Respiratory Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient is breathing fairly adequately, how should you manage their airway? In other words, what’s the first line of airway management?

A

give supplemental osygen with nasal cannula or a mask and reposition the patient to maximize air exchange

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2
Q

If the patient’s breathing is labored, but their airway is still intact, what’s the next step you can take beyond cannula or mask?

A

consider assisting their breathing with CPAP or BiPAP

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3
Q

How do CPAP and BiPAP differ?

A

CPAP is continuous positive airway pressure and bipap will have positive pressure during inspiration and then let up on the pressure during expiration

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4
Q

If you have to intubate someone, how can you assist oxygenation prior to doing so?

A

Using a bag-valve mask

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5
Q

What are four examples of trauma injuries that often require airway management?

A

facial traumas
neck injuries
flail check
burns

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6
Q

What are some illnesses leading to hypoxia requiring airway management?

A
pulmonary edema
COPD
aspiration
infeciton
drugs
allergid reactions - anaphylaxis and angioedema
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7
Q

What is one class of drug that is particularly bad for causing angioedema - even years after stopping the drug?

A

ACE inhibitors

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8
Q

What are some mechanical reasons to manage an airwa?

A
  1. comrpession of the airway by infection

2. partial or complete obstruction secondary to foreign body or infections like epiglotitis or trachiitis

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9
Q

What are 4 signs that someone isn’t protecting their airways?

A

decreased LOC (GCS less than 8)
absence of protective reflexes (gag or cough)
apnea
hypoventilation leading to hypercapnia and hypoxia

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10
Q

What are 3 primary reasons not to intubate?

A
  1. patient is protecting their airway adequately
  2. oxygenation can occur by other less invasive means
  3. DNI
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11
Q

Where do you place an endotracheal tube? How do you know if it’s gone too far?

A

You want it to go down the trachea to above the carina.

if you pushed too far, it will go down the right main bronchus so you will only hear breath sounds on the right and not the left - just pull back a bit

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12
Q

When should you switch to the back-up plan?

A

if you fail intubation a second time

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13
Q

What are the “back-ups” to intubation?

A

combitube
king airway
laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

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14
Q

How does a combitube work?

A

same concept - there’s a distal cuff that will obstruct the esophagus and a proximal cuff that obstructs the mouth so the only place the air can go is down the trachea

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15
Q

Describe a king airway?

A

same concept as a combitube, but the actually tube used is less complex. cuffs are inflated afterward

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16
Q

Describe a laryngeal mask airway. Who uses it?

A

there’s a leaf-like thing that covers over the esophagus. you can do a blind insertion - doesn’t need to go past the vocal chords. Anesthesiologists like this.

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17
Q

If all else fails, what can you do?

A

cricothyroidotomy

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18
Q

Describe someone who is a potentially difficult intubation?

A
short neck
prominent upper incisors
receding mandible
limited jaw opening
limited cervical spine mobility

(an ape)

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19
Q

What is rapid sequential intubation?

A

basically a list of drugs you should use in intubation

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20
Q

What is the depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

A

succinylcholine

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21
Q

Describe succinylcholine’s mechanism of action

A

it’s an ultrashort-acting skeletal muscle relaxant that combines with cholinergic receptors at the motor endplate to produce flaccid paralysis - binds even more firmly to the receptor than acetylcholine

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22
Q

How is succinylcholine broken down?

A

rapidly by pseudocholinesterases into succinylmonocholine

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23
Q

How can you see the depolarizing action at the muscle’s motor endplate?

A

clinically visible muscle fasiculations

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24
Q

How long does it take for succinylcholine to take effect? How long does it last?

A

takes effect in 30-60 seconds, so optimal intubating ocnditions occur at 60-90 seconds

paralysis usually lasts 8-12 minutes

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25
Q

What might make the paralysis longer than 12 minutes for sucicnylcholine?

A

inherited or acquired pseudocholinesterase deficiency

26
Q

What are the sid eeffects of succinylcholine/

A

bradycardia (treat with atropine)
increased pressures (gastric, cranial, and ocular)
hyperkalemia and related effects
fever

27
Q

What’s the mnemonic for succinylcholine “appearance”

A

eyes like a mole, moist as a slug (salivation, lacrimation, urination and defacation), weak as a kitten

28
Q

What are the two nondepolarizing neuromusclar blockers?

A

vecuronium

rocuronium

29
Q

How does vecuronium work? Onset? Duration?

