A&E + anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

A-E assessment

  • things to remember
  • the assessment - what you physically would do
A

first of all:

  • treat all problems as you come to them
  • re-assess after every intervention to monitor treatment response eg if you give 02 start from A again and repeat all initial assessments
  • make sure to delegate tasks when you can
  • make sure they have continuous monitoring on
  • clearly communicate how often you want patient obs to be relayed to you by other staff
  • call for help early using SBAR
  • make use of local guidelines
  • meds and fluids will need to be prescribed at the time
  • DOCUMENT EVERYTHING CLEARLY IN NOTES
  • of at any point there are no signs of life commence CPR

THE A-E:

first - get the handover from the nurses that called you
speak to the patient- how are they feeling - they can give you loads of info (if unconcious start BLS straight away)
- check notes, obs chart, prescription chart

A- AIRWAYS
can they talk? move on
no? - look for airway compromise - cyanosis, see-saw breathing, accessory muscles, decreased/increased sounds
interventions-
1. head-tilt chin-lift
2. jaw thrust - in significant trauma use this instead (fingers behind mandible thumb on chin)
3. guedel/igel - oropharyngel for soft tissue obstruction - sits between tongue and hard palate
4. nasopharyngeal - better for partly conscious people, NEVER IN SKULL BASE FRACTURE
5. CPR + crash call
6. signs of anaphylaxis -> follow that pathway

B - BREATHING
RR -> 12-22 normal
02 - >94%
general obs -> breathing technique, colour etc
tracheal position
chest expansion
percussion
ascultate 
ABG
CXR - order a portable one
interventions:
1. o2 - 15L non-rebreathe, then trial titrating down once stable (NOTE: if COPD and target sats are 88-92% then use venturi 24% 4L or 28% 4L or NIV with a senior.
2. sit them upright if conscious
3. acute asthma + COPD mx pathways should be commenced here

C- CIRCULATION
HR - <60 or >100
BP - <90/60 or >140/90
if extremes of this + syncope/SOB/MI = must get urgent SENIOR INPUT
fluid balance - to inform resus efforts
check for oedema - ankles + sacrum
CRT
temp of peripheries
pulse
JVP
ascultate
ECG - continuous in critically unwell patients
bladder scan if retention
preg test if indicated
swab sputum/urine/line (ask nurses)
interventions:
1. 2 x wide-bore IV cannula (14/16G) and take blood tests from it - FBC, U&E + LFTs regardless
2. catheter - ask nurses to initiate strict fluid balance
3. hypovolaemia? - 500ml bolus hartmann’s solution/0.9% NaCl over 15 mins (250mls if at risk of overload). after each bolus reassess (listen to lungs for overload/JVP). repeat up to 4 times, if still not responding CALL FOR HELP
4. initiate ACS/sepsis/haemorrhage/fluid overload/AF management pathway if suspected

D - DISABILITY
consciousness - ACVPU/GCS
pupils - light response, size, symmetry
drug chart review
IX + interventions:
1. glucose + ketones
2. imaging - CT head if intracranial path suspected
3. GCS <8 involve anaesthetist
4. treat - opioid tox with naloxone and hypoglyc with admin of glucogel, and DKA with fluids/insulin
E- EXPOSURE
inspect skin
review IV lines
assess calves
review catheter 
temp
interventions:
- cultures/swabs
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2
Q

SBAR handover

A

Situation
- intro you and ur grade
- provide identification details of patient and where they are
- provide timing of deterioration
- detail what you think is happening and why you need help
eg - “Hello, I’m David, an FY1 calling from the A&E. Can I ask who I’m speaking to? …”

“I’m calling about a patient called Jane Doe (DOB, NHS number), a 62-year-old lady who arrived 15 minutes ago with a suspected intracerebral haemorrhage, and I’d like you to review the patient.”

