respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

steroid side effects

A
HTN
osteoporosis
stomach ulcers
skin conditions eg acne
cushionian like features
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2
Q

what happens if you suddenly stop long term steroids

A

addinsonian crisis

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3
Q

preventing pneumonia in elderly

A

oral hygiene
head position when sleeping -45 degrees
SALT assessment
pneumococcal and flu preventative vaccines

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4
Q

the trick to remember how long consolidation takes to clear

A

works in decades
eg 80 year old person will take 8 weeks for consolidation to clear

cxr to check its gone in 6-8 weeks - to ensure not malignant

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5
Q

s/e of co-amox that is forgotten

A

can cause hepatic cholestasis

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6
Q

method to read x-rays

A

AP or PA?
1- details
2- rotated film? is trachea in middle of clavicles?
3 - inspiration - 6 ribs anteriorly, 10 posteriorly
4- penetration - can you see a spine through the heart (how good the xray is)
OBVIOUS ABNORMALITIES
5 - A airways (trachea in middle of spine)
- B breathing - check lung fields (apices, behind heart, angles, hilar, diaphragms)
- C = cardiomegaly
- D = diaphragms
- E = everything else - bones, soft tissue, pneumomdiastinum/peritoeneum
6 - Lines - endotracheal/nasogastric/central
7 - review areas - apices, hila, behind heart, costophrenic angles
8 - SUMMARISE - include differentials (with ur clinical judgement suggest management)

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7
Q

pe scores

  • wells
  • perc
  • pesi
A

WELLS

  • clinical signs/symps of DVT +3
  • PE is number 1 diagnosis +3
  • HR >100 +1.5
  • immobilised - reduced mobility >3 days/ surgery within 4 weeks +1.5
  • previous PE/DVT +1.5
  • malignancy - active/past 6 months/palliative +1
  • haemoptysis +1

score = 4 PE unlikely -> D-Dimer
- if high then CTPA/VQ scan
- if low no PE
>/5 PE likely -> CTPA/VQ scan

PERC - pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria - allowing you to feel confident to rule out PE and safely discharge
age >/=50
HR >/= 100 
02 sat on room air <95%
unilateral leg swelling 
haemoptysis
recent surg/trauma = 4 weeks ago 
prior PE or DVT
hormone use
PESI - PE severity index
predicts 30 day outcome of patients with PE 
- age 
sex
hx of cancer
history HF
hx of chronic lung cancer
HR >/= 110
systolic BP <100 
RR >/=30
T <36
altered mental status
o2 sats<90
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8
Q

how to assess SOB severity - options

A

WHO functional class
MRC breathlessness scale
Borg scale
NYHA class

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9
Q

what are the steps of the MRC breathlessness scale?

A

Grade 1 - are you troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exertion?
Grade 2 - are you breathless when hurrying on the level or uphill?
Grade 3 - do you have to walk much slower on the flat than other people? Do you have stop after a mile or so on the level at ur own pace?
Grade 4 - do you have to stop for breath after walking on the level after 100 yards (or after a few mins)
Grade 5 - are you too breathless to leave the house, or breathless after undressing?

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10
Q

what drugs are notorious for changes in lungs

A

nitrofurantoin

anti rheumatoid drugs

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11
Q

why is giving lots of o2 potentially dangerous for those in type 2 resp failure?

A

as they rely on hypercapnia to drive ventilation there by replacing the 02 you are removing that drive

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12
Q

what is Procalcitonin used for?

A

to determine between viral or bacterial infections

if low avoid abx

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13
Q

what is Procalcitonin used for?

A

to determine between viral or bacterial infections
if low avoid abx

released in response to TNF-alpha and IL-6

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14
Q

CURB 65

A
confusion - <8/10 AMT
urea >7mmol/l
RR >30
BP <90 or <60
age >/65

0 = communitu
1 = mortality low - home care if 02 >92% air + CXR shows no bilateral/multilobar shadowing
2 = mortality intermediate - hosp
3 + = mortality high - hosp/ITU? 30% dead in 30 days

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15
Q
acute eosinophilic pneumonia
what is it
pres
causes
ix
mx
comps
A

what is it

  • uncommon
  • the rapid accumulation of eosinophils in the lungs

pres

  • progressive dyspnoea of rapid onset and poss acute resp failure
  • cough
  • fatigue
  • night sweats
  • fever
  • unintended weight loss
  • 20-40 year olds

causes

  • smoking
  • inhaled recreational drugs
  • medicines
  • infections - parasites, fungi, viruses
  • mainly unknown tho - above are more triggers

ix - FBC
CXR
ABG
bronchoalveolar lavage - diagnosis
chest CT - alveolar bilateral consolidation + effusion, interlobular septal thickening
pulm function test show restrictive pattern

mx - oral corticosteroids

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16
Q

what is the commonest form of occupational lung disease

A

mesothelioma - asbestosis

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17
Q
nasal cannula oxygen percentage delivery of:
1L/min
2L/min
3L/min
4L/min

pros and cons

A

1L - 24%
2L - 28%
3L - 32%
4L - 36%

varies massively on the patient minute volume, inspiratory flow and pattern of breathing
comfortable 
no re-breathing 
low cost 
preferred by patients
can be used in type 1 and 2 failure
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18
Q

maximum flo rate of simple face mask

pros and cons

A

40-60% 15L/min

used for patients with type 1 after surgery - reason for this as you create a dead space within the mask and if this is not cleared you will rebreathe the CO2

flow must be at least 5L/min to avoid CO2 build up and resistance to breathing

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19
Q

non-rebreather mask

% and flo rate

A

60-90%
used in emergency
10-15L/min

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20
Q

amount of fluid needing to be in pleural space before you see it on CXR

A

250mls

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21
Q

eosinophilic lung diseases, name:

  • idiopathic
  • secondary
  • eosinophilic vasculitis
A

idiopathic -

  • simple pulmonary eosinophilia
  • acute eosinophilia pneumonia
  • chronic
  • idopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome

secondary

  • bronchocentric granulomatosis
  • parasitic infection
  • allergic bronchopulmonary aspergilosis
  • drug reaction

eosinophilic vasculitis

  • allergic angitis
  • granulomatosis (churg-strauss syndrome)
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22
Q
churg-strauss syndrome 
aka
what is it
pres
causes
ix
mx
comps
A

aka eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (wegeners - has extra features)

what is it
ANCA associated small-medium vessel vasculitis
LTRA may precipitate the symps

pres
THINK - adult onset asthma!!
TRIAD - tissue eosinophilia, granulomatous inflammation, vasculitis
diagnosis criteria - asthma (wheeze), oesinophilia in peripheral blood (>10%), paranasal sinusitis, plumonary infiltrates, histo confirmation of vasculitis, mononeuritis multiplex
haemoptysis - more wegeners
purpura/skin nodules

ix
p-ANCA - 60%
FBC - oesinophilia + anaemia, elevated ESR/CRP
CXR - plum infiltrates
Pukm CT -peripheral consolidation - ground-glass attenuation
biopdy - small necrotising granulomas and necrotising vasculitis
FIVE FACTOR SCORE (if positive then wegener’s granulomatosis aka granulomatosis with polyangiitis) - proteinuria, serum creat, GI involve, cardiomyopathy, CNS involvement = higher mort

mx
corticosteroids
- for remission - IV methylpred 3/7 then oral pred
- if five factor score +ve - then add cyclophosphamide
+asthma management

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23
Q

sleep architecture (stages)

A
wakefulness
REM - when you are dreaming
N1 - light sleep
N2 - 45-50% of total sleep
N3 - slow wave sleep
first half of night more deep, second half more likely to dream
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24
Q

classification of sleep disorders

A

ICSD 3rd edition
severn major catagories
- insomnia (short term, chronic, other)
- sleep-related breathing disorders (CSA, OSA, hypoventilation)
- central disorders of hypersomnolence (narcolepsy, idiopathic hypersomnia)
- circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorders (shift work, advanced/delayed sleep wake phase disorder)
- parasomnias (NREM, REM, other)
- sleep-related movement disorders (restless legs, periodic limb movements, bruxism)
- other (unclassified)

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25
Q

symptoms of sleep disorders

A
daytime sleepiness
unrefreshed sleep
snoring
sleepwalking
sleeptalking
irritable
morning headache
poor conc
poor progress in school
HF/pulm HTN
cataplexy
hallucinations
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26
Q
obstructive sleep apnoea
what is it
pres
predisposing factors
consequences
causes
ix
mx
A
what is it 
repeated partial (hypopnoea) or complete (apnoea) closure of the upper airway during sleep 
pres
daytime sleepiness
imparied conc, poor mem, mood changes
loss of libido
weight gain
snoring - very loud
stopping breathing and waking up 
sensation of drowning 

predisposing factors

  • obesity
  • macroglossia: acromegaly, hypothyroidism, amyloidosis
  • large tonsils
  • marfans

consequences

  • daytime somnolence
  • compensated resp acidosis
  • hypertension
ix
POLYSOMNOGRAPHY - diagnostic:
- repeated dips in blood o2 - o2 oximetry
- repeated pulse rate rises 
- measure airflow in nose
- thoracic and abdomen paradoxing - not moving at same time 
- very loud snoring
- EEG -arousal from sleep
reduced sleep qual 

epworth sleepiness scale - questionnaire by pt/partner
multiple sleep latency test - EEG - measures time to fall asleep in dark room

mx
CPAP
mandibular advancement devices
lifestyle 
- weight loss
- position retraining - no sleeping on back
- reduce alc intake
surgery - tonsillectomy, bariatric surg
- inform DVLA
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27
Q
central sleep apnoea
what is it
pres
causes
ix
mx
A

what is it
repetitive cessation of both airflow and ventilatory effort during sleep
- idiopathic
- secondary (cheyne-stokes, high altitude, drugs etc)

pres
common in HF _ intracranial pathology

diagnosis
history - v v important
questionnaires/screening
sleep studies

ix -
tier 3 limited channel studies - flat lining, no movement from chest/abdo, no airflow

