Respiratory - Lung Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

An infection of the lung tissue, causing inflammation and inflammatory exudate formation within the airways and alveoli.

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2
Q

How is pneumonia classified?

A

Community acquired pneumonia: if the pneumonia developed outside of hospital, or within the first 48h of admission.

Hospital acquired pneumonia: if the pneumonia develops more than 48h after hospital admission.

Aspiration pneumonia: if the pneumonia develops after inhaling a foreign material such as food.

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3
Q

What are the common causes of community acquired pneumonia?

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae (~50%)
  • Haemophilus influenzae (~20%)
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4
Q

What are the common causes of hospital acquired pneumonia?

A
  • Escherichia coli
  • MRSA
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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5
Q

Presentation of pneumonia.

A
  • SOB
  • cough productive of sputum
  • fever
  • haemoptysis
  • pleuritic chest pain
  • delirium
  • sepsis
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6
Q

Signs of pneumonia.

A
  • bronchial breath sounds
  • focal course crackles upon auscultation
  • dullness to percussion
  • tachypnoea
  • tachycardia
  • hypoxia
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7
Q

How does NICE suggest pneumonia severity is assessed?

A

CURB-65 score:

Confusion
Urea >7mmol/L
Respiratory rate ≥30/min
Blood pressure <90/60mmHg
65yrs in age (or over)

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8
Q

A 81 year old patient presents with a productive cough and fever. Upon auscultation of the chest, you hear bronchial breath sounds and course crackles in the left lower lobe.

You note the following observations from your clinical examination and investigations:

No new confusion;
Urea 6.3mmol/L
Respiratory rate 29/min
Blood pressure 110/80mmHg

In which setting should this patient be managed?

A

CURB-65 score 1: consider treatment at home

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9
Q

A 55 year old patient presents with a productive cough and fever. Upon auscultation of the chest, you hear bronchial breath sounds and course crackles in the left lower lobe.

You note the following observations from your clinical examination and investigations:

No new confusion;
Urea 7.2mmol/L
Respiratory rate 26/min
Blood pressure 88/62mmHg

In which setting should this patient be managed?

A

CURB-65 score ≥2: consider hospital admission

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10
Q

A 75 year old patient presents with a productive cough and fever. Upon auscultation of the chest, you hear bronchial breath sounds and course crackles in the left lower lobe.

His past medical history is significant for a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s.

You note the following observations from your clinical examination and investigations:

Patient is confused, but wife states no more than usual
Urea 7.8mmol/L
Respiratory rate 25/min
Blood pressure 96/57mmHg

How is should this patient be best managed?

A

CURB-65 score ≥3: consider intensive care assessment

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11
Q

How should mild pneumonia be investigated?

A

Patients in the community with CRB of 0 or 1 do not necessarily need investigations. If CRB warrants hospital admission:

  • CXR
  • FBC (raised white cells; infection)
  • U&Es (urea)
  • CRP (raised in inflammation and infection)
  • ABG if SpO2 <94%
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12
Q

How should moderate / severe pneumonia be investigated?

A
  • CXR
  • FBC (raised white cells; infection)
  • U&Es (urea)
  • CRP (raised in inflammation and infection)
  • ABG if SpO2 <94%

PLUS

  • sputum cultures
  • blood cultures
  • serology and urine screen for atypical causes (e.g. Legionella)
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13
Q

How should low-severity community acquired pneumonia be managed (UHL, 2023)?

A

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS PO for 5 days.

Doxycycline 100mg OD PO for 4 days if penicillin allergic.

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14
Q

How should moderate-severity community acquired pneumonia be managed (UHL, 2023)?

A

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS + Doxycycline 100mg OD, PO for 5 days.

Clarithromycin 500mg BD + Doxycycline 100mg OD, PO for 5 days if penicillin allergic.

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15
Q

How should severe community acquired pneumonia be managed (UHL, 2023)?

A

Co-amoxiclav 1.2g TDS IV + Clarithromycin 500mg BD PO, for 5 days.

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16
Q

What are the most common causes of pneumonia in:

a) immunocompromised patients or those with chronic pulmonary disease

b) patients with cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis

A

a) Moraxella catarrhalis

b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Staphylococcus aureus

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17
Q

What is atypical pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia caused by an organism that cannot be cultured in the normal way, or detected using a gram stain.