Background-
basically anything about the patient thats happened before thats relevant
HPC, PMH, ix, meds, recent ops, allergies
also current management and patients clinical response so far
eg - “Mrs Doe presented with acute onset dysarthria, left-sided limb weakness and inattention. Her past medical history includes a TIA in August 2017, hypercholesterolaemia and atrial fibrillation. She is anticoagulated with warfarin and her admission INR is 4.8. A CT head demonstrates an intracerebral haemorrhage in the right hemisphere with some associated mass effect and midline shift. We are currently administering Beriplex but the patient does appear to be becoming more drowsy.”

assessment -
vitals
ABCDE
overall clinical imp - ‘septic’ or ‘neurologically deteriorating’

recommendation -
State your suspected diagnosis, what you think needs to happen and in what time frame you expect those things to happen
eg - “This lady has suffered an acute intracerebral haemorrhage and given the ongoing clinical deterioration she needs urgent review by the neurosurgical team.”
ask them -
Whether they can review the patient and in what time frame they would be able to do this.
Whether there is anything further you could do (e.g. requesting investigations, administering treatments).
Whether a transfer to another clinical environment is required (e.g. ward, theatre, ICU)

DOCUMENT THE DISCUSSION IN THE NOTES

THANK THE PERSON AT THE END

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3
Q

causes of airway compromise

A

inhaled foreign body - sudden + stridor
blood in the airway - epistaxis, haematemesis, trauma
vomit/secretions - alcohol, trauma, dysphagia
soft tissue swelling - anaphylaxis + infection
local mass effect - tumours/lymphadenopathy
laryngospasm - asthma, GORD, intubation
depressed level of consciousness - opioids, head injury, stroke

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4
Q

what does bronchial breathing mean

A

harsh-sounding (similar to auscultating over the trachea), inspiration and expiration are equal and there is a pause between. This type of breath sound is associated with consolidation.

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5
Q

what does quiet/reduced breath sounds mean

A

suggest reduced air entry into that region of the lung (e.g pleural effusion, pneumothorax)

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6
Q

what does wheeze mean

A

continuous, coarse, whistling sound produced in the respiratory airways during breathing. Wheeze is often associated with asthma, COPD and bronchiectasis.

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7
Q

what does stridor mean

A

a high-pitched extra-thoracic breath sound resulting from turbulent airflow through narrowed upper airways. Stridor has a wide range of causes, including foreign body inhalation (acute) and subglottic stenosis (chronic).

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8
Q

what does coarse crackles mean

A

discontinuous, brief, popping lung sounds typically associated with pneumonia, bronchiectasis and pulmonary oedema

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9
Q

what does fine end-insp crackles mean

A

often described as sounding similar to the noise generated when separating velcro. Fine end-inspiratory crackles are associated with pulmonary fibrosis.

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10
Q

causes of tachycardia

A

hypovolaemia, arrythmia, infection, hypoglycaemia, thryotoxicosis, anxiety, pain, drugs (eg salbutamol)

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11
Q

causes of bradycardia

A

ACS, IHD, electrolyte imbalances (hypokalaemia), drugs (BB)

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12
Q

causes of hypertension +

presentation of severe hypertension

A
hypervolaemia
stroke 
conn's syndrome 
cushings 
pre-eclampsia

pres of severe:
confusion, drowsiness, breathlessness, chest pain, visual disturbance

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13
Q

causes of hypotension

A

hypovolaemia, sepsis, adrenal crisis, drugs (opioids, antihypertensives, diuretics)

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14
Q

what is the definition of oliguria + causes

A

0.5ml/kg/hour in adult

dehydration, hypovolaemia, low CO, AKI

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15
Q

what does these findings mean on pulse:

  • irregular
  • slow-rising
  • pounding
  • thready
A

irregular - arryhythmias (AF)

slow-rising - aortic stenosis

pounding - aortic regurg , CO2 retention

thready - intravascular hypovolaemia eg sepsis

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16
Q

what causes a raised JVP?

A
right-sided heart failure (pulm HTN from COPD, ILD    or LHF)
tricuspid regurg (caused by infective endocarditis and rheumatic heart disease)
constrictive pericarditis (often idiopathic but RA, TB can cause)
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17
Q

ejection systolic murmur

A

aortic stenosis

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18
Q

early diastolic murmur

A

aortic regurg

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19
Q

mid-diastolic murmur

A

mitral stenosis

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20
Q

pan-systolic

A

mitral regurg

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21
Q

murmur of recent onset =

A

MI or endocarditis

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22
Q

pericardial rub or muffled heart sounds

A

pericarditis

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23
Q

3rd heart sound?

