Respiratory Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

What is bronchoscopy?

A

A diagnostic procedure used to obtain a small amount of lung tissue and fluid samples

Flexible bronchoscopy visualizes the lumen and mucosa of the trachea and airways.

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2
Q

When is bronchoscopy indicated?

A

Suspected lung cancer, mycobacterial disease, immunocompromised patients, refractory consolidation, significant hemoptysis

Ideally performed within 7 working days after decision.

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3
Q

What does a CRB65 score assess?

A

Mortality risk in patients with pneumonia based on confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age

Scoring: 0 = low risk, 1-2 = intermediate risk, 3-4 = high risk.

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4
Q

What are the indications for sputum culture in primary care?

A

Moderate- or high-severity community-acquired pneumonia

Blood and sputum cultures should be taken; consider urinary antigen tests.

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5
Q

What types of sputum are indicative of infection?

A

Rusty colored (pneumococcal), purulent (yellow-greenish), white milky (viral), foamy white (heart failure)

Bloody hemoptysis may suggest TB, lung cancer, or pulmonary embolism.

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6
Q

What is the significance of Gram staining in sputum analysis?

A

Differentiates bacteria by cell wall properties

Normal sputum should have >25 leukocytes and <10 epithelial cells per low power field.

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7
Q

What are the types of specimens for sputum culture?

A

Expectorated, transtracheal aspirates, translaryngeal aspirates, bronchoalveolar lavage

Saliva is not considered sputum.

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8
Q

What is the definition of asthma?

A

A heterogeneous disease characterized by chronic airways inflammation and variable respiratory symptoms

Symptoms include wheeze, shortness of breath, chest-tightness, and cough.

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9
Q

What is the FEV1/FVC ratio in the diagnosis of COPD?

A

≤ 0.7 and is incompletely reversible after bronchodilators

Indicates obstructive airway disease.

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10
Q

What are the key features of obstructive lung disease?

A

Narrowed airways, difficulty exhaling, hyperinflation, increased residual volume

Examples include asthma and emphysema.

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11
Q

What are the key features of restrictive lung disease?

A

Reduced lung expansion, difficulty inhaling, normal FEV1/FVC ratio

Examples include interstitial lung disease and obesity hypoventilation syndrome.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of lung function tests?

A

To measure how much air a patient can breathe out and how quickly

Vital for diagnosing obstructive and restrictive lung diseases.

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13
Q

What is the role of sputum culture in secondary care?

A

Used when patients are not responding to treatment or have specific risk factors

Helps manage pneumonia, bronchiectasis, bronchitis, or pulmonary abscess.

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14
Q

What is the significance of a positive acid-fast stain?

A

Indicates the presence of tuberculosis

Requires special media for culture and incubation for at least 6 weeks.

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15
Q

What is the expected outcome of a normal sputum culture?

A

Presence of normal upper respiratory tract flora

Includes Neisseria catarrhalis, Candida albicans, and some staphylococci.

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16
Q

What is the importance of follow-up chest X-ray after pneumonia?

A

To confirm resolution of pneumonia radiologically

Recommended 6 weeks after initial diagnosis.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of a flow-volume loop in spirometry?

A

To assess airflow obstruction and lung function

Helps differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases.

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18
Q

What is the significance of the FEV1 value in grading COPD severity?

A

FEV1 values categorize severity as mild, moderate, severe, or very severe

FEV1 > 80% is mild; FEV1 < 30% is severe.

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19
Q

What is the recommended action for a patient with worsening asthma symptoms?

A

Order spirometry to assess lung function

Helps in diagnosing and managing asthma.

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20
Q

What is the definition of sputum?

A

Material expelled from the respiratory tract, not saliva

Quality and quantity are crucial for effective analysis.

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21
Q

What are the contraindications for spirometry testing?

A

Active infection, pneumothorax, recent surgery

Ensures patient safety during the procedure.

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22
Q

What is asthma?

A

Asthma is a disease with many variations, usually characterised by chronic airways inflammation.

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23
Q

What are the two key defining features of asthma?

A
  • A history of respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, shortness of breath, chest-tightness, and cough that vary over time and intensity
  • Variable expiratory airflow limitation
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24
Q

What tests are used to investigate asthma?

A
  • Peak flow
  • Exhaled Nitric Oxide Testing (FeNO)
  • Spirometry
  • Bronchodilator reversibility (BDR)
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25
Q

What does peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measure?

A

The maximum someone can exhale with a full inspiration and a short maximal expiratory effort.

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26
Q

Describe the technique for measuring peak flow.

A
  • Move peak flow meter indicator to zero
  • Sit or stand up straight
  • Take a deep breath in
  • Place peak flow meter into the mouth with a tight seal
  • Blow out hard and fast using chest and belly muscles for no more than two seconds
  • Repeat three times and take the highest value
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27
Q

How long should a peak flow diary be maintained to help confirm a diagnosis of asthma?

28
Q

What does a variable peak expiratory flow (PEF) reading indicate?