They tend to not respond to penicillins, however can be treated with macrolides (ie. clarithromycin), fluoroquinolones (ie. levofloxacin) or tetracyclines (ie. doxycycline).

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18
Q

What are the causes of atypical pneumonia?

A
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • Chlamydia psittaci
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Chalmydophila pneumoniae
  • Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)

“Legions of psittaci MCQs”

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19
Q

What is Legionnaire’s disease?

A

A form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pnuemophila, contracted from contaminated water supplies or air conditioning units.

It can cause SIADH, causing a dilutional hyponatraemia. This can cause dangerous electrolyte imbalanaces and subsequent arrhythmias.

The typical exam patient has recently had a cheap hotel holiday / travel history, and presents with hyponatraemia.

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20
Q

Which extra-respiratory signs are likely to be seen in pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A
  • erythema multiforme (pink rings with pale centres)
  • neurological symptoms
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21
Q

What is the typical aetiology of fungal pneumonia, and in which patient population is it typically seen?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP) pneumonia occurs in patients that are immunocompromised, in particular those with poorly controlled or new HIV and a low CD4 count.

It usually presents subtly with a dry cough, shortness of breath upon exertion and night sweats.

Treatment is with co-trimoxazole, which can also be prescribed prophylactically to patients with low CD4 counts.

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22
Q

What are some causes of non-resolving pneumonia?

A

CHAOS

Complication, for example lung empyema or abscess

Host immunocompromised

Antibiotic, inadequate dose, coverage or poor absorption

Organism, resistant or not covered by empirical abx

Second diagnosis, PE, cancer

23
Q

What is coronavirus disease (COVID-19)?

A

An infectious disease caused by SARS-CoV-2 virus, causing viral pneumonia.

24
Q

What features indicate a patient with COVID-19 may require hospital admission?

A
  • hypoxia
  • lymphocytopenia
  • bilateral, lower zone changes on CXR
25
Q

What is the management of COVID-19?

A
  • vaccination
  • oxygen supplementation (ie. NRB, CPAP, invasive ventilation)
  • dexamethasone + remdesivir
  • abx if secondary bacterial infection
26
Q

What is the causative organism of Tuberculosis (TB)?

Give the microscopy findings of this organism.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Gram negative, acid-fast bacillus

27
Q

Risk factors for tuberculosis.

A
  • known contact with active TB
  • immigrants from areas of high TB incidence
  • foreign travel to areas of high TB incidence
  • ## immunosuppression (e.g. HIV, corticosteroids, diabetes mellitus)
28
Q

Presentation of tuberculosis.

A
  • lethargy
  • fever or night sweats
  • weight loss
  • cough with or without haemoptysis
  • lymphadenopathy
  • erythema nodosum
  • spinal pain in spinal TB (also known as Pott’s disease of the spine)
29
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for haemoptysis.

A
  • pneumonia
  • tuberculosis
  • bronchiectasis
  • lung cancer
  • pulmonary haemorrhage
  • pulmonary embolism
30
Q

What is meant by the following terms?

a) active TB

b) latent TB

c) secondary TB

d) miliary TB

A

a) occurs when there is active tuberculosis infection, with the immune system able to kill and clear the infection.

b) granulomas form around the tuberculosis to stop the progression of the disease, allowing it to lye dormant.

c) occurs when latent TB reactivates.

d) occurs if the immune system is unable to control the disease, allowing it to disseminate extra-pulmonary.

31
Q

Why is the most common site for TB infection the lungs?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria have high oxygen demands, so tend to stay within the lungs where there is a high PAO2.

32
Q

Give some sites of extra-pulmonary TB.

A
  • lymph nodes
  • pleura
  • central nervous system
  • bones and joints (Potts disease)
  • gastrointestinal system
33
Q

How should tuberculosis be investigated?

A
  • Mantoux test
  • interferon gamma release assay
  • CXR
  • sputum cultures (3x samples for acid-fast staining)
  • mycobacterium blood cultures
  • lymph node aspiration of biopsy
  • NAAT
  • HIV (immunosuppression)
34
Q

What is the Mantoux test?

A

Used to look for a previous immune response to TB, so will be positive if there is latent or active TB, or due to previous vaccination.

The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin into the forearm, and looking for >5mm skin induration.

After a positive result, a patient should be assessed for active disease.

35
Q

What is the interferon-gamma release assay test?