A

congestive heart failure

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24
Q
what specific blood tests would you want if you suspected:
sepsis
haemorrhage or surg emergency
ACS
arrhythmia
PE
overdose
anaphylaxis
A

sepsis
CRP, lactate, blood culture

haemorrhage or surg emergency
coag, cross-match, G&S

ACS
trop

arrhythmia
calcium, mg, phosphate, TFT, coag

PE
d-dimer if appropriate based on wells score

overdose
tox screen eg paracetamol levels

anaphylaxis
serial mast cell tryptase levels

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25
Q

causes of depressed consciousness

A
hypovolaemia
hypoxia
hypercapnia
metabolic disturbance - eg hypoglycaemia
seizure
raised ICP or neuro insult eg stroke 
drug overdose
iatrogenic causes eg admin of opiates
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26
Q

Major trauma assessment

A

CABCDE

Primary survey

C-spine - immobilise + TTBTO (turn the blood tap off) - any major haemorrhage visible press and maintain focussed pressure, not tourniquet - if cannot control -> surg

A - as normal, cannot head tilt so opt for jaw thrust

B - must fully expose chest to look for:
tension pneumo
haemothorax
flail chest

C - fluids/blood low threshold, if not responding to resus then consider occult bleeding into abdo cavity/long bone/pelvic fractures

D - really important to focus on neuro status

  • GCS
  • pupils
  • limb movements/spont resp effort
  • glucose

E - ensure on warmed bed/blankets after adequate exposure

scans -
CXR/ pelvic xray/ lateral C-spine, FAST (focussed assessment with sonography for trauma)

Secondary survey

  • starts when patient has responded to ABCDE
  • essentially head-to-toe exam
History:
AMPLE
A - allergies
M - meds current
P - past illness/preg
L - last meal
E - events/environment related to injury

O/E
identify serious injuries that may have been missed, review neuro exam.

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27
Q

what injuries will you expect in burns

A

dehydration - fluid requirements

inhalation injury

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28
Q

what mx would you expect when patient has been exposed to extreme cold

A

continue resus until warmed

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29
Q

high-voltage electricity injuries

A

extensive muscle injury likely to be concealed

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30
Q

name types of bleeding and explain what they mean

A

primary - during surgery

secondary - withing 24hrs of op

secondary - withing 7-10 days of op

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31
Q

classifying haemorrhagic shock

A
class 1
<750mls / 15%
HR <100
normal BP
14-20 RR
UO - >30mL/hr
class 2
750-1500ml  15-30%
HR - 100-120
normal BP
RR 20-30
UO - 20-30ml/hr
3
1500-2000ml 30-40%
HR 120-140
BP decreased
RR 30-40
UO - 5-20mls/hr
4
>2000ml >40%
HR >140
BP decreased
RR >40
UO - <5mls/hr
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32
Q

types of shock

A

distributive - hypovolaemia eg sepsis, anaphylaxis, neurogenic

hypovolaemia - haemorrhage, burns, substantial fluid loss

cardiogenic

  • relative or absolute reduction in cardiac output due to a primary cardiac disorder
  • also have raised JVP or arryhthmias
  • causes MI, HR, arryhtmias
  • mx aim is increasing CO, improving cardiac perfusion, decreasing cardiac workload

obstructive shock

  • when physical impedence to blood flow
  • causes saddle PE, cardiac tamponade
  • aim of mx remove obstruction quick (eg pericardiocentesis/anticoag)
33
Q

what manoeuvre can you perform when someone is in shock and you dont have access to fluids

A

passive leg raise

34
Q

what score can you use to determine whether to CT scan post neck injury and when is it applicable

A

canadian c spine score

applicable if patient is alert and stable following trauma

35
Q

what is a burn

what is a scald

A

Injury by thermal, chemical, electrical or radiation energy

Contact with hot liquid or steam

36
Q

initial assessment of burns

A

ABCDE (prevent hypothermia) ± need for fluid resuscitation

look in nostrils for inhalation injury

37
Q

assessing area of burns

A
rule of 9's!!!!
Arm
9%
Head
9%
each Leg
18%
Torso (front)
18%
Torso (back)
18%
38
Q

5 depths of burns

A
  1. Epidermal/superficial partial thickness (description)
    Pain, red, glistening, NO blisters, brisk capillary refill. Heal in one week no scarring
  2. Superficial dermal
    Pale pink/mottled, swelling, SMALL blisters ± weeping, brisk capillary refill. Heal 3 weeks minimal scarring
  3. Deep dermal
    Cherry red, blistering, dry, blotchy, no blanching, no capillary refill, reduced sensation. 3-8 weeks healing with scarring ± surgical treatment
  4. Full-thickness (third degree)
    White/black, dry, no blisters, np capillary refill, no sensation. Requires surgical repair/graft
  5. Fourth-degree
    Includes subcut fat, muscle + bone. Reconstruction ± amputation
39
Q

ix for burns

A

Bloods
- FBC, crossmatch, carboxyhaemogobin, serum glucose, U+E, ABG
CXR
Cardiac monitoring
- Dysrhythmia for hypoxia and electrolyte disturbances
*Circulation
- BP may be difficult and unreliable
- Monitor urine hourly therefore urinary catheter

