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SAM 1 > Respiratory Diseases > Flashcards

Respiratory Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

True or False

  1. Nasal neoplasia can result in exophthalmia, facial distortion, and sneezing
  2. The main clinical sign associated with nasal mites is sneezing
  3. Nasal aspergillus does not respond to systemic anti-fungal therapy
  4. “Wisp of cotton” in front of nares could indicate obstructive process if “wisp” does not move with dog’s breaths
A
  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True
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2
Q

How is the rabies virus spread?

a) Airborne
b) Feces
c) Bite wounds
d) Ingestion of food

A

c) Bite wounds

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3
Q

What is the incubation period for rabies viral infection in dogs and cats?

a) 1 to 3 weeks
b) 8 to 12 weeks
c) 3 to 8 weeks
d) 6 to 10 weeks

A

c) 3 to 8 weeks

Normally takes around 50 days

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4
Q

Which phase of rabies viral infection shows hypersalivation and the inability to swallow?

a) Prodromal phase
b) Furious/psychotic phase
c) Paralytic/dumb phase
d) Incubation phase

A

c) Paralytic/dumb phase

Causes hypersalivation to spread to other animals

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5
Q

The local pig farmer brings in his new Border Collie for vaccination. The dog eats raw pork frequently. Which additional vaccination would you recommend?

a) Borreliosis
b) Porcine herpesvirus-1
c) Swine influenza virus
d) Trypanosomiasis

A

b) Porcine herpesvirus-1

Done to avoid pseudorabies infection

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a way to diagnosis Giardiasis?

a) Fecal microscopy
b) Fecal concentration technique
c) Fecal PCR
d) Serum antibody ELISA test

A

d) Serum antibody ELISA test

Giardia is within the GIT

Do not normally produce a detectable amount of antibodies

Can do a fecal ELISA antigen test

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7
Q

Neosporosis in dogs classically shows 2 system deficits/abnormalities. One is neurological, the other is:

a) Muscular
b) Hepatic
c) Pulmonary
d) Myocardial

A

a) Muscular

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8
Q

A radiograph suggests Hepatozoon americanum infection - what does it show?

a) Osteolytic changes near end plates
b) Hypertrophic osteopathy around distal limbs
c) Osteopenia of all skeletal bones
d) Periosteal reactions near muscle attachments

A

d) Periosteal reactions near muscle attachments

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9
Q

True or False: Nasal neoplasia can result in exophthalmia, facial distortion, and sneezing

A

True

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10
Q

True or False: The main clinical sign associated with nasal mites is sneezing

A

True

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11
Q

True or False: Nasal aspergillus does not respond to systemic anti-fungal therapy

A

False

While they do respond, anti-fungals are very expensive and not often utilized

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12
Q

True or False: “Wisp of cotton” in front of nares could indicate an obstructive process if “wisp” does not move with dog’s breaths

A

True

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13
Q

Signalment: 12 month old Maltese

Complaint: coughing once a week; sometimes yellow nasal discharge

Hx: Same problem at 10 weeks of age, 4 months, 6 months, and 9 months; always responds to antibiotics; is currently on heartworm prevention

PE: Crackles in cranioventral lung field; cannot elicit a cough on tracheal palpation

Thoracic rad: broncho-pneumonia, most likely bacterial based on pattern

Which of the following differentials is MOST likely?

a) Lymphocytic plasmacytic rhinitis
b) Aspergillosis
c) Nasal foreign body
d) Ciliary dyskinesia
e) Pneumonyssus caninum

A

d) Ciliary dyskinesia
a) Lymphocytic plasmacytic rhinitis –> does not respond well to antibiotics; commonly in older animals
b) Aspergillosis –> young dogs, but usually in dolichocephalics
c) Nasal foreign body –> possible, but not most likely
e) Pneumonyssus caninum –> main CS = sneezing

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14
Q

Which treatment(s) would most likely increasethe lifespan for a 10 year old Collie diagnosed with nasal adenocarcinoma?

a) Rhinoscopy
b) Chemotherapy
c) Surgcal debulking with chemo
d) Surgical debulking with radiation
e) Radiation and chemotherapy

