Respiratory anatomy and disease Flashcards

1
Q

Parasympathetic nerves cause bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion via the release of ACh which acts on which receptors?

A

M3 receptors

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2
Q

What is the effect of blocking M2 receptors that are present on nerve terminals?

A

M2 receptors reduce the release of ACh by a feedback mechanism - so blocking them would lead to an increase in ACh

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3
Q

There is no sympathetic innervation of human airway smooth muscle. True or false?

A

True

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4
Q

How does ACh acting via M3 receptors cause muscle contraction?

A

Releases from vagus nerve
stimulates Gaq which stimulates IP3 and leads to increase in intracellular calcium
Ca2+ interacts with calmodulin to form a complex which can activate MLCK. The kinase phosphorylates myosin -> contraction

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5
Q

How does activation of B-receptors via adrenaline and noradrenaline cause muscle relaxation?

A

Binding activates Gas which stimulates adenylyl cyclase leading to increased production of cAMP
cAMP activates PKA which phosphorylates several proteins - all act to reduce intracellular calcium
Less calcium so less MLCK activity so less myosin phosphorylation -> relaxation

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6
Q

Which inflammatory cell is involved in asthma?

A

eosinophils

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7
Q

which inflammatory cell is involved in COPD?

A

neutrophils

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8
Q

What causes the immediate phase in allergic asthma?

A

the spasm of bronchial smooth muscle

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9
Q

What are some of the disadvantages of B-agonists?

A

Receptor desensitisation
Receptor down-regulation
Refractory bronchoconstriction

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10
Q

What are the advantages of xanthines in the treatment of asthma?

A

increase endogenous cAMP
enhance B2 agonist effects
antagonists at adenosine receptors

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11
Q

Where are PDE4 found?

A

Airway smooth muscle

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12
Q

What are the disadvantages of xanthines?

A

less effective than B-agonists
stimulate the heart
stimulatory effect on CNS - increased alertness, tremor
small therapeutic window

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13
Q

What phosphorylates MLC?

A

MLCK

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14
Q

What dephosphorylates MLCK?

A

MLC phosphatase

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15
Q

The amount of muscle contraction is dependent on what?

A

The degree to which myosin is phosphorylated

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16
Q

Which 2 G proteins can M3 receptors couple to?

A

Gaq

G12

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17
Q

Is ipratropium bromide short acting or long acting?

A

short-acting muscarinic antagonist

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18
Q

What are the advantages of antimuscarinic bronchodilators?

A

reduce mucus secretion

useful as add-on therapy in life-threatening asthma

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19
Q

What are analeptics and name one.

A

Doxapram - they are respiratory stimulants for use in ventilatory failure

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20
Q

What causes pneumothorax?

A

Injury to the chest and air enters as a result

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21
Q

What disease may cause spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

emphysema

pneumonia

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22
Q

How can pneumothorax be treated?

A

if minor - monitor by xray, absorption of air

if large - surgery to repair puncture

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23
Q

What is tidal volume defined as?

A

The volume of air breathed in and out - in a healthy adults 500ml

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24
Q

What is meant by vital capacity?

A

the greatest volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs after a deep breath in