A

A blood sample is taken from the patient and mixed with antigens from the TB bacteria. In a person who has had previous contact with TB, the white blood cells will be sensitised and so will release interferon-gamma as part of an immune response.

If interferon-gamma is released, this is considered a positive result. The IGRA test is used in patients who do not have features of active TB, but do have a positive Mantoux test to confirm a diagnosis of latent TB.

36
Q

What CXR findings are consistent with a diagnosis of primary tuberculosis?

A
  • patchy consolidation
  • pleural effusions
  • hilar lymphadenopathy
37
Q

What CXR findings are consistent with a diagnosis of reactivated tuberculosis?

A
  • patchy consolidation with cavitation
  • typically in upper zones
38
Q

What CXR findings are consistent with a diagnosis of miliary tuberculosis?

A
  • ‘millet seeds’ uniformly distributed throughout the lung fields

TOM TIP: Disseminated miliary TB gives quite a characteristic appearance on a chest xray. This makes it a popular spot diagnosis in exams so it is worth looking at some pictures and remembering this.

39
Q

What are the principles of tuberculosis management?

A
  • A-E approach
  • isolate patient (PPE, negative pressure side room)
  • test contacts for TB
  • notify Public Health of all suspected cases, within 3 days
  • management and followup should be guided by specialist MDT
40
Q

Which antibiotics should be used to treat acute pulmonary tuberculosis?

A

RIPE:

Rifampicin for 6 months
Isoniazid for 6 months
Pyrazinamide for 2 months
Ethambutol for 2 months

TOM TIP: Remember that isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy and pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is usually co-prescribed prophylactically to help prevent this. An exam question might ask “they are started on R, I, P and E, what should also be prescribed?” The answer would be pyridoxine.

41
Q

What are the side effects of rifampicin?

A
  • red / orange discolouration of secretions (e.g. urine, tears)
  • P450 inducer, so reduces effect of drugs metabolised (eg. warfarin, OCP)
  • hepatotoxic (LFT monitoring)

“red-an-orange-pissin”

42
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazide?

A
  • peripheral neuropathy (pyridoxine co-prescriped)
  • hepatotoxic (LFT monitoring)
  • psychosis

“I’m-so-numb-azid”

43
Q

What are the side effects of pyrazinamide?

A
  • hyperuricaemia (causing gout)
  • hepatotoxic (LFT monitoring)
44
Q

What are the side effects of ethanbutol?

A
  • colour blindness
  • reduced visual acuity

Check visual acuity before giving ethanbutol.

45
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Chronic dilatation of one or more bronchi, causing poor mucus clearance and predisposition to recurrent or chronic bacterial infection.

46
Q

What are the causes of bronchiectasis?

A
  • post infective
  • immune deficiency
  • primary ciliary dyskinesia
  • obstruction
  • toxic insult
  • rheumatoid arthritis
47
Q

How should bronchiectasis be investigated?

A

High resolution CT is GOLD STANDARD

On CT, signet ring sign will be present.

48
Q

Give some common organisms that cause bronchiectasis.

A

Haemophilus influenzae (most common)

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • non-tuberculous Mycobacteria
49
Q

How is bronchiectasis managed?

A
  • treat underlying cause
  • respiratory physiotherapy to improve mucus clearance
  • sputum culture to influence treatment

10-14 day course of antibiotics according to sputum cultures.

50
Q

Abx regime for bronchiectasis with Haemophilus influenzae as the causative organism (UHL, 2023).

A

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 10 days

If penicillin allergic, doxycycline 100mg OD for 10 days.

51
Q

Abx regime for bronchiectasis with Pseudomonas aeruginosa as the causative organism (UHL, 2023).

A

Ciprofloxacin 500mg BD for 10-14 days.

Patients should be counselled on rare side effect of Achilles tendonitis.

52
Q

How can acute exacerbations of bronchiectasis be avoided?

A
  • prophylactic antibiotics
  • flu and covid vaccination
  • SABA INH as required
  • pulmonary rehabilitation if MRC dyspnoea score ≥3
53
Q

What are the characteristics of an infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis?

A

Deterioration in 3 or more key symptoms for at least 48 hours:
- cough
- sputum volume / consistency
- sputum purulence
- breathlessness
- fatigue
- haemoptysis

54
Q

What is allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction that occurs following inhalation of Aspergillus fumigatu, seen commonly in patients with asthma, bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis.

Repeated damage from immunological reactions leads to bronchiectasis.