A

d) Surgical debulking with radiation

Radiation therapy is very important for adenocarcinomas! Chemotherapy is not helpful with adenocarcinomas

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15
Q

What is the term used to describe strange breathing characterized by sternal recumbency, abducted elbows, and an extended neck with open-mouth breathing?

a) Tachypnea
b) Orthopnea
c) Dyspnea
d) Eupnea

A

b) Orthopnea

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16
Q

Phoebe, a Dachshund, presents wth a nasal discharge, sneezing, a stertor, and rubbing her face. Where is the lesion most likely?

a) The eye
b) The nose
c) The pharynx
d) The trachea

A

b) The nose

Sneezing = upper respiratory

Stertor (snoring) = usually soft tissue swelling in the nasal cavity

Rubbing her nose

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17
Q

A snoring noise is heard on inspiration. What is the name of this noise?

a) Stridor
b) Stertor
c) Reverse sneeze
d) Cough

A

b) Stertor

Stertor = low-pitched noise

Stridor = high-pitched noise due to hitting a structure

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18
Q

On auscultation of the thorax, you hear a high-pitched noise in inspiration and expiration in the pulmonary fields. What is this called?

a) Snap
b) Crackle
c) Wheeze
d) Normal

A

c) Wheeze

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19
Q

Fido, a 6 year old large breed dog presents with epistaxis. CBC and coagulation tests find no abnormalities. Which one of the following diagnostic tests has the best chance of aiding in your diagnosis?

a) Rhinoscopy
b) Nasal radiographs
c) Nasal CT
d) Nasal flush

A

c) Nasal Ct

Able to differentiate the problems; rhinoscopy may or may not show anything significant, depending on the patient and the extent of damage

20
Q

A cat has snuffles and you want to get a diagnosis to understand the etiology. What test would you recommend?

a) Nasal rhinoscopy
b) Thoracic radiographs
c) Nasal and ocular swab for PCR
d) Head CT

A

c) Nasal and ocular swab for PCR

21
Q

A dog has been diagnosed with nasal aspergillosis. There is no evidence of cribiform plate destruction. How would you treat this?

a) Fluconazole for 3 - 4 months
b) Posaconazole for 4 - 6 weeks
c) Enilconazole nasal soak
d) Debridement and local clotrimazole soak

A

d) Debridement and local clotrimazole soak

Need to remove as much of the fungal plaques as possible

22
Q

A cat presents with rhinotracheitis. It has a nasal discharge, multiple oral ulcerations, and has a cough. Which of the following is most likely?

a) Feline herpes virus
b) Feline calicivirus
c) Chlamydophila felis
d) Bordetella bronchiseptica

A

b) Feline calicivirus

23
Q

True or False: Nasal adenocarcinoma is the most common neoplasm in a dog’s nose

A

True

24
Q

Adenocarcinoma is common in the nose of a cat. Which other neoplasm is common in the nost of a cat?

a) Squamous cell carcinoma
b) Fibroma
c) Lymphoma
d) Sarcoma

A

c) Lymphoma

25
Q

Treatment for feline idiopathic bronchitis initially consists of possible bronchodilator and _________?

a) Parenteral or oral prednisolone
b) MDI corticosteroids
c) Oral prednisolone and MDI corticosteroids
d) Leukotriene antagonists

A

c) Oral prednisolone and MDI corticosteroids

Start with oral steroids, then you can use the meter-dose inhaler

26
Q

How does a dog get infected with Paragonimus?

a) Eat infected snails
b) Eats freshwater crustaceans
c) Eats contaminated canine feces
d) Eats transport hosts (birds)

A

b) Eats freshwater crustaceans

Snail = 1st host of the life cycle, which releases the metacercaria

27
Q

Where is the most likely lesion found in the canine lungs with bacterial pneumonia?

a) Right cranial lung lobe
b) Left caudal lung lobe
c) Right midde lung lobe
d) Left cranial lung lobe
e) Right caudal lung lobe
f) Right accessory lung lobe

A

c) Right middle lung lobe

28
Q

Pluto is a Dalmatian from Arizona who presents with a harsh dry cough. Radiographs show a pulmonary interstitial pattern. He has a fever, weight loss, and a mild lameness. Which fungal disease would you consider?