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25
What is residual volume?
The air left in the lungs after forcing it out
26
What is minute ventilation and what is the equation?
The amount of air inhaled/exhaled in a minute | tidal volume x respiratory rate
27
What is alveolar ventilation and what is the equation for it?
The amount of gas that reaches the alveoli per breath | (tidal volume - dead space) respiratory rate
28
Gaseous exchange takes place in the dead space. True or false?
False
29
What is meant by FVC?
Forced vital capacity - maximum volume exhaled
30
What is meant by FEV1?
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second
31
What effect does obstructive lung disease have on FEV?
FEV is reduced
32
What effect does obstructive lung disease have on FEV/FVC?
< 80%
33
What effect does obstructive lung disease have on FVC?
Normal
34
What effect does restrictive lung disease have on FEV?
reduced
35
What effect does restrictive lung disease have on FEV/FVC?
> 80%
36
What effect does restrictive disease have on FVC?
reduced
37
What is meant by lung compliance?
The ease of expansion of the lungs and thorax
38
In healthy individuals, what happens to lung volume when there is an increase in transpulmonary pressure?
When there is an increase in pressure, there is an increase in lung volume
39
In patients with emphysema, what happens to lung volume when there is an increase in pressure?
A small increase in pressure will lead to a large increase in lung volume - because there is a lot of stretch but no recoil
40
In patients with oedema or fibrosis, what effect will an increase in pressure have on lung volume?
there is low compliance - when pressure is applied, there is only a very small increase in lung volume
41
Where are central chemoreceptors located?
brain stem medulla
42
Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located?
aortic bodies | carotid bodies
43
What are the aims of treatment for chronic asthma?
Control symptoms prevent exacerbations no need for rescue meds achieve best possible lung function tests
44
Name a SABA
Salbutamol
45
Name a LABA
Salmeterol
46
What type of inhaler is salmeterol?
Controller
47
What type of inhaler is salbutamol?
Reliever
48
Name an inhaler that is a preventer
Beclamethasone
49
How does a nebuliser work?
Aqueous solution of drug is converted into a mist for inhalation through a mask or mouthpiece
50
Is coordination needed when using a nebuliser?
no
51
What are some of ADRs of B-agonists?
Fine tremor Tachycardia Hypokalaemia
52
How is prednisolone administered?
Orally
53
What is hydrocortisone and how is it administered?
Corticosteroid and is administered IV
54
What are the four indications that show ICS should be used?
Had exacerbations of asthma in the past two years Using an inhaled B-agonist more than 3 times/week Symptomatic > 3 times a week Waking 1 night per week
55
Name two leukotriene antagonists that can be used in asthma treatment
Montelukast | Zafirlukast
56
What is theophylline and how is it administered?
Methylxanthine administered orally
57
Theophylline is a salt of aminophylline. True or false?
False - aminophylline is a salt of theophylline and can be administered orally/IV
58
How does smoking have an effect on use of methlyxanthines?
Smoking increases clearance (and so reduces plasma levels) of methylxanthines - so a patient who smokes may need to have a higher dose for therapeutic effect
59
Does obesity increase or decrease clearance of methylxanthines?
reduces clearance
60
Name a cromone that can be used in asthma therapy.
Nedocromil
61
What factors affect PEF?
Age Sex Height
62
What does a PEF of <50% predicted indicate?
Acute severe asthma
63
What is acute severe asthma determined by?
PEF < 50% predicted Ability to talk RR > 25 HR > 110
64
What is the immediate treatment that is required for acute severe asthma?
oxygen at the highest possible conc: 40-60% B-agonist nebuliser or multiple doses via spacer Corticosteroid: 40mg prednisolone or 100mg hydrocortisone IV
65
What does step 1 BTS/SIGN guidelines for adults asthma state?
low dose ICS
66
What does step 2 BTS/SIGN guidelines for adults asthma state?
Add LABA to low dose ICS (usually a combination inhaler)
67
What does step 3 BTS/SIGN guidelines for adults asthma state?
Increase ICS to medium dose, continue LABA | consider trialling LTRA SR theophylline, LAMA
68
What does step 4 BTS/SIGN guidelines for adults asthma state?
Increase ICS to hgih dose and add a fourth drug: | LTRA, SR theophylline, B agonist tablet, LAMA
69
What does step 5 BTS/SIGN guidelines for adults asthma state?
Continuous or frequent use of oral steroid | Consider other treatment to minimise use of steroid tablet
70
COPD is curable. True or false?
False - treatable but not curable
71
Sputum production is associated with asthma, not COPD. True or false?
False - COPD
72
In diagnosis of COPD, what is airflow obstruction defined as?
FEV less than 80% predicted and post bronchodilatory FEV/FVC less than 70% predicted
73
Male gender is a risk factor for COPD. True or false?
True
74
Name 4 side effects of antimuscarinic drugs
Blurred vision Urinary retention Dry mouth Constipation
75
In treating COPD, what is the percentage of oxygen delivered?
24-28%
76
What is the criteria for use of long-term oxygen therapy?
FEV < 35%
77
Which vaccines are offered for COPD patients?
Annual influenza vaccine | Pneumococcal vaccine
78
What are antibiotics given for in COPD?
Infective exacerbations
79
Name a mucolytic that is used in COPD treatment
Carbocisteine
80
What is hypercapnia?
CO2 retention
81
What is cor pulmonale?
Right heart failure - usually due to COPD
82
What is step 1 in BTS/SIGN child asthma?
Very low dose ICS or if child is under 5 LTRA
83
What does step 2 in BTS/SIGN child asthma state?
Very low dose ICS and if child is under 5 add: LTRA | Very low dose ICS and if child is over 5 add LABA
84
What does step 3 in BTS/SIGN child asthma state?
No response to LABA - stop and increase ICS to low dose Response to LABA, but inadequate - Cont LABA, increase ICS to low dose Response to LABA, but inadequate, cont LABA and ICS, and consider LTRA
85
What does step 4 BTS/SIGN child asthma state?
Increase ICS to med dose and consider addition of fourth drug SR theophylline
86
What does step 5 BTS/SIGN child asthma state?
Daily use of steroid tab Maintain med dose ICS Consider other treatment to reduce