A

It can support an asthma diagnosis if there is diagnostic uncertainty after initial assessment.

29
Q

What is considered a positive result for variability in peak flow readings?

A

More than 20% variability after monitoring at least twice daily for 2-4 weeks.

30
Q

What does a FeNO level of 40 parts per billion (ppb) or higher indicate in adults?

A

It is considered a positive result confirming eosinophilic airway inflammation.

31
Q

What is the significance of spirometry in asthma diagnosis?

A

It is used to detect airway obstruction, with a FEV1/FVC ratio normally greater than 70%.

32
Q

What does a normal spirometry result when asymptomatic indicate?

A

It does not rule out asthma.

33
Q

What does bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) measure?

A

The increase in expiratory airflow in response to an inhaled short-acting bronchodilator.

34
Q

What is a positive result for bronchodilator reversibility in adults?

A

An improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more, and an increase of at least 200 mL in response to beta-2 agonists or corticosteroids.

35
Q

What FEV1/FVC ratio indicates obstructive disease?

A

A ratio of less than 0.70.

36
Q

What does an FEV1 increase of greater than 400 mL strongly suggest?

37
Q

What is the diagnosis if FEV1/FVC is <0.70 and FEV1 increases <12% and <200 mL after bronchodilator administration?

38
Q

Fill in the blank: A FeNO level of _______ is considered a positive result in children.

39
Q

True or False: A normal FVC indicates that the patient does not have asthma.

40
Q

What should be considered if FEV1/FVC is <0.70 and FEV1 increases >12% and >200 mL?

A

Look at history and level of change to differentiate between asthma and COPD.

41
Q

What are the main objectives in investigating infectious respiratory diseases?

A

Identify and investigate patients with:
* Tuberculosis
* Malaria
* Cystic fibrosis
* Whooping cough
* Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

Recognise the indication for viral respiratory PCR and COVID-19 investigation in secondary care.

42
Q

How many people are estimated to be infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis globally?

A

Two billion people

This is over a quarter of the global population.

43
Q

Which countries account for two-thirds of global tuberculosis cases?

A
  • India
  • Indonesia
  • China
  • The Philippines
  • Pakistan
  • Nigeria
  • Bangladesh
  • South Africa
44
Q

What was the global death toll from tuberculosis in 2019?

A

1.4 million people

45
Q

What are common risk factors for tuberculosis?

A
  • Time spent in a high incidence country
  • TB contact
  • Current/history of being unhoused
  • Imprisonment
  • Drug or alcohol misuse
46
Q

What are the symptoms of active tuberculosis?

A
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Cough (pulmonary)
  • Headache
  • Lethargy
  • Vomiting
  • Confusion
  • Seizures
  • Coma
47
Q

What tests are arranged if active tuberculosis is suspected?

A
  • Chest x-ray
  • Three respiratory sputum samples

For microscopy, culture, or specialist molecular tests.

48
Q

What is the purpose of the Mantoux test?

A

To screen for latent tuberculosis

49
Q

What does a positive Mantoux test indicate?

A

Induration ≥5mm

50
Q

What are acid fast bacilli (AFB)?

A

Rod-shaped bacteria that can be seen under a microscope following a staining procedure

51
Q

What is the stain used to visualize AFBs?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN)

52
Q

What is the treatment regimen for active tuberculosis?

A
  • Rifampicin
  • Isoniazid
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol (or Moxifloxacin)

Monitor LFTs and color vision (Ethambutol).

53
Q

What is the definition of malaria?

A

A disease caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites.

54
Q

What should be suspected in anyone with a fever following travel to an endemic area?

55
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for malaria?

A

Thick and thin blood film microscopy

56
Q

What is the universal newborn screening test for cystic fibrosis in the UK?

A

Blood spot immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) concentration

57
Q

What is the average incidence of cystic fibrosis in the UK?

A

1 in every 2,500 babies

58
Q

What is the main cause of cystic fibrosis?

A

Mutations in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7

59
Q

What are the stages of whooping cough?

A
  • Catarrhal stage
  • Paroxysmal stage
  • Convalescent stage
60
Q

What is the causative organism of whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertussis

61
Q

What is the typical presentation of whooping cough?

A

Cough that is not improving, whoop, apnoea, post-tussive vomiting, cyanosis

62
Q

What is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

An inherited autosomal recessive disorder affecting the protein produced in the liver that protects tissues

63
Q

What is a common presenting symptom of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Dyspnoea, cough, sputum production

64
Q

What tests are performed to diagnose alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A
  • Serum level of alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • Lung function tests
  • Imaging
  • Skin biopsy
65
Q

What are the indications for performing a viral respiratory PCR?

A

Acute history of:
* Fever
* Headache
* Cough
* Sore throat
* Myalgia
* Coryzal symptoms

66
Q

What is the first-line test for SARS-CoV-2 virus?

A

Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)

67
Q

What are common symptoms that may prompt testing for COVID-19?

A
  • New continuous cough
  • Temperature >37.8°C
  • Loss of, or change in, sense of smell or taste