40
Q

first aid mgmt of burns

A
  1. Stop the burning + cool
    - Remove clothing, if stuck cool with water
    - Brush chemical powders away
    - Rinse in tap water (cold tap not ice - vasoconstriction) 20 minutes n.b. can cause hypothermia
    - Remove constricting clothing and cover with clean/dry linens for hypothermia
  2. Minor burn (dress + analgesia)
    - Clean with soap and water
    - Leave blisters < 1cm intact (reduce infection), aspirate large blisters
    - Non adhesive gauze dressings (re-examine at 48 hours)
    - If infection occurs - daily wound inspection + dressing change + 7 days flucloxacillin
    - Give analgesia + check tetanus prophylaxis
41
Q

major burn worries

A

Direct thermal injury -> airway oedema/obstruction
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Inhalation of smoke -> pneumonia + oedema

42
Q

mgmt of major burns

A

Airway
Look for indications of inhalation injury (heat) -> hoarseness, singed nostril hairs, face/neck burns
ET intubation and ventilation (stridor) + transfer to burn centre

Breathing
ABG (note PaO2 not good with CO poisoning)
100% O2 + COHB levels
Elevated head and chest 25 degrees to reduce oedema

Circulation*
IV access and fluid replacement if >
15% (total s.a.) adults and 10% children
Replacement in first 24 hours FROM time of injury
Aim for 0.5-1ml/kg urine adults and 1-2ml/kg children

Adults - partial/full thickness burns/inhalation injury = Parkland formula
4ml / kg / %total body area of Hartmann’s/Ringer’s lactate = 4 x weight x %
Half in first 8 hours, half in following 16 hours

Children also receive maintenance calculated as expected 4/2/1
Pain relief (strong opioids) + prevent hypothermia
43
Q

burns comps

A

Fluid loss, infection, scarring (minimised by graft in under 3 weeks)

44
Q

when to refer to specialist burns unit

A

<5 or >60
Site: face, hands, perineum, flexure e.g. armpit
Inhalation injury
Suspected NAI
Large area: >5% if under 16, >10% if over 16

45
Q

flail chest what is it
can cause
O/E
mgmt

A

This is a life threatening injury that occurs when a segment of the rib cage (3 or more ribs) breaks due to trauma and becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall (i.e. unable to contribute to rib expansion)
Indicative of pulmonary contusion.

May puncture lung and cause pneumothorax

O/E: paradoxical movement i.e. indrawing on inspiration

Management involves ventilation PPV (n.b. Intubation and ventilation will exacerbate a pneumothorax or tension pneumothorax) + pain control (intercostal blocks) + pulmonary toilet

46
Q

reversible causes of cardiac arrest

A

5Hs + 4ts

Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia
Hypo/hyperkalaemia
Hypothermia
H+ ions - acidosis

Thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary)
Tamponade (cardiac)
Toxins
Tension pneumothorax

47
Q

major haem lethal triad

A

Hypothermia, acidosis, acute coagulopathy of trauma*

48
Q

major haemorrhage protocol

A

Blood on the floor and 4 more… chest, pelvis, abdomen/retroperitoneum, thigh
For chest/abdo/pelvis may use REBOA - resuscitative balloon occlusion of the aorta

  1. stop the bleeding - Splint, pressure, haemostatic agents (tranexamic acid IV), REBOA
  2. replace the fluid - Fluids + blood + blood products (FFP, cryoprecipitate) - RBC - 4 units, FFP - 4 units, Platelets - 1 unit
49
Q

explain acute coagulopathy of trauma

A

Caused by shock and hypoperfusion not hypothermia, haemodilution or acidosis
It occurs early in trauma

50
Q

what are patients at risk of during surgery

A
Surgery
- damage to structures
- blood loss
- complications
Effect of anaesthesia
Pre-existing disease
51
Q

pre-op prep

A
Optimise medical conditions
Adjust medication
Check investigations
Check weight
EXPLAIN AND CONSENT
52
Q

pre op assessment: ASA grade

A
  1. Healthy individual 0.05% mortality
  2. Mild systemic disease not limiting activity 0.5%
  3. Severe systemic limiting activity, not incapacitating 5%
  4. Incapacitating systemic disease, life threatening 25%
  5. Expected survival <24 hours without surgery 50%
  6. Brain stem dead - organ retrieval
53
Q

pre-op assessment: anaesthetics

A

relevant anaesthetic history - any problems, including nausea and vom? problems with family with anaesthetic?