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28
Q

questionnaire points for sleep disorders

A

OSA symps
anthropometry - BMI, neck circ
demo - gender, age (hertiage - south asians have large tongues)
co-morbs - hypertension, stroke, CAD, etc

how likely to fall asleep in these scenarios questionnaire

STOPBang questionnaire - sleep apnoea
S - do you snore loudly
T - do you often feel tired during daytime?
O - has someone observed you stop breathing during you sleep?
P - high blood pressure?
B - BMI >35
A - age >50
N - neck circ >16 inch
G- gender male

high-risk of OSA - 5-8
inter - 3
low - 0-2

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29
Q

investigating sleep disorders

A

pulse/o2 oximetry

limited channel studies - most common first line study, completed at home

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30
Q
narcolepsy 
deficiency of what
pres
ix
mgmt
A

very rare
1 in 100,000

deficiency or absence of hypocretin - CSF (protein responsible for controlling appetite and sleep patterns)
HLA DR2

cataplexy - involuntary loss of muscle tone
sleepiness - sleep attacks
hypnagogic hallucinations/sleep paralysis
multiple sleep arousals at night
distorted sleep architecture
can have OSA/PLMS
onset - teenage years

IX
reduced REM latency (<60 mins)
multiple sleep latency testing - EEG

mx
modafinil - stimulant, wakefulness drug
sodiu, oxybate - powerful sedative, anti-cataplectic
pitolisant - novel histamine H3 receptor antagonist

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31
Q

lung cancer - epidemiology

A

world leading cause of cancer deaths for men
2:1 men:women
40k new cases in UK per annum
90% are smoking related

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32
Q

2 main types of lung cancer

A
small cell lung cancer
20-25% of all lung cancers
most aggressive - usually disseminated by time of diagnosis, freq to liver, bones, adrenals, brain
SIADH common
chemo/radiosensitive
surg not an option
untreated - 6/52 to live
arise from APUD (amine precurser uptake decarboxylase) cells
usually central 
non small cell 
commonest - 75-80%
4 types:
- squamous
- adenocarcinoma
- bronchialveolar carcinoma (adenocarcinoma in situ, alveolar - mainly not smoking related, ++sputum,   bronchial - mostly carcinoid)
- large cell carcinoma
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33
Q

histology of adenocarinoma of lung

A

typical acinar pattern of glandular differentiation observed

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34
Q

challenges of lung cancer

A

majority of patients present in advanced stages
not always symptomatic/non-specific
poor resp physiology (other co-exisiting lung pathology)
direct link between cancer and social deprivation index

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35
Q

common symptoms/signs of lung cancer - most to least (including atypical)

A
cough
haemoptysis
dyspnoea
chest pain
unexplained weight loss
paraneoplastic symptoms - SIADH, neurological syndromes

O/E - fixed monophonic wheeze, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical, clubbing

atypical -
SVCO 
T1 wasting 
hoarse voice (seen in pancoast tumour pressing on recurrent laryngeal nerve)
horners
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36
Q
paraneoplastic features 
small cell
squam
adeno
large cell
A

small cell
ADH -> SIADH -> hyponatraemia
ACTH - not typical, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, alkalosis and muscle weakness are more common than buffalo hump etc (cushings)
lambert-eaton syndrome

squam
- central
- parathyroid hormone-related protein secretion causing hypercalcaemia
clubbing
- hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy - bone pain
- hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH

adenocarcinoma

  • peripheral
  • gynaecomastia
  • hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

large cell

  • B-hCG
  • anaplastic
  • poorly differentiated with poor prognosis
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37
Q
lambert-eaton syndrome
what is it 
pres
causes
ix
mx
A

myasthenic syndrome
seen in association with small cell lung cancer and sometimes breast/ovarian
may occur independantly as autoimmune disorder

pres
repeated muscle contractions -> increased muscle strength - only seen in 50%
limb-girdle weakness (affects lower limb first)
hyporeflexia
autonomic symptoms: dry mouth, impotence, difficulty micturating
ophthalmoplegia and ptosis not commonly a feature

causes
antibody directed against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in peripheral nervous system

ix
ElectroMyoGraphy - incremental respinse to repetitive electrical stimulation

mx
rx underlying cancer
immunosuppression - pred +/or azathioprine
3,4-diaminopyridine currently being trialled
IV IG and plasma exchange

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38
Q

inital tests in lung cancer

A

CXR

  • neither sensitive or specific
  • low dose radiation

staging CT (chest + upper abdomen- includes adrenals)

  • standard for diagnosing
  • highly sensitive/specific
  • requires contrast - so not good if they have poor kidney function

PET-CT - using radioactive Fluorodeoxy-glucose)
- gold standard for staging

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39
Q

inital tests in lung cancer

A

CXR

  • neither sensitive or specific
  • low dose radiation

staging CT (chest + upper abdomen- includes adrenals)

  • standard for diagnosing
  • highly sensitive/specific
  • requires contrast - so not good if they have poor kidney function

PET-CT - using radioactive Fluorodeoxy-glucose)
- gold standard for staging
- shows areas of high metabolism as use the glucose = malignant areas
used for non-small cell

bloods
- raised platelets maybe

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40
Q

staging lung cancers + their survival

A

TNM
TNM
T1: < 3cm
T2: 3-7cm, assoc atelectasis, involves main bronchus >2cm to carina, invades visceral pleura
T3: >7cm and directly invades chest wall, diaphragm, phrenic, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium
T4: invasion of mediastinal organs: oesophagus, trachea, great vessels, heart, malignant pleural effusion, recurrent laryngeal
N1: ipsilateral bronchopulmonary or hilar
N2: ipsilateral mediastinal or subcarinal
N3: contralateral mediastinal, hilar or any supraclavicular
M1: mets present, contralat lung or malignant pleural effusion

stage 1 = T1/T2, N0, M0
2 = T1/T2 + N1 or T3 + N0
3 = Any N3, T1/T2 N2 or T3 N1 or any T4
4 = Any M1

2 year survival from top to bottom goes from 97% to 10% incrementally

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41
Q

most common mutation in lung adenocarinoma

A

Unknown then
KRAS then
EGFR- sensitising

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42
Q

further tests for diagnosis in lung cancer

A

bronchoscopic biopsy + camera (literally see it)

CT guided biopsy - accessed from outside body

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43
Q

management of lung cancer

A

MDT
follow national optimal lung cancer pathway - certain time frames for things

small cell - only considered for surg T1-2a, N0M0.
most chemo, radio
extensive? palliative chemo

radical treatment

  • surgery - only 20% suitable
  • radiotherapy - stereotactic ablative radiotherapy, external beam radiotherapy
  • chemo-radio - concurrent or sequential

advanced cancer

  • palliative intent (chemo, radio for brain/bony mets, pain/haemoptysis, targeted molecular therapy/immunotherapy)
  • symptomatic management (pain,breathlessness, o2, palliative care)
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44
Q

things to consider in lung cancer management

A

managing expectations
patient wishes
risks vs benefits
think about why you want to treat - surviving longer? maintaining qual of life..

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45
Q

carcinoid

A

slow growing
excessive secretion of serotonin: flushing + diarrhoea
from neuroendocrine cells (kulchitsky cell - small cell)

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46
Q

lung cancer referral NICE guidelines

A

a suspected cancer pathway referral for:

  • CXR findings that suggest lung cancer
  • are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis
offer an urgent CXR (within 2/52) for >40 + 2 or more, or smoker + 1 or more of:
- cough
- fatigue
- SOB
chest pain
weight loss
appetite loss

consider urgent CXR in >40 with any of :
- persistent or recurrent chest infection
- finger clubbing
- supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy
chest signs consistent with cancer
thrombocytosis

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47
Q

surgery contraindications in lung cancer

A

assess general health
stage IIIb or IV (i.e. metastases present)
FEV1 < 1.5 litres is considered a general cut-off point*
malignant pleural effusion
tumour near hilum
vocal cord paralysis
SVC obstruction

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48
Q

pancoasts tumour
what is it
pres

A

tumour of the pulm apex
normal lung cancer symps + invasion of brachial plexus so weakness, parasthesia, pain in C8-T1, shoulder pain
invasion of sympathetic chain - horners syndrome (ptosis, miosis, ipsilateral anhydrosis)

