial infection.

46
Q

Describe Ovine Maedi visna virus

A

Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia - uncommon in sheep <2yo as lesions develop slowly. the lungs fail to collapse properly on opening the chest. The lungs are a mottled grey/tan colour, lesions can vary from irregular grey speckling to homogenous grey consolidation. The associated bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes are often enlarged.

47
Q

Describe Pasteurellosis in sheep:

A

As with cattle, there are several syndromes which can be caused by infection with this agent. Usually occurs in lambs in late spring/early summer with pathology similar to that described for cattle.

48
Q

What is Porcine Reproductive and respiratory syndrome?

A

An infectious disease in swine that emerged recently - causes respiratory and reproductive failure - an influenza like illness often is observed in the lungs of affected piglets.

49
Q

What is porcine enzootic pneumonia?

A

Caused by mycoplasma hyponeumoniae typified by lesions of bronchopneumonia which may be suppurative or catarrhal. the characteristic gross feature is confluent consolidation of the cranioventral lung lobes.

50
Q

Describe pasteurellosis in pigs?

A

P.multicodia can cause a severe acute fibrinous pneumonia in pigs as described in ruminants however the most significant disease here is that caused by P. multocida secondary to underlying mycoplasma pneumonia. This results in chronic suppurative bronchopneumonia with abscessation and pleuritis.

51
Q

What is Enzootic Pneumonia?

A

A disease of young animals iin close contact - particularly calves, lambs and pigs.

52
Q

What is aspergillus fumigatus?

A

The cause of aspergillosis - significant in birds. Disease is usually initiated following inhalation of spores, the most likely source of which is mouldy feed and bedding. Immunodeficiency may contribute to colonisation with this organism. Gross lesions: multiple discrete grey/white nodules which develop around fungal colonies Blood vessels can become involved in the lesions > invasion, haemorrhage or thrombosis.

53
Q

Describe dictyocaulus infection

A

The lesions produced by dictyocaulus spp. vary depending on the susceptibility of the host and the number of iinvading parasites. Cattle and sheep are most suceptible when first exposed o contaminated pasture hence in endemic areas, disease is most often seen in animals <1 yo. The pathogenesis and pathology associated with the parasites in ruminants can be divided into several phases.

54
Q

Describe the phases of Dictyocaulus infection:

A

Penetration phase - larvae are in transit to the lungs - no pulmonary lesions apparent. Pre patent phase - larvae appear in alveoli, alveolitis bronchiolitis > bronchitis. They plug the airway resulting in collapse distal to the lesion. Patent phase: parasitic bronchitis due to the presence of large numbers of worms in the bronchi. Histologically there is a pronounced inflammatory infiltrate. Parasitic pneumonia: caused by aspiration of eggs and larvae into the alveoli provoking a foreign body type response.

55
Q

Describe the postpatent phase of Dictyocaulus infection

A

In most causes this is the recovery phase. Acute exacerbations of respiratory disease can occur during this phase as a result of either: I) alveolar epithelialisation (type II cells). Grossly evident as pink rubbery lungs. II) Superimposed bacterial infection e.g pasteurella.

56
Q

Describe Dictyocaulus Arnfieldi Infection in Donkeys and horses?

A

A common parasite of donkeys. The gross pathology is characterised by raised focal over-inflated areas in the caudal lung lobes. These lesions consist histologically of central parasites and associated chronic catharral bronchitis. There is hyperplastic bronchial epithelium and surrounding lymphoid infiltration.

57
Q

What is Muellerius?

A

Caused by M capillaris - a very common parasite of sheep and goats - even with large infestations, there is very rarely any clinical significance. Intermediate hosts are slugs and snails in which infective larvae can survive for many months. The parasite causes a multifocal interstitial pneumonia which is grossly evident as firm nodules scattered throughout the parenchyma most obviously in the dorsal regions of the caudal lung lobes.

58
Q

Describe Metastrongylus infestation

A

Parasites of the bronchi/bronchioles of pigs - The histological lesions are similar to those in dictyocaulus, i.e catharral and eosinophilic bronchiolitis and bronchitis - however the lesions seldom become as extensive as can occur in dictyocaulus infections.

59
Q

What is Aelurostrongylus?

A

Aelurostrongylus is a widespread cat lungworm - seen wherever the intermediate hose are found. Adults live in respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts. The gross lesions are evident as multifocal subpleural firm yellow nodules scattered throughout the parenchyma although they are more frequent at the periphery. Eggs and larvae cause a foreign body type reaction. Submucosal gland hypertrophy and smooth muscle hypertrophy in airway and vessel walls also occurs.