A

Competes for cholinergic receptors are motor endplate initiating flaccid paralysis

onset in about 2 minutes - so you have to wait
duraiton of action 25-40 minutes (but complete recovery takes 45-60)

30
Q

How is vecuronium metabolized and how does this affect recovery time?

A

metabolized by the liver and the kidneys

renal failure doesn’t significantly affect recovery time, but liver failure can double it

31
Q

Why is rocuronium better than vecuronium?

A

it’s unique among the non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents because it’s onset of action is almost as quick as that of succinylcholine - onset is within 15-20 seconds with complete paralysis at 45-60 seconds

32
Q

What’s the duration fo action for rocuronium?

A

25-60 minutes

33
Q

True or false: vecuronium does not cause hypotension or tachycardia.

A

true

34
Q

What makes the ideal sedative for intubation purposes?

A

very rapid onset (within 20-30 seconds)

relatively short half-life

35
Q

What’s an example of a barbiturate used for sedation in intubation?

A

thiopental

36
Q

What’s the onset for thipental?

A

peak concentrations in the brain achieved within 30 seconds

37
Q

What is the main side effect of thiopental (and other barbs)?

A

hypotension

38
Q

What does ketamine do?

A

disrupts conduction between the thalamocortical access - induces a disassociative state in which the patient is unaware of any sensory or painful stimuli

39
Q

When do we usually use ketamine?

A

sedation and analgesia for children unergoing lacceration repairs, fracture relocations or other painful procedures

40
Q

What is the onset and duration for ketamine?

A

optimal intubating at 30 seconds with peaking at 60-90 seconds. effect lasts for 5 to 10 minutes

41
Q

What are some other useful qualities of ketamine?

A

it’s mildly sympathomimeti, so it’s useful in trauma for hypotensive state and for bronchodilation in asthmatics

42
Q

What are the main side effects of ketamine?

A
  1. bad trips - hallucinations, irrational behavior
  2. hypertension
  3. increased upper airway secretions - they drool
43
Q

How do you treat the bad trips on ketamine?

A

co-administration of benzodiazepines

44
Q

What benzo do we use for intubation?

A

midazolam - a short-acting CNS depressant that also causes a lack of recall

45
Q

Whats the onset for midazolam?

A

2-2.5 minutes

46
Q

What’s the side effect for midazolam?

A

may produce a slight drop in mean arterial pressure

47
Q

What are the two non-receptor, rapid acting sedative hypnotics?

A

propofol

etomidate

48
Q

How does propofol work?

A

it’s extremely lipophylic, so it will infiltrate itself directly into the lipid bilayer of the nerve’s cell membrane and disrupt nerve conduction.

49
Q

When it propofol’s onset of action?

A

within on circulation time between the heart and brain, so 10-20 seconds with peak effect between 20-40

50
Q

How long is the duration?

A

8 minutes or less - great for short procedures like cardioversion

51
Q

What are the side effects of propofol?

A

apnea

potential cardiovascular depressant - transient hypotension is common

52
Q

What are the other helpful effects of propofol?

A

anti-convulsants (used in status)
profound anti-emetic
can lower intracranial pressure

in general: useful in brief procedures

53
Q

What is etomidate an dexample of?

A

an imidazole - rapid acting hypnotic unrelated to all others

54
Q

Etomidate onset of action? Duration?

A

20-30 seconds

lasts 20 minutes

55
Q

Why is etomidate ideal for hypovolemic patients or those in hemorrhagic shock?

A

it doesn’t produce cardiovascular depression

56
Q

What are the side-effects for etomidate?

A

vomiting and myoclonus

57
Q

What’s an example of a typical RSI protocol?

A

-3.00 Preoxygenate, IV lines, monitor, oximetry, equipment including that for emergency surgical airway control
-0.55 Etomidate
-0.45 Succinylcholine
0.00 Intubation
+0.30 Assess tube placement
+8.0 Check patient’s temperature (because of succinylcholine)

58
Q

What does the I SOAP ME mnemonic tell you for intubation prep?

A
I - IV
S - suction
O - oxygen (at 15 l/m)
A - airways - get your tube and backups
P - pharmacology
M - monitors
E - examine patient
59
Q

What do we usually pretreat patients with before RSI. It’s optional….

A

lidocaine to blunt the ICP/cough/bronchospasm

fentanyl to blunt ICP and for sedation/analgesia

THEN WAIT FOR EFFECT

60
Q

What is the gold standard for confirming tube placement?

A

visualization of tube through cords

can also check breath sounds in both axillae and not over stomach, correct PaCO2 with detector or bulb suction