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49
Q
pneumonia
what is it 
causes
pres
ix
mx
discharge criteria + safety netting
A

strictly any inflammation of the alveoli - vast majority is caused by a bacterial infection

causes- bacterial, viral, fungal
- Streptococcus pneumoniae - pneumococcus accounts for 80%, vaccine available
- Haemophilus influenzae - COPD
Staphylococcus aureus - often post influenza
mycoplasma pneumoniae - atypical (autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and erytherma multiforme may be see)
legionella pneumophilia - atypical, holidays (secondary to infected air con units), hyponat + lymphopenia common
klebsiella pneumoniae - alcoholics
pneumocystis jiroveci - HIV, dry cough, exercise-induced desats and absence of chest signs
idiopathic interstital pneumonia - group of no-infective causes eg broncholitis from comps of RA or amiodarone

pres
cough, sputum, dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain, fever, tachycardic, low 02 sats, reduced breath sounds, bronchial breathing

ix
CXR - consolidation
bloods - FBC, U+E, CRP, ABG
sputum culture
blood culture
pneumococcal and legionella urinary antigen tests
mx
abx - PCT, CRP 
LOW SEV CAP
- first - amoxicillin
- pen allergy? macrolide (erytho/azitho/clary) or tetracylcine
- 5/7 
MED SEV CAP
- dual abx - amox + macrolide
-7-10/7
HIGH SEV CAP 
beta-lactamase stable pen eg co-amox, ceftriaxone or tazocin(piperacillin eith tazobactam) + macrolide
supportive - O2, fluids
CURB-65
discharge criteria + safety netting
cannot go home if in last 24 hours had:
fever >37.5
RR >24
HR >100
SBP <90
sats <90% air
abnormal mental status
inability to eat without assistance
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50
Q
pleural effusion
what is it
types + path
causes
criteria
pres
ix
mx
A

what is it
excessive fluid in potential space between visceral and parietal pleura
restrictive lung disease

types

  1. transudate - low protein <30g/l
    - disruption of hydrostatic and oncotic forces across pleural membrane (increase venous P or hypoproteinaemia)
    - eg increase in hydrostatic is LHF, decreased oncotic pressure = kwashiorkor, severe liver disease, nephrotic, malabsorption
  2. exudate - high protein >30g/l
    - increased permeability of the pleura from inflammation
    - eg sickle cell disease, pneumonia, TB, lung abscess, bronchiectasis, primary myelofibrosis, cancers, SLE, PE, asbestos
  3. chylous
  4. pseudochylous
  5. haemorrhagic
causes
1 - pulm
2 - pleural
3 - extrapulm
more likely to be benign than malignant
if is malignant - 40% lung mets, 25% breat mets, 10% malignant mesothelioma

Light criteria if protein 25-35g protein:
LDH measurement + protein in pleural fluid and serum
for exudate:
- pleural to serum protein >0.5 or
- pleural to serum LDH >0.6 or
- pleural LDH >2/3 upper limit of normal

pres
dyspnoea
cough 
unequal chest movements
decreased tactile vocal fremitus (as gone from solid to liquid)
tracheal shift
dullness to percuss
diminished breath sounds

ix
CXR - PA in everyone
USS recommended - increase likelihood of successful aspiration + can see septations
thoracentesis - 21G needle and 50ml syringe -> fluid sent to lab for cytology, MC&S, AFB, LDH, protein, glucose, amylase, RF- characteristic findings aside from lights:
- low glucose: RA, TB
- raised amylase: panc, oesoph perf
- heavy blood: mesothelioma, PE, TB
all patients with effusion secondary to infection need fluid sampling - if purulent or turbid/cloudy = chest drain, if clear but pH <7.2 = chest drain

mgmt
do NOT tap transudate
if recurrent:
- recurrent aspiration
- pleurodesis (talc)
- indwelling pleural catheter
- opioids to relieve dyspnoea
- abx if infection

comps
large? compress lung
parapneumonic effusion -> organizing pleural fibrosis -> lung cannot expand

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51
Q

how can CRP help you decide whether you need abx or not for pneumonia

A

<20mg/L - NO
20-100mg/L - delayed abx
CRP > 100 - abx

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52
Q

why is it resp acidosis when co2 is high

A

as when breathing is inadequate CO2 accumulates. The extra co2 molecules combine with water to form carbonic acid which contributes to an acid pH. the treatment is all else fails is to lower the pco2 by breathing for the patient using a ventilator

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53
Q

if an abg shows metabolic acidosis explain the physiology behind this

A

when normal metabolism is impaired acid forms - poor blood supply stops oxidative metabolism and lactic acid forms. if severe patient may be in shock and require treatment, normally by neutralizing excess acid with bicarb possibly by allowing time for excretion/metabolism

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54
Q

where is the metabolism component on an abg controlled by in the body?

A

kidneys

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55
Q

if the paco2 is high on abg what are the two potential causes for this

A

resp acid

resp compensation for met alk

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56
Q

if pac02 is low on abg what are the two potential causes for this

A

resp alk

resp comp for met acid

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57
Q

if HCO3 is low (<22) on abg what are the two potential causes for this

A

met acid

or renal comp for resp alk

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58
Q

if HCO3 is high (>26) on abg what are the two potential causes for this

A

met alk

or renal comp for resp acid

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59
Q

what is the difference between the terms pao2 and fio2

A

pao2 - arterial oxygen partial pressure in mmHg - basically the amount of oxygen in arteries

fio2 - fractional inspired oxygen - conc of oxygen that a person inhales

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60
Q

what is the henderson equation

A

h+ is proportional to co2/HCO3

h+ = k x (co2/Hco3)

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61
Q

what can you get on an ABG

A
pH 
co2
bicarb
sodium, pot, calc, chloride, glucose
lactate, 
haemoglobin
oxygen sats
CO hb
Fi02
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62
Q

two main things to elicit that are important in an asthma history

A
  • day-to-day control

- exacerbation history

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63
Q

questions to ask to gather severity of asthma

A
  1. risk of life-threatening episodes (exacerbation history)
    - how many times in the last 12 months have you needed a course of steroids from your GP?
    - how many times have you been to A+E/admitted/ITU/ventilated?
  2. day-to-day symps
    RCP3 questions
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64
Q

gold-standard investigation for asthma/COPD

A

spirometry lung function test looking at obstructive or restrictive

asthma - FEV1 before and after bronchodilator, should see a change (reversibility)

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65
Q

whats a good test to see if inflammatory response in lung - eg allergic asthma

A

exhaled nitric oxide, gas thats made from inflamed lung

also good to monitor and guide treatment

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66
Q

someone has mild asthma, bit wheezy but always seem quite well whats a good test for them

A

measure if lungs are twitchy by doing a bronchiohyperesponsive challenge (BHR) to a common lung irritant like mannitol or histamine, and how easy they begin wheezing gives you an idea of how twitchy the airway is

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67
Q

what is asthma generally

A

inflammation underpinned by bronchial hyperresponsiveness
reversibility - comes and goes which causes the wheezy
inflam - mucous
triggers!!

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68
Q

asthma types

A

pro-atopic pro-eosinophilic group (TH2 high)

non-atopic non-eosinophilic group (TH2 low)

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69
Q

how much asthma may be occupational

A

10%

dont miss it out in social history

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70
Q

key management of asthma - one answer

A

inhaled corticosteroid

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71
Q

what do you have to warn patients about before starting them on a LRTA

A

montelukast can cause nightmares
tablets
neuropsychiatric reactions, including speech impairment and obsessive-compulsive symptoms

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72
Q

really severe asthma resistant treatment - what can we give

A

biologics - end in -mab, monoclonal antibodies
REALLY expensive - £30,000/year/person
work on different phenotypes:
- ones that work on IL-5 all treat the eosinophilic asthmas as IL-5 is used to create cytokines
omaluzumab - removes IgE, good for allergic asthma and hayfever

LIFECHANGING

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73
Q
asthma 
what is it
pathophysiology
causes/rf
triggers 
pres
ix
mx
comps
A

what is it
chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways secondary to type 1 sensitivity. symptoms are variable and recurring and manifest as reversible bronchospasm resulting in airway obstruction

pathophysiology
ATOPIC
- irritant/allergen -> binds to IgE -> mast cells cause increase in -> leukotrienes, histamine, TNFa
- this leads to increase smooth muscle contractility, hypersecretion of mucus, increase vascular permeability
- 6hrs later -> airway remodelling, increased airway hypersensitivity, increase goblet cells

causes/rf

  • maternal smoking
  • atopy - personal or fh
  • hygiene hypothesis - causes TH2 predom response
  • viral illness (in children they wheeze with this, difficult to differentiate) - during preg espesh RSV
  • occupation - flour
  • not breastfed
  • exposure to high conc of allergens
  • air pollution
  • low birth weight

triggers

  • house dust mite
  • infection
  • pollen/pets
  • stress
  • cold
  • exercise
  • emotion
  • smoking

pres
diurnal variation of (worse at night/early morn):
- cough - often worse at night
-wheeze
-SOB
- chest tightness
hyperinflation of chest
harrison’s sulci - dent below costal margin
nasal polyps - in severe asthma
10-15% of adult asthma is occupational - isocyanates + flour!
expiratory polyphonic wheeze on auscultation

ix
Lung function:
PEFR - diurnal variation >20%, or with SABA
FEV1 - significantly reduced, should improve by 15% with SABA 
FVC - normal
FEV1/FVC - <70%
fractional exhaled nitric oxide - rises when eosinophils present
FBC - eosinophilia
skin prick test
weekday/weekend asthma diary for occupational
?CXR - adult + smoker
questions in history 
- how often felt SOB?
- often wake up from sleep?
- often used reliver?
- affect ADL?
- do you think its under control
- inhaler technique

mx (general)