60
Q

Describe hydatid cysts

A

Th intermediate stage of echinococcus granulosus can be found in the lungs. They range in size up to 5-10cm diameter and although of little clinical significance, are important as a zoonosis and because of carcass condemnation.

61
Q

What is type 1 Hypersensitivity and describe an example

A

Feline asthma/allergic bronchitis - inflammation usually dominated by eosinophils and some affected cats also have circulating eosinophilia. Causes a recurrent cough/ dyspnoea associated with Bronchoconstriction. Thought to relate to type 1 hypersensitivity to inhaled allergens.

62
Q

Describe a type 1 hypersensitivity - (PIE)

A

Pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia - a group of small animal diseases in which there is a predominance of eosinophils in the airways. It is generally considered that there is underlying hypersensitivity to allergens.

63
Q

Describe Type III hypersensitivity reaction Extrinsic allergic alveolitis.

A

This condition arises due to repeated inhalation of spores of thermophilic actinomycetes in mouldy hay. Hence it is a disease primarily of housed animals in winter. The spores can penetrate to the level of terminal bronchioles and alveoli throughout the lung. The pathogenesis results from a type III hypersensitivity reaction to the inhaled fungal spores.

64
Q

What is diffuse fibrosing alveolitis/atypical interstitial pneumonia

A

a catch all phrase for end stage of a number of different diseases including EAA, reinfection syndrome and fog fever. May show some similarities terminally - progression from an acute exudative phase through a proliferative phase to a final irreversible stage of fibrosis.

65
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of COPD.

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - characterised by chronic coughing and poor performance. Severe cases may show respiratory distress. The pathogenesis involves sensitivity of the airways to environmental allergens - type III hypersensitivity. Grossly, affected lungs are often surprisingly unremarkable except in extreme causes which alveolar emphysema may be evident.

66
Q

What is aspiration Pneumonia?

A

The response of the lungs to aspirated foerign material will depend on the nature of the material - the bacterial load and the distribution of the material within the lungs. this type of pneumonia can develop into a severe necrotising pneumonia and in very severe causes can progress to gangrenous pneumonia.

67
Q

What is gangrenous pneumonia?

A

Can occur following severe infections in which tissue becomes necrotic and is then invaded by putrefactive saprophytes, however, this is rare. The usual cause is administration of medicines intended for the oesophagus or as a sequel to aspiration pneumonia. The dead tissue undergoes liquefactive necrosis forming a cavity which is surrounded by intense hyperaemia and inflammation.

68
Q

What is lipid pneumonia?

A

Endogenous: Accumulation of lipids in pulmonary macrophages - multifocal white nodules
Exogenous: associated with inhalation of oil, paraffin etc This results in a reaction dominated by macrophages which fill the alveoli and interstitial thickening.

69
Q

What is uraemic pneumonia?

A

Severe uraemia causes increased permeability of the blood air barrier and therefore can cause pulmonary oedema. In addition to the oedema, there may also be degeneration and calcification of smooth muscle and connective tissue fibres.

70
Q

What is Atelectasis?

A

The incomplete expansion of the lung at birth (congenital) or collapse of previously air filled lung (acquired).

71
Q

What is obstructive atelectasis?

A

Caused by complete airway obstruction, usually by inflammatory exudate, foreign bodies, parasites or tumours In species with good collateral ventilation complete blockage of lobar or segmental bronchi is necessary for obstructive atelectasis.

72
Q

What is compression atelectasis?

A

Caused by pleural, intra thoracic or intrapulmonary space occupying lesions. Fluid, blood or exudate can cause compression atelectasis In large animals this commonly occurs below a sharply demarcated fluid line.

73
Q

What is emphysema?

A

An important primary disease in humans (protease/antiprotease imbalance causing alveolar wall destruction), in veterinary species it is secondary to some underlying entity. Increased air in the lungs does occur importantly as an Agonal change at slaughter and secondary to obstruction of airflow.

74
Q

Describe secondary pulmonary emphysema

A

Alveolar: distension and rupture of alveolar walls - formation of air bubbles in the parenchyma. Interstitial: most common in cattle due to pulmonary microanatomy. Air - Interlobular connective tissue and can form bullae bullous emphysema.

75
Q

Disturbances of the circulation make the lung vulnerable to what?