a) Blastomycosis
b) Histplasmosis
c) Cryptococcosis
d) Coccidioidomycosis

A

d) Coccidioidomycosis

29
Q

A dog in the mid western states presents with a chronic cough, fever, and lymphadenopathy. You suspect fungal disease. How would you diagnose this? Which one has the highest sensitivity?

a) Urine and blood serology
b) BAL and cytology
c) FNA of the lymph nodes
d) Hematology and biochemist

A

a) Urine and blood serology

Looking for the specific antigen (here, looking for Blastomyoces)

30
Q

A mature dog presents with a chronic cough. Radiograhs show a bronchiolar pattern. A BAL reveals non-degenerative neutrophils. The likely diagnosis is?

a) Fungal pneumonia
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Kennel cough
d) Bacterial pneumonia

A

b) Chronic bronchitis

Bacterial pneumonia = degenerative neutrophils

31
Q

True or False: Amphotericin B’s major side effect is nephrotoxicity

A

True

32
Q

What classical clinical signs are seen with peracute feline panleukopenia

a) weight loss and vomiting
b) septic shock and dehydration
c) fever and depression
d) anorexia and diarrhea

A

b) septic shock and dehydration

33
Q

How can Feline Coronavirus cause infectious peritonitis?

a) autoimmune hemolysis

cell mediated immune destruction

immune-mediated vasculitis

A

immune-mediated vasculitis

34
Q

FIP is more common in indoor cats or outdoor cats?

A

Indoor cats

(Easier to spread)

35
Q

Which interleukin produced by FeCOV monocytes accounts for the hypergammaglbulinemia produced by plasma cells?

a) IL-1
b) IL-2
c) IL-8
d) IL-6

A

d) IL-6

36
Q

True or False: A very good cell-mediate immune response prevents the development of FIP

A

True

37
Q

A cat presents with ascites. How do you confirm FIP/FeCOV on abdominocentesis? The fluid isyellow in color and appears thick

a) Albumin: glbouin ratio is very high
b) Rivalta test is negative
c) Positive immunofluorescent staining of FeCOV in macrophages
d) Cytology reveals a neutrophilic exudate

A

c) Positive immunofluorescent staining of FeCOV in macrophages

38
Q

Which test does not confirm FIP?

a) Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
b) Immunohistochemistry staining
c) RT-PCR on conjunctival swab
d) Immunofluorescent staining on effusions

A

a) Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein

39
Q

Which group-associated antigen is used in the diagnosis of FeLV?

a) Gag 23
b) Gag 25
c) Gag 27
d) Gag 29

A

c) Gag 27

40
Q

A cat is exposed to FeLV, but never developed any signs of a viremia and testing finds no evidence of virus. Which FeLV type is this?

a) Abortive
b) Regressive
c) Progressive
d) Atypical

A

a) Abortive

PCR would be negative

41
Q

Which clinical sign is not potentially associated with FeLV infection?

a) Lymphoma
b) Glomerulonephritis
c) Anemia
d) Keratic precipitates

A

d) Keratic precipitates

42
Q

How is FeLV diagnosed in a routine hospital?

a) Antibdoy ELISA serology
b) Microscopic agglutination test
c) Antigen ELISA serology
d) Fluorescence antibody serology

A

b) Microscopic agglutination test

43
Q

Which cells does FIV predominantly affect in the asymptomatic period?

a) CD4+ lymphocytes
b) CD8+ lymphocytes
c) Both A and B
d) Eosinophils

A

c) Both A and B

44
Q

True or False: A kitten drinks milk fro its mother. The mother has FIV, with high concentrations of FIV in the milk. Is FIV likely to be transmitted?

A

False

45
Q

How is FIV commonly tested?

a) ELISA antigen testing
b) In saline agglutination testing
c) PCR
d) ELISA antibody testing

A

d) ELISA antibody testing

Numerous antibodies are produced when the cat is exposed to FIV

46
Q

A cat which is FIV positive presents with severe non-regenerative anemia. Which of the following would be beneficial?

a ) GCF-stimulating factor

b) Human recombinatn EPO
c) FFP transfusion
d) IFN-omega

A

b) Human recombinant EPO

SAM 1 (2 decks)

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