  1. SABA
  2. SABA +ICS (<400mcg budesonide)
  3. SABA + ICS + LRTA (montelukast)
  4. swap LRTA for LABA
  5. SABA +/- LRTA + MART (steroid + laba)
  6. increase ICS dose in MART
  7. SABA +/- LRTA theophylline
  8. refer
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74
Q

triad of atopy

A

igE mediated asthma
allergic rhinitis
atopic dermatitis

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75
Q

drug cautions with asthmatics

A

beta blockers - B2 cause airway obstruction

NSAIDS or aspirin block COX-1 -> decrease prostaglandins + overproduction of pro-inflammatory leukotrienes

76
Q

RCP3 questions

A

in the last month have you

  1. had difficulty sleeping due to your asthma symptoms
  2. have you had your usual asthma symptoms during the day - cough, wheeze, chest tightness, breathlessness?
  3. interferred with ADLS? - housework, school/work?
77
Q

asthma management targets

A

good control on minimal medication

FEV1 and PEFR >80% predicted

78
Q
how does these medications work?
SABA
LABA
MART
ICS
LRTA
Theophylline
SAMA
LAMA
A

SABA - short acting beta2 agonist - relax muscles of airways + inhibit histamine release from lung mast cells - can get tremor

LABA - long acting B2 agonist - same as above

MART - Maintanence and reliever therapy - formoterol (LABA + ICS (budesonide) steroid which prevents + therefore reduces inflammation + swelling

ICS - steroid - reduce the number of inflam cells in the airways by:
- suppress production of chemotactic mediators,
- reduce adhesion molecule expression
- inhibit inflam cell survival in airway
- suppress inflammatory gene expression in airway epithelial cells
examples: beclometasone dipropionate, fluticasone propionate,
s/e oral candidiasis and stunted growth

LRTA - leukotriene receptor antagonist - tablets - they stop leukotrienes which causes your airways to narrow

theophylline - relaxes smooth muscles causing bronchodilation - inhibits leukotriene synthesis and TNF alpha

SAMA - short acting muscarinic antagonists - inhaled anticholinergic agents eg ipratropium - bronchodilation by blocking muscarinic M1/3 receptors

LAMA - tiotropium - block bronchoconstriction effect of acetylcholine on M3 receptors in smooth muscle

79
Q

what is classed as a low/med/high ICS

A

low = <400 mcg budesonide
med =400-800
high = >800

80
Q

asthma management guidelines - NICE

A

NICE

  1. SABA - newly diagnosed
  2. SABA + ICS >3 weeks or night-time waking
  3. SABA + ICS+ LRTA (might go for LABA first - BTS guidelines)
  4. SABA + ICS + LABA (continue LTRA if working)
  5. SABA (+/-LRTA) + MART
  6. increase ICS in MART
  7. increase ICS to stand-alone rx + SABA (+/-LRTA) + theophylline
  8. refer
81
Q

assessing acute asthma severity and ix

A

moderate
increasing symps
PEF >50-75% best
not one symp of severe

severe
any one of:
PEF 33-50% best or pred
RR >/= 25/min
HR >110/min
inability to complete sentences in one breath
life-threatening 
any one of:
PEF <33% best or pred
sats <92%
pao2 <8kPa
normal paco2 4-6kPa 
 altered conciousness
exhaustion
arryhtmia
hypotension
cyanosis
silent chest
poor resp effort

near-fatal
raised paco2 +/or requiring mech ventilation with raised inflation pressures

ix
listen to chest 
hr
look at them 
PEF/ FEV1
pulse oximetry
ABG - if severe
CXR - if life-threatening, suspected pneumothorax, failure to respond
82
Q

why is normal paco2 scary in an acute asthma attach

A

indicates exhaustion

83
Q

what are the admission criteria for acute asthma

A

admit if any feature of life-threatening or near-fatal attack

if any severe symp persisting after inital treatment

previous near-fatal attack, preg, attack occuring despite already using oral corticosteroid and pres at night

84
Q

management of acute asthma + discharge requirements

A

O SHIT ME
Oxygen - aim 94-98 15L NRB
Salbutamol - 5mg neb (repeat up to 3 times B2B then QDS + PRN)
Hydro/pred within 1 hour - pred = 40mg OD 5/7
Ipratropium - neb (mix in with salb if severe or life-threatening, repeat up to 3x) 0.5mg QDS
Theophylline/amino (IV) - get senior for this
mag sulf -IVI 2g over 20min - patchy evidence for this now
Sab - IV
escalate - ITU/ intubate/ventilate

NOTE - oxygen, saba + ipra will all be given through the one neb

discharge requirements -
peak flow >75% #
12hrs from last nebs, oxygen
inhaler technique checked and recorded
patients GP informed within 24 hours of discharge
near-fatal should be under specialist review indefinitely
resp specialist follow up for severe + for at least 1 year after admission

85
Q
silicosis
who gets it 
aka
pres 
ix 
mx
A
who gets it 
construction worker
pottery
miners
sandblasters
present in some kitchen work tops - think about kitchen fitters

aka
potters rot

pres 
fibrotic presentation
restrictive 
dry cough
dyspnoea
SOBOE
black sputum
long latency
upper zones
risk factor for developing TB as silica is toxic to macrophages

ix
CXR - EGG SHELL CALCIFICATION of hilar lymph nodes, ground glass and honeycombing
restrictive lung function tests

mx 
pulm rehab
avoid exposure
make a claim
incurable 
smoking cessation
86
Q

Tin exposure (stannosis)
pres
CXR

A

non-fibrotic
doesnt interfere with lung physiology
makes CXR look mad because of high atomic nature

87
Q

what occupational exposures do you need to ask about

A
flour dust
asbestos
silica
lead
wood dust
88
Q

exposures related to occupational asthma

A
flour
isocyanates - spray paints 
wood dust
cleaning materials
cutting oils
resins
glues/adhesives
89
Q

what can cadmium exposure cause

A

emphysema

90
Q

what is pneumoconioses

A

group of chronic lung diseases by exposure to mineral dust or metal
includes: coal workers, silicosis, asbestosis

long latency
coal - 10 years
asbestos - 15-60 years

notifiable industrial disease - eligible for compensation

91
Q
coal workers pneumoconiosis
aka
what is it 
associations
types
pres
ix
mgmt
A

aka black lung

what is it
simple - particles retained in alveoli - engulfed by macrophage - immune response (enzymes released from dead macrophage) - fibrosis
can -> progressive massive pneumoconiosis - round fibrotic masses in upper lobes -> black sputum

association
caplans syndrome

types
simple - can be asymp, nodular interstitial lung disease
progressive massive fibrosis

pres 
dry cough
dyspnoea
SOBOE
black sputum
15-20 years after exposure

staging
graded on appearance of CXR
cat 1 - some opacities, normal lung markings
cat 2 - large number of opacities, normal lung markings
cat 3 - large number of opacities, normal lung not visible

ix
CXR - upper zone fibrosis
sputum micro
luFT - restrictive in simple, res/obs in PMF

mgmt 
avoid exposure
incurable 
claim
smoke cessation
manage symps of chronic bronchitis
92
Q

asbestos related disease

what is it

A

asbestos causes a variety of lung disease

pleural plaques -

  • benign
  • occur 20-40 years post exposure

pleural thickening

asbestosis
- severity related to length of exposure
- 15-30 years latency
- lower lobe fibrosis
- white>brown>blue 
- dry cough
dyspnoea
diffuse insp crackles: velcro
digital clubbing
building trade - fire proofing
CXR - ground glass opacification, small nodular opacities (asbestos bodies in alveoli at bases), shaggy cardiac sillhouette

mesothelioma

  • malignant disease of the pleura
  • up to 50 year latency
  • crocidolite (blue) asbestos is most dangerous - white>brown>blue
  • progressive SOB, chest pain, pleural effusion
  • palliative chemo
  • 8-14 month survival

lung cancer
RF
synergistic effect with cigarette smoke

93
Q
mesothelioma
what is it
pres 
causes
ix
mx
A

what is it
cancer of the mesothelial layer of pleural cavity
sometimes the mesothelial layers in abdomen affected too
metastasises to contralateral lung and peritoneum
right lung affected more than left

pres 
dyspnoea
b symps - weight loss, fatigue, fever, night sweats
chest wall pain
clubbing
30% pres as painless pleural effusion
latency up to 50 years

ix
CXR - pleural effusion, thickening
pleural CT - thickening, plaques, hilar LN enlargement
pleural fluid sent for MC&S, biochem and cytology - exudate with malignant cells
if pleural nodularity seen on CT then image-guided pleural biopsy - epitheliod mesothelioma

mx
symptomatic 
claim
palliative chemo
median survival 12 months
94
Q

when prescribing oxygen what do you need to include in the prescription?

A

target sats

95
Q

what can giving oxygen cause in a patient?