A

Pulmonary oedema - normally mechanisms are in place to protect the lung from the entry of circulatory fluid into alveolar spaces. These are: alveolar epithelium and its intercellular junctions are highly impermeable to fluid and seal off alveolar spaces, interstitium of alveolar septa is at lower pressure than intra alveolar pressure. Interstitial pressure becomes increasingly sub atmospheric toward the fascia surrounding vessels and airways and towards the pulmonary hilus.

76
Q

What is pulmonary oedema?

A

Excessive fluid in the lung which generally begins as interstitial oedema characterised by expansion of perivascular and peribronchial and peribronchiolar fascia and distension of interstitial lymphatics. When this interstitial compartment is overwhelmed, fluid floods the airspaces causing alveolar oedema.

77
Q

What are the major causes of Pulmonary oedema?

A

Increased capillary or type I epithelial permeability caused by - systemic toxins, shock, inhaled caustic gases. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure.
Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

78
Q

What is pulmonary haemorrhage?

A

A potential sequel of septicaemias, bleeding disorders, disseminated intravascular coagulation and severe congestion. Exercise - induced pulmonary haemorrhage occurs commonly in horses during racing or training. Haemorrhage is dorsocaudal.

79
Q

Describe embolism, thrombosis and infarction in the lungs

A

The lungs are situated where they catch emboli carried in venous blood. Because the lung is supplied by both pulmonary and bronchial arteries and has extensive collateral channels, infarction usually does not follow embolism or thrombosis unless pulmonary circulation ins already compromised. Pulmonary infarcts usually occur when there is embolisation or thrombosis during general circulatory collapse or passive congestion of heart failure.

80
Q

What causes pulmonary hypertension?

A

Caused by left to right vascular shunts or increased resistance of the pulmonary vascular system. In animals it is most commonly a sequel of widespread fibrosis in the lung or chronic bronchitis or bronchiolitis which stimulates hypertrophy in the walls of small arteries. Severe prolonged pulmonary hypertension leads to cor pulmonale. - right sided heart failure.

81
Q

Describe Neoplasia of the Lower airway

A

Although metastatic pulmonary tumours are common in the lung, pulmonary primary tumours are rare in domestic animals - more common in dogs and cats. Classification can be difficult due to the metaplasia which can occur in both inflammation and neoplasia - Bronchial papilloma, bronchial adenoma, bronchiioalveolar adenoma, carcinoid (rare in animals)

82
Q

What is sheep pulmonary adenomatosis? (SPA/jaagsiekte)

A

SPA is caused by a retrovirus and is common under intensive management systems which favour aerosol transmission of disease. The lesions progress from small firm grey/white nodular lesions to extensive confluent areas with replacement by neoplastic tissue. There is often coexistent infection present. Occasional metastases to bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes.

83
Q

What are bronchioalveolar tumours?

A

Most common in dogs - may be an incidental necropsy finding. Often occur as solitary nodules at the periphery of the lung. Note however that rapid metastatic spread of tumour from a primary elsewhere in the body can mimic the pattern of a bronchioloalveolar tumour.

84
Q

Give some common examples of metastatic tumours of the lungs

A

Mammary carcinoma, uterine adenocarcinoma, malignant melanoma. Metastatic tumours often manifest as multiple nodules scattered throughout the parenchyma - these lesions are often referred to as cannon ball metastases.

85
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

Presence of air in the pleural cavity. Atelectasis proportional to the amount of air in the cavities always accompanies pneumothorax. Pneumothorax can be spontaneous or traumatic. In animals it is usually caused by traumatic rupture of the lung or perforation of the thoracic wall.

86
Q

what are Hydrothorax, chylothorax and haemothorax?

A

Non inflammatory pleural effusions. Hydrothorax is the accumulation of oedema fluid and has the same causes as oedema elsewhere. Chylothorax is the accumulation of chylomicron rich lymph generally through traumatic or inflammatory rupture of the thoracic lymphatic duct. Haemothorax is the presence of blood in the pleural cavity.

87
Q

What is pleuritis?

A

Inflammation of the pleura. Inflammatory agents reach the pleura by; extension from pneumonia, bloodstream, trans-diaphragmatic lymphatics from peritoneal cavity, penetration of the chest, penetration from oesophagus or abdominal viscus. Purulent and fibrinous pleuritis are common acute forms.

88
Q

What is pyothorax? (thoracic empyema)

A

A purulent effusion in the pleural space. In horses it is usually secondary to pneumonia or lung abscesses. Streptococci most common.

89
Q

Describe neoplasia of the pleural cavity

A

Mesothelioma - most common in calves, often causes thoracic effusion, multiple nodular masses on pleural surface, diagnosis can be difficult due to cytological similarity of reactive and neoplastic mesothelial cells.