A

resportion atelectasis
reactive oxygen radicals
CO2 retention in susceptible (at risk) individuals: ?hypoxic drive
systemic vasoconstriction
decreased cerebral blood flow 25% in normals
increased afterload -> from vasoconstriction
decreased cardiac output by up to 1/4
increased cardiac work/oxygen requirements

96
Q

venturi or fixed performance mask
percent o2
how it works
pros and cons

A
deliver constant oxygen concs
was seen to be gold standard
24-40% operate accurately
60% - gives 50% FIo2
with tachypnoea RR >30/min the oxygen supply should be increased by 50%
increasing flow doesnt increase the oxygen conc
so the litres dont really matter
PRECISE - COPD
97
Q

how to read oxygen flow L/min stick on the wall in the hosp

A

take the reading from the middle of the ball

98
Q

in what conditions do you just go straight in with high flow

A
cardiac arrest
shock 
sepsis
major trauma
burns
drowning 
major head injury 
  • give via reservoir mask (NRB)
  • maintain until oximetry available
  • when stable adjust to target range
99
Q

you have a patient thats not critically ill, not type 2 that needs o2 but not below 85% sats what do you prescribe?

A

nasal cannulae 2-6L/min aim 94-98%

100
Q

you have a non critically ill patient that has type 2 resp failure what o2 do you prescribe

A

24 or 28% venturi
aim for 88-92% + reduce if sats >92%

if theyre >92% perform abg:

  • if acidic and hypercapnic or patient tiring consider NIV or IPPV
  • If normal PH and hypercapnic then at risk of over oxygenation then maintain at lowest o2 prescription and repeat ABG in 30-60 mins
101
Q
transfer factor
what is it 
equation
causes of raised TLCO
\+ lowered
causes of low VA
causes of low/high KCO
A

what is it
the rate at which a gas will diffuse from alveoli into blood.
CO is used to test the rate of diffusion.
results may be given as the total gas transfer (TLCO- a derived value) or transfer coefficient, KCO - (standardised measurement of rate of uptake of CO from alveoli). there is also VA - alveolar volume.

KCO X VA = TLCO

therefore the TLCO cannot be reduced by something in the lung - it has to affect the VA or KCO to therefore effect TLCO

causes of raised TLCO:
asthma
pulmonary haemorrhage (Wegener's, Goodpasture's)
left-to-right cardiac shunts
polycythaemia
hyperkinetic states
male gender, exercise
lower TLCO:
pulmonary fibrosis
pneumonia
pulmonary emboli
pulmonary oedema
emphysema
anaemia
low cardiac output

things that decrease VA:
reduced expansion - neuromusclar weakness
discrete loss of units - pneumonectomy, pulm fibrosis
diffuse alveolar damage - emphysema, pulm fibr
poor gas mixing - COPD, bronchiectasis, asthma

KCO increased:
age
conditions with + normal or reduced TLCO:
discrete loss of units - pneumonectomy, lobectomy, consolidation
decrease in alveolar expansion - scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, ankylosis of costovertebral joints e.g. ankylosing spondylitis
technical artefact - poor insp
polycythaemia or haemorrhage - vasculitis

KCO low:
diffuse alveolar destruction - emphysema/pulm fibrosis
pulm hypertension - heart disease
pulmonary capillary dilation - AV malformations, hepatopulmonary syndrome
anaemia - Hb correction

102
Q

common causes of dyspnoea

A
asthma
COPD
PE
ACS
interstitial lung disease
cardiac tamponade
103
Q

what does a raised JVP mean

A

high right atrial pressure due to fluid overload

104
Q

name diseases that cause an obstructive spirometry

A
asthma
COPD
bronchiectasis
CF
bronchiolitis obliterans
some vasculitis 
tumours 
solid mechanical obstruction
105
Q

name diseases that cause an restrictive spirometry

A
intersitial lung disease 
neuromuscular weakness (eg motor neurone disease)
obesity 
chest wall deformity - scoliosis
106
Q

what does the Z-score mean on spirometry?

A

tells you how far away you are from the central distribution the patient is
in spirometry this should be between -1.64 and 1.64

107
Q

interstitial lung disease

definition

A

is a disease of the pulmonary interstitium - between the alveoli and cap basement membrane
distinct cellular infiltrates and extracellular matrix deposition in lung distal to the terminal bronchiole ie alveoli/capillary interface

108
Q

classification of interstitial lung disease

A

5 major groupings:

  1. idiopathic
  2. associated systemic diseases - rheumatological, vasculitis, vascular arterio-venous malformations
  3. environmental triggers - drugs, fungal, dusts
  4. granulomatous disease - build up of immune cells predom macrophages and t- cells in interstitium - sarcoid, wegeners (granulomatosis with polyangiitis)
  5. other - lymphangiolyomatosis, eosinophilic pneumonia, alveolar proteinosis, langerhans cell histiocytosis
109
Q

idiopathic interstitial pneumonias and whether they are steroid responsive or not

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - histological pattern is usual interstitial pneumonia

non-specific interstitial pneumonia - better than UIP

desquamative interstitial pneumonia - immunological response to smoking - stop smoking and may need steroids

cryptogenic organising pneumonia - inflammatory response not infective - very steroid responsive

110
Q
if you did a broncho-alveolar lavage investigating an interstitial disease and found high:
neuts
lymph
eosino
infection

what diagnosis would it lean towards

A

neuts - IPF, DIP

lymph - sarcoid (tans-bronchial biopsy for diagnosis), extrinsic allergic alveolitis

eosinophils - eosiniophillic pneumonia

infection - virus, atypical microbes

111
Q
idiopathic pulm fibrosis 
what is it
pres
causes
ix
mx
prognosis
comps
A

what is it
aka cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
non underlying cause exists

pres
50-70
2:1 men:w
progressive dyspnoea on exertion
paroxysmal dry cough,
bibasal fine end insp creps on ausc
clubbing

ix
histo - usual interstitial pneumonia
CXR - reticular shadowing @ peripheries and bases, shaggy heart border
**HRCT - peripheral subpleural and basal fibrosis - ‘ground glass’
traction bronchiectasis and, if progressed, honeycombing
spirometry - restrictive
impaired gas exchange - reduced TLCO (transfer factor)
check for ANA+ve

mx
therapeutic monitoring
diagnostic trial of steroids
check eligibility for pirfenidone/nintedanib (antifibrotic agents)
enrol in clinical trials
TRANSPLANT - only rx should to extend survival
oxygen
pulm rehab

prognosis
3 years

complications
pulm HTN -> cor pulmonale
T2RF
cachexia
depression
112
Q
hypersensitivity pneumonitis/EAA
what is it
examples
pres
ix
mx
A

what is it
hypersensitivity induced lung damage (alveoli and distal bronchioles) due to a variety of inhaled organic particles

cause
immune complex mediated tissue damage - type III hypersensitivity although delayed type IV in chronic
non-IgE mediated!!!

examples
bird fanciers - avian proteins
farmers - spores of Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula (formerly Micropolyspora faeni)
malt workers - aspergillus clavatus
mushroom workers - thermophilic actinomycetes

pres 
acute 
4-8 hours after exposure
SOB
dry cough
fever, aches/pains
subacute - weeks
chronic - months

ix
CXR - upper/mid fibrosis - ground glass + honeycomb
restrictive spiro
decreased TLCO
bronchoalveolar lavage - lymphocytosis (predom CD8)
blood - NO eosinophilia

mx 
remove exposure 
acute or sub -oral pred/ o2
chronic - low dose corticosteroid
immunosuppressant
compensation
113
Q

what may help treat ILD with rheumatological conditions

A

steroids and cyclophosphamide
or rituximab
plasma exchange

114
Q
sarcoidosis
what is it 
pres
ix
mx
lifespan limited by
A

what is it
multi-system of unknown aetiology
affects any organ but predom lymph nodes and lung

pres
young adults
african
acute - erythema nodosum, swinging fever, polyarthralgia
insidious - dyspnoea, non-prod cough, malaise, weight loss
skin - lupus pernio, painful shin rash
hypercalcaemia - macrophage inside granulomas cause can increased conversion of vit D to its active form (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

ix
biopsy - showing non-caseating granulomas
CXR - 
0 = normal
1 = bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
2 = + fine reticular, nodular shadows
3 = diffuse infiltrate only
4= diffuse fibrosis
serum ACE - elevated
FBC - lymphopenia (being tied up in granulomas), raised ESR, hypercalcaemia
ECG - ?24 tape, ?ECHO 
24hr urinary calcium if serum normal as this can be first indicator of renal involvement
bronchoscopy - transbronchial biopsies
mx
Do not treat at stage 1
not asymp at stage 2/3 
about half patients require treatment - then they will have a prolonged course of illness
pred 0.5mg/kg/day - 30-40mgs for 4 weeks
gradually reduce steroids
if recurs then methotrexate

lifespan limited by:
cardiac involvement - arryhtmia
- renal involvement - nephrocalcinosis
- lung fibrosis

115
Q

in ILD which diseases will cause changes on scans in these areas:
upper
lower

A
upper - ESCHART (granulomatous disease)
E - EAA, eosinophilic pneumonia
S - sarcoid/silicosis
C - coal workers pneumoconiosis, 
H - histiocytosis X
A - ankylosis spondylitis
R - radiotherpy 
T -TB
lower - RASCO (systemic)
R - RA
A - asbestosis 
S - SLE 
C - cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
O - other (drugs)
116
Q

4Ds of fibrosis

A

Dyspnoea
dry cough
diffuse end inspiratory crackles
digital clubbing

117
Q

drugs that causes pulmonary fibrosis

A
amiodarone
bleomycin
methotrexate
nitrofurantoin
bromocriptine
118
Q

what does pneumonia normally mean in hospital?

A

microbial infection + host inflammatory response = symptoms and signs of consolidation and impaired alveolar function
caused by bacteria, viruses, fungus, parasites
occurs from inhalation, aspiration or haematogenous spread

119
Q

co-morbidities important to ask about when suspecting pneumonia

A
smoking 
alcohol abuse
immunosuppression
resp comorbs
neuro
renal 
cardiovascular 
diabetes 
liver
120
Q

classification of pneumonia

A

CAP
aspiration
HAP
pneumonia in the immunocompromised

121
Q

respiratory host defences

A

innate reflexes:

  • cough
  • mucociliary transport

innate immunity:

  • antimicrobial peptides (non-specific) : lysozymes, lactoferrin, defensins, collectins
  • phagocytic and inflam cells

adaptive immunity

  • immunoglobulins
  • macrophages
122
Q

common organisms for:
CAP
HAP

A
CAP
strep pneumoniae
h. influenzae
influenze virus
adenovirus
HAP
staph aureua
pseudomonas aeroginosa
bacteroids
e.coli, klebsiella, proteus
123
Q

clinical features of pneumonia

A

history of:
prod cough, breathless, pleuritic chest pain, fever, systemic features

examination:
tachyp/c, localizing chest signs - decreased air entry, dull to percuss, increased vocal reasonance, bronchial breathing, crackles

124
Q

diagnosis of pneumonia

then assessing severity

A

short hist of acute lower resp infection
new focal chest signs
new radio consolidation

severity assessment
CURB65
pneumonia severity index
presence of comps

125
Q

pneumonia investigations

A

vital signs:
sats, BP, HR, RR

CXR

Bloods - FBC, U/E, LFT, CRP, ABG, PCT

micro - sputum, blood culture, viral swabs, specific serology (legionella)

126
Q

pneumonia management

A
oxygen
fluids
antibiotics
resp support
monitoring
127
Q

how to notice a not improving patient in penumonia

+ what you should consider doing if you think this is the case

A

CRP still >50% at day 4 of abx

reasons:
slow response
incorrect/missed diagnosis
secondary comps - pulmonary (empyema/abscess), extra-pulmonary
inappropriate abx or unexpected pathogen
impaired immunity

next steps:
consider alternative diagnosis
exclude underlying immunodeficiency/chronic lung disease
repeat CXR/cultures
escalate abx
consider bronchoscopy, pleural fluid sampling

128
Q

post-discharge tasks for pneumonia admissions

A

CXR follow up 6/8 weeks to ensure full resolution - if not then CT+ bronchoscopy
seen in clinic - as pneumonia can be a presenting feature of lung cancer

vaccine

  • annual flu
  • pneumococcal - >65 years
129
Q
resp pharma - if something ends in:
...mab
...sone
...terol
...lone
...nib
A
mab - monoclonal antibody 
sone - corticosteroid
terol - bronchodilator
lone - corticosteroid
nib - kinase inhibitor
130
Q

delivery systems for inhaled drugs

A

pressurized metered-dose inhalers (normal inhaler)

spacer devices - allow more of the drug to be inhaled

dry powder inhalers- have no propellant (requires the patient to have sufficient inhalation power to breathe in powder)

131
Q

benefits of inhaled drugs

A

lungs are robust and able to safely handle repeated exposure

act direct on lung and faster than IV

rpaid absorption

lungs are naturally permeable

large surface area

fewer drug metabolising enzymes

non-invasive port of entry into the systemic circ

132
Q

name 4 ICS and why are there different ones

A

different ones as they can be used in different formats

beclomethasone diproprionate (dry powder inhalation, normal ihaler)
budesenide (DPI, PMDI, single dose for nebs)
ciclesonide (PMDI)
fluticasone proprionate (DPI, PMDI, nebs)
mometasone furoate (DPI)
133
Q

s/e seen in high-dose ICS used over long time

A

loss of bone density
adrenal suppression
cataracts
glaucoma

134
Q

how do antifibrotics such as pirfenidone work

A

anti-fibrotic, anti-inflam, anti-oxidant

reduces:
fibroblast proliferation
collagen production
production of fibrogenic mediators

135
Q

Whys is mycobacteria resistant to gram stain

so what stain do you use?

A

high lipid content with mycolic acids in cell wall

use ziehl-neelsen stain for AFB

  • carbol fuchsin
  • acid alcohol
  • methylene blue
136
Q

most common infectious killer in the world?

A

TB

137
Q

risk factors for TB

A
born in high prev area
IVDU
homeless
alcoholic
prison
HIV +
138
Q

how is TB spread?

A
aerosol 
lung to lung 
droplets can only carry a few ft - must inhale droplets
actually quite hard to catch it 
mainly get it from households
139
Q

what % of people exposed to TB develop TB

A

5%

140
Q

natural history of TB

A
  1. pulm infection
    - bacili settle in lung apex
    - macro + lymph seal in and contain and kill majority

in 2-5% they will then go on to develop clinically evident primary pulm disease:

  • bacili + macrophages coalesce to form a granuloma (collection of epithelioid histiocytes, caseous necrosis in centre) = primary Ghon focus
  • mediastinal lymph nodes enlarge (this plus the focus = primary (Ghon) complex

as granuloma grows it develops cavity - more likely in apex as there is more air and less blood supply /immune cells

if not contained there is haematogenous dissemination which leads to serious non pulm disease (can happen at primary infection or at reactivation):

  • TB meningitis + CN palsy or tuberculoma
  • pleural TB
  • miliary TB
  • bone and joint TB - pain or swelling, potts with spinal cord lesion (leads to crush fracture)
  • genitourinary TB - epididymitis, frequency, dysuria, haematuria
  • abdominal TB - ascites, abdo lymph nodes, ileal malabsorption

primary infection -> progressive primary disease or latent TB
then further down line (1 in 10):
post-primary disease (wherever dormant bacilli are hiding)
then further down line may get re-infected

141
Q

presentation of TB

A
systemic features:
weight loss*
low grade fever
anorexia
night sweats* 
malaise 
  • most indicative of TB
pulm features:
cough >3/52
chest pain 
breathless
haemoptysis

may be associated with:
consolidation, collapse, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion (depending on the site of the focus and erosion of the cavity)

142
Q

miliary TB

A

TB everywhere

tiny granulomas

143
Q

diagnosing active TB

A

non-specific - prolong inflam response

  • normochromic normocytic anaemia
  • thrombocytosis
  • raised CRP/ESR
  • hypoalbuminaemia
  • hypergammaglobulinaemia
  • hypercalcaemia
  • sterile pyuria - WCC in renal tract TB

definitive - micro - AFB, PCR, culture

  • sputum smear - 3 specimens needed for AFB
  • sputum culture - GOLD STANDARD
  • urine
  • CSF
  • pleural fluid
  • biopsy specimen: LN, bone etc

suggestive - histopatholgy caseating granulomata + ZN

CXR - upper lobe cavitation, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

144
Q

diagnosing latent TB

A

not possible to find dormant bacteria
must use an indirect measurement - to detect an immune response to an organism, to check for memory T cells

mantoux - tuberculin skin test
- protein derived from organism injected intradermally
stimulates T4 delayed hypersensitivity reaction
false neg - immunosuppressed or milary TB
only mod specific (false pos)
will get reaction if had BCG vaccine

depends on size whether its posi or not:
>15mm = strongly posi (probs had infection)
6-15mm = posi - shouldn’t be given vaccine as maybe due to infection/previous BCG
<6mm = negative/not significant - can give BCG vaccine

OR can use interferon gamma release assays (IGRAs) - Quantiferon- TB test (4 viles of blood)

  • use antigens specific to TB so distinguishes between BCG and TB
  • demonstrate exposure not active infection
145
Q

TB treatment

A
curable 
RIPE - 6 months rx
Rifampicin - 6 (12 in CNS)
Isoniazid - 6 (12 in CNS)
Pyrazinamide - first 2
Ethambutol - first 2

why so long?
reactivation of dormant bacilli is opp for killing

compliance is CRITICAL to reduce relapse and remittance
people don’t like them as they make you feel a bit shit!
community TB nursing team essential to ensure compliance
DOTS - directly observed therapy - give meds in supervised fashion 3 + times a week

146
Q

how they work and common s/e of TB drugs

A

rifampicin -
bacteriocidal, blocks protein synthesis, effective throughout treatment course
S/E = red urine, hepatitis, drug interactions (contraceptive pill no longer works)

isoniazid -
bacteriocidal for rapidly growing bacilli (blocks cell wall synth), most effective in initial stages
S/E = hepatitis, neuropathy

pyrazinamide -
bacteriocidal initally, less effective later
S/E = hepatitis, arthralgia/gout, rash

ethambutol -
bacteriostatic, blocks cell wall synth
S/E = optic neuritis

147
Q

preventing TB

A

active case finding - reduce infectivity

detection and treatment of latent TB - community TB nursing team using Mantoux
- identify and treat to reduce risk of post-primary TB:
(6 months isoniazid, 3 months rifampicin + isoniazid) = reduces risk of development of active TB by 2/3

vaccination

  • neonatal BCG - works really well
  • limited efficacy but does protect against disseminated TB
148
Q

people at risk of pneumonia

A
infants and elderly 
COPD (chronic lung conditions)
immunocomp
nursing home residents
impaired swallow - neurological conditions
diabetes
congestive heart disease
alc and IVDU
149
Q
COPD
what is it 
pathogenesis
pres
causes
diagnosis
ix
stable mx
A

what is it
obstructive disease
spectrum between chronic bronchitis and emphysema
inflamed mucousy narrowed airways and damaged air sacs

pathogenesis
smoking -> variety of proinflam and oxidative stress cascades to be activated in the lung -> protease production and alveolar cell apoptosis -> lung destruction
chronic bronchitis = cough and sputum >3months a year for 2 consecutive years
emphysema = damage to alveoli, loss of elastic recoil, larger airspaces, therefore lower surface area for gas exchange

features
cough - productive
dyspnoea
wheeze
severe - RHF + peripheral oedema
systemic effects in later stages of disease:
- HTN
- osteoporosis
- depression
- weight loss
- reduced muscle/ general weakness

causes
smoking
alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, cadium, coal, cotton, cement, grain

diagnosis
purely functional (spirometry) diagnosis now eg can have emphysema and not have COPD as will have a FEV1/FVC >70%
ix
post-bronchodilator spirometry: FEV1/FVC <70%
CXR:
- hyperinflation
- bullae/pneumothorax
- flat hemi's
- important to exclude lung cancer 
FBC - exclude secondary polycythaemia
BMI
MRC breathlessness scale
severity 
mild/ 1 = FEV1 >80%
mod/ 2 = 50-79%
severe/ 3 = 30-49%
very severe/ 4 = <30%

management
SMOKING CESSATION - nicotine replacement eg varenicline or bupropion
- annual flu/pneumococcal vaccine
- pulm rehab
- prophylactic abx - azithromycin in selected patients
- mucolytics if chronic prod cough
- cor pulmonale - furose + consider LTOT
BRONCHODILATORS:
1. SABA or SAMA
2. asthmatic features/steroid responsiveness or not?
NO -> add LABA or LAMA -> if on SAMA switch to SABA
YES -> LABA + ICS (beclometh), may also + LAMA

150
Q

explain blue bloaters and pink puffers

A

blue bloaters - commonly with chronic bronchitis, lost hypoxia as a drive for ventilation as they have become used to it. They now need hypercapnia to drive it so are in T2RF. Hence cyanotic and bloated probs cos got RHF and oedematous.

pink puffers:
emphysematous patient, maintaining resp effort hence why skinny, increased work of breathing T1RF

151
Q

pres + common organisms + management of acute exacerbations of COPD

A

pres
change or increase in sputum
increase in dyspnoea, cough, wheeze, hypoxic +/- acute confusion

common organisms -
h.influenzae, step pneumoniae, moraxella catarrhalis, rhinovirus

management
increase broncho use - consider neb
pred 30mg for 5 days
give abx if clin signs this is bacterial - raised PCT?
first line abx = amox or clary or doxy
152
Q

requirements for LTOT
patients that need it
assessing for it
risk assessments

A

should breathe 02 at least 15 hours a day
Patients that need to be assessed to receive LTOT are:
- Very severe (<30% predicted) and considered in severe (30-49%)
- Cyanosis
- Polycythaemia
- Peripheral oedema
- Raised jugular venous pressure
- O2 sats <92% on air

Assessment includes:
2x ABG at least 3 weeks apart – offer LTOT when p02 <7.3 kPa or 7.3-8kPa + (secondary polycythaemia or peripheral oedema or pulm HTN)

CANNOT OFFER IF STILL SMOKING – after offering smoking cessation

Must also risk assess before:

  • Falls risk over equipment
  • Risk of burns fires – do they live with someone who smokes (including e-cigarettes)
153
Q

what do you need to do before prescribing azithromycin

A

ECG - long QT syndrome

154
Q

what inflam cells are commonly seen in COPD or asthma

A

asthma - mast cells + eosinophils

COPD - neuts + macrophages

155
Q

ANCA-associated vasculitis

A

microscopic polyangiitis
granulomatosis with polyangiitis
eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

156
Q

rheumatoid arthritis and the lungs

what can it cause?

A

pleural effusions

  • exudate
  • metabolically active, low glucose

fibrosing alveolitis
- relatively treatment resistant

airways disorders

  • bronchiolitis, bronchiectasis, obliterative bronchiolitis
  • reasonably common
157
Q

mechanisms of immune-mediated damage

A

bystander - tissue damage in chronic infection (an infection wont clear as of non-immune defects in CF)

excessive immune response eg eosinophilic asthma in response to harmless allergen

failure to control immune like responses eg alpha-1 anti-trypsin disease: emphysema

on-target immune response: bronchiolitis obliterans of your own airways

off-target immune response: goodpastures (antibodies to type IV collagens after some viral infections)

158
Q

PCP - pneumocystis pneumonia

typical pres + mgmt

A
6/52
progressive breathlessness
dry cough
lymphopenia nearlu always present (CD4)
exertional hypoxia

mx - high dose co-trimoxazole (trimeth/sulphawmthoxazole)
supplemental steroids for hypoxia - pred

159
Q

invasive aspergillosis

classic pres + treatment

A

fever in neutropenic patient, usually on broad spectrum antibiotics
multiple pulm nodules/infiltrates

mx
amphotericin (renal tox)
caspofungin
liposomal amphotericin

160
Q

virchows triad

A

stasis
endothelial injury
hypercoagulable state

161
Q

what factors in the coagulation cascade does warfarin work on

A

1972

10, 9, 7, 2

162
Q

what factors in the coag cascade does lmwh work on

A

2a

10a

163
Q

what factors in the coag cascade does NOACs work on

A

2a, 10a

164
Q

what factors in the coag cascade does thrombolysis work on

A

2

165
Q
pulmonary hypertension
what is it 
pathogenesis
pres
causes
ix
mx
A

disease of small pulm arteries characterised by vascular prolif and remodelling
mean pulm art pressure >25mmhg at rest with pulm cap wedge pressure <15mmhg

pathogen
progressive increase in pulm vascular resistance -> right vent failure -> death

causes
heritable - BMPR2 gene
CREST - systemic sclerosis (connective tissue disease)
lung disease - hypoxic vasconstriction (COPD, interstitial)
heart disease -> valvular failure or heart failure -> increased filing pressures

pres
in order:
dyspnoea
ankle swelling
chest pain
syncope

ix
ECG - RVH (tall R wave and small s in V), RAD, R atrial enlargement (p wave >2.5mm in II, III and aVF)
spirometry/transfer factor
CXR - pruning (attenuated peripheral arts), enlarged pulm art shadow
transthoracic echo
CTPA
right heart catheterisation

mx
CCB - nif or amlo
sildenafil - augments pulm vascular response to nitric oxide
anticoag - warfarin targ 1.5-2.5
lifestyle - exercise
furose - oedema 
supplemental o2 if needed
166
Q

what type of reaction is the inflam response in TB

A

Type 4 hypersensitivity

167
Q

what can cause a falsely negative mantoux test?

A
miliary TB
sarcoidosis
HIV
lymphoma
very young (<6m)
168
Q
DVT 
what is it 
pres
causes
ix
mx
comps
A

deep vein thrombosis
normally in leg behind valve

pres
unilateral calf swelling
pain along deep venous system
asymmetric oedema + collateral superficial veins

causes
clotting RF

ix
wells criteria:
0-1 - unlikely - do d-dimer within 4 hours
2+ - likely - USS doppler leg within 4 hours (if not within 4 hours then d-dimer + anticoag while waiting)

mx
first line = DOAC (apixaban or rivaroxaban)
if DOAC not suitable then - LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or warfarin
for >3/12.
then stopped if provoked VTE
in unprovoked VTE then anticoag for 6 months total, and consider testing for antiphos antibodies + hereditary thrombophilia

early immobilisation
avoid pill
TEDs

169
Q

thromboembolic RF

A
cancer
trauma
major surg
hospitalisation
immobilisation
clotting disorders
previous DVT/PE
oral contraception
obesity/preg (high oestrogen)
recent long travel
170
Q
PE 
what is it 
pres
causes
ix
mx
A

what is it
clot in pulmonary vasculature. can be peripheral or central.
life-threatening.
if not treated leads to RHF -> death

pres
tachypnoea
crackles
tachycardia
fever
chest pain - typically pleuritic
haemoptysis

causes
50% of DVT embolise

ix - NICE 2020
all patients clinically suggestive of PE should have hx, exam, CXR (to exclude other causes).
if low probs it being PE do PERC (<15% on clin judgement)
if anything higher do a Wells.
PE likely >4 points - immediate CTPA (delay for this start anticoag anyway - apix or rivar)
unlikely =4 - d-dimer
ECG - sinus tachy, S1Q3T3 large S (present in 20%), RBBB + RAD associated

mx
DOAC - api or rivar (same as DVT)
low risk PE mx in outpatients - do a PESI - but key requirements are haemodynam stable, support at home, lack of comorbs
IF HAEM UNSTABLE (eg hypotensive):
first line = thrombolysis eg altepase
171
Q

advant/disadvant of V/Q or CTPA

A

CTPA advant - speedier, easier to perform out of hours, reduced need for further imaging and possibility of finding alternative diagnosis if PE is excluded

V/Q is ix of choice if there is renal impairment

172
Q

wells PE score

A
clinical signs symps of DVT 3 
alt diag less likely than PE 3 
HR >100 1.5
immob >3/7 or surg in prev 4 weeks 1.5
prev DVT/PE 1.5
haemoptysis 1
malignancy <6months 1

> 4 = likely

173
Q

wells DVT score

A

active cancer <6months 1
paralyses, paresis or recent plaster of lower extremeties 1
recent immob >3 days or maj surg <3 months requiring general or regional anaesthesia 1
localised tenderness along deep venous system 1
entire leg swollen 1
calf swelling >3cm larger to asymp side 1
pitting oedema confined to symp leg 1
collateral superficial veins (non-varicose) 1
prev DVT 1
alt diagnosis at least as likely -2

2+ - likely

174
Q
compare exudate and transudate effusion for:
general cause
pathophys
aetiologies
fluid
lights criteria 
mgmt
A
exudate:
general cause
- local
pathophys
- increase cap perm
aetiologies
- infections (TB/pneumonia)
- infarctions (PE), RA, SLE, cancer
fluid
- rich in cells eg neuts + protein
- <7.4 pH (inflam -> metabolism -> acids)
lights criteria 
need one positive criterion:
- effusion/serum >0.5 (protein rich)
- LDH in efffus >200U/L
- E/S LDH >0.6
mgmt
- rx underlying cause
transudate:
general cause
- systemic
pathophys/aetiologies
- increase hydrostatic forces eg LVHF
- decrease oncotic pressure eg kwashiorkor, cirrhosis, nephrotic, menetrier, malabsorption
fluid
- ultra-filtrate of plasma
- >7.4
lights criteria 
all three criteria have to be neg
- E/S protein <0.5
- LDH in e <200u/l
- E/S LDH <0.6
mgmt
- give diuretics +/- albumin
175
Q
chest drain  
what is it
indications
CI 
insertion
housekeeping
comps
removal
A

creates a one way valve allowing air or liquid out of cavity

indications:
Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax not suitable for conservative management or aspiration
Empyema
Haemothorax
Haemopneumothorax
Chylothorax
In some cases of penetrating chest wall injury in ventilated patients
contraindications
INR > 1.3
Platelet count < 75
Pulmonary bullae
Pleural adhesions
insertion
arm behind head
5th intercostal space midaxillary line
use USS guidance
local anaesthetic - lidocaine 3mg/kg
use seldinger technique
tubing secured with straight stitch or dressing
position confirmed by 'swinging' fluid and CXR

housekeeping
swinging - should be if in right place
bubbling - if air for pneumo

comps:
failure of insertion
bleeding
infection
penetration of lung
re-expansion of pulm oedema - to avoid clamping regularly to avoid output >1L in <6hours

removal
when no output for >24 hours + imaging shows resolution
if been pneumo - remove when stops bubbling or when patient coughs + imaging

176
Q
pneumothorax
what is it
causes
rf
symps
ix
mx
A

Accumulation of air in the pleural space

causes
Primary spontaneous: tall thin males, smoking, Marfan’s, family history (no underlying causes)
Secondary spontaneous: pre-existing lung disease: COPD (bullae), CF, TB, PCP
Traumatic

rf 
preexisting lung disease
marfans, RA
ventilation incl NIV
SMOKING 

patho
Normally Palv > Pip (alveolar and intrapleural)
If communication between alveolus and pleural space gases follow pressure gradient to equalise
Thoracic cavity normally below resting volume, lung above resting volume -> thoracic cavity enlarges and lung shrinks
TENSION:
Medical emergency - occurs when intrapleural pressure > atmospheric -> results from ball valve mechanism letting air in but not out
Lung deflates and mediastinum shifts contralaterally compressing great veins and causing decreased venous return to hear

symps
dysnpnoea
pleuritic chest pain
sweating
tachyp/c
hyperresonant
resp distress
trach deviation
distended neck veins

ix
CXR

mx
primary
- <2cm + asymp discharge, otherwise aspirate - failure = chest drain

secondary 
- >50yrs and >2cm/symps = chest drain
otherwise aspirate 1-2cm
all should be admitted for >24 hours
<1cm give o2 and admit for 24 hours

DIVING SHOULD BE PERM AVOIDED

177
Q

common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

A
TIMES
TB
inorganic dust
malignancy
EAA
sarcoidosis
178
Q
bronchiectasis
what is it 
types
pres
causes
ix
mx
A

Permanent dilatation and thickening of the airways due to recurrent infection and inflammation
Failure of mucociliary clearance and impaired immune function -> continued insult to bronchial wall -> chronic inflammation

types
diffuse or focal

pres
chronic daily cough
foul smelling thick green mucous 
dyspnoea + wheeze
weight loss
fatigue
recurrent infections
clubbing
intermittent haemoptysis
causes
Post infectious: measles/flu/pertussis, aspergillus fumigatus (ABPA), pneumonia
Immunodeficiency: HIV, Ig deficiency
Genetic: CF, ciliary dyskinesia, A1ATD
Connective tissue disease: RA, Sjogren’s
IBD: CD, UC

ix
bacterial colonisation - s.aureus (if abscess), h.inf (most common), s.pneumo, pseudomonas aeruginosa, aspergillus fumigatus, klebsiella
insp coarse crackles (shifts on cough)
high pitched insp squeaks and pops
low pitched rhonci (snoring sounds)
CXR - cysts, dilated bronchi with thick walls, tubular or ovoid opacities
CT - gold - dilated bronchi
FBC - raise eosinophils in ABPA, neutrophilia -> bact infection
sputum culture + sens
- G-ve = pseudomonas aeruginosa
- G+ve = s.aureus, s.pneumonia

mx
lifestyle = exercise, good nutrition
airway clearance physio (postural drainage + percussion)
mucolytics - carbocysteine
bronchodilators
inhaled hypertonic saline
vaccines
pseudomonas? neb tobramycin or aminolycoside: gentamicin
ACUTE exacerbation = oral amox if mild
IV fluoroquinolones eg ciprofloxacin if severe

179
Q
allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
what is it 
pres
ix
mx
A

what is it
Hypersensitivity to aspergillus fumigatus that has colonised airway of pt with asthma or CF
Formation of IgE and IgG aBs -> bronchial obstruction, airway inflammation, mucoid impaction -> bronchiectasis, fibrosis

pres
hx of asthma/CF/atopy
increased cough
mucus plugs
wheeze
fever (>38.5)
pleuritic chest pain
ix
skin test for aspergillus fumigatus sensitivity - positive
Serum IgE elevated
FBC with eosinophil count elevated
CXR *upper or middle lobe infiltrates

mx
Oral corticosteroid + environmental control (mould avoid) + optimised Rx CF/ast
*Azole antifungal: itraconazole, co-trimoxazole

180
Q

what is obesity hypoventilation syndrome?

A

is when severely overweight people fail to breathe rapidly or deeply enough, resulting in low o2 and high co2
can lead to T2RF
the disease puts strain on the heart which may lead to heart failure and leg swelling
is defined as the combination of obesity and an increased blood carbon dioxide level during the day that is not attributable to another cause of excessively slow or shallow breathing

181
Q

findings on xray for pneumonia

A
dense or patchy consolidation, usually unilateral 
air bronchograms (seen as air tubes going through consolidated lung)
182
Q

what lung lobes border these structures:
diaphragms
R heart border
L heart border

A

diaphragm - left and right lower lobes
R heart border - R middle lobe
L heart border - lingula (part of the left upper lobe)

183
Q

findings on xray for pleural effusion

A

blunting of costophrenic angles
homogenous opacification
fluid level - meniscus

184
Q

findings on xray for pulm oedema (baso heart failure findings)

A
ABCDEF
A - alveolar and interstitial shadowing
B- kerley B lines 
C - cardiomegaly - heart shadow >50% of thoracic horizontal on PA
D - upper lobe venous blood diversion 
E - effusion
F - fluid in horizontal fissure
185
Q

findings on xray for pneumothorax

A

air within pleural space - loss of lung markings
in tension - potential for mediastinal shift
NOTE - inverting imaging is useful to help spot them

186
Q

findings on xray for lobar collapse

A

look for loss of volume:
raised hemidiaphragm ipsilaterally
tracheal and mediastinal shift towards collapse
LUL - veil sign - the whole left lung looks opaque ish (cover by a veil sign), luftsichel sign - radiolucent rim around aortic arch due to hyperinflation of the lower lobe
LLL - sail sign (below left heart border there is a straight line the sail of a boat), give impression of double heart border
RUL - concave border of upper lobe, increase opacification, right hilar mass (goldens S sign)
RML - indistinct RH border + tracheal deviation + but preserved right hemidiaphragm
RLL- sail sign.