allergies - eggs? (propofol)

DH - and stopped approp ones? ACEi, ARB, warf, clopido, aspirin, steroid? (continue, IV in surg)

pmh - CV HTN, pacemaker, resp OSA, asthma + NSAIDs, exercise tolerance, GI - reflux, DM, thyroid, DVT/PE, rheum, smoking, alc, other drugs (increase tolerance)

O/E
heart +lungs
teeth - expensive? missing? loose? explain might catch
neck flexibility - >90 degrees is good
airway assess - RA, anky spon, obese, small neck, downs, small mouth, large tongue, beard

mallampati - oropharynx:
Class 4: soft palate not visible
Class 3: soft palate only
Class 2: uvula tip masked
Class 1: pillars, soft palate, uvula

thyromental test:
length from tip of chin to adams apple in extension >6.5cm

54
Q

anaesthetic triad

A

anaesthesia
analgesia
muscle relaxation

55
Q

3 phases and 2 routes of anaesthetic

A

PHASES
Induction - secure airway, pre- oxygenate
Maintenance
Reversal

2 ROUTES
IV - propofol
Inhaled (iso/sevo/desfluorane) @young children/ needle phobics

56
Q

induction agents

A

Propofol - painful on injection
Sevofluorane - minimal vasodilation, almost zero metabolism (taken up by and excreted via lungs), irritant, taken up in fat tissue -> prolonged drowsiness
Nitrous oxide - analgesic properties, low solubility -> rapid onset and offset

can use opioids but may cause resp depression:
1. Remifentanil
Tiny doses, breaks down spontaneously in 10-15s, used in TIVA
2. Alfentanyl
Potent, rapid onset, duration 2-3 mins
3. Fentanyl
Onset 1-2 mins, duration 10-15 mins
4. Morphine
More histamine release - PONV, slow onset (10-15 mins), causes constipation

57
Q

maintenance agents

A

GASEOUS
Volatile
N20/02
isofluorane, desfluorane, sevofluorane

TIVA
Propofol infusion + remifentanil infusion

58
Q

if use muscle relaxant what do you need to consider

A

MUST BE VENTILATED

59
Q

what GCS requires airway adjunts?

A

<8

60
Q

how to ensure correct placement of endotrachael tube?

A

1 - chest movement
2 - misting of mask
3- trace on capnography

61
Q

mechanism of LA

A

Unionised LA enters cell
LA becomes ionised
Blocks Na channel

62
Q

where can LA be used for anaesthetic

A

Nerve block (peripheral)
Plexus block
Epidural block
Spinal block (good at respiratory compromise)

63
Q

compare lidocaine and bupivocaine

A
lidocaine
Immediate
15 minutes
Small procedure
Laceration
Chest drain

bupivocaine
10 minutes
2 hours anaesthesia, 12 hours analgesia
Regional blocks

64
Q

advantages of regional anaesthetics

A
Avoids GA
Can be awake
Avoid airway problems
Less nausea and vomiting
Better peri-operative pain control
65
Q

dermatomes

A
Shoulder - C5
Thumb - C6
Middle finger - C7
Little finger - C8
Nipples - T4
Umbilicus - T10
Knee - L4
Little toe - S1
66
Q

spinal vs epidural

A
spinal 
through ligaments and dura (deeper)
LA as bolus
duration - 2 hours
comp - CSF leak headache 

epidural -
goes between ligaments and dura
uses LA via catheter as infusion

67
Q

muscle relaxants
3 purposes
2 types

A

Relax opening to trachea (glottis)
Relax muscles for surgery
Patients do not fight ventilators

2 types
depolarising - suxamethonium, onset 30seconds, emergencies
non-depolarising - atracurium, rocuronium onset 2-3mins,routine ops

68
Q

muscle relaxant reversal

A

neostigmine

69
Q

how to work out BP(equation)

A

PVR X CO

CO = SV X HR

70
Q

heart too slow?

A

Inhibit vagus (PSNS)
PSNS uses ACh as an NT
Use anticholinergics to increase HR

atropine
glycopyrrolate
hyoscine

or dobutamine - stimulate myocardium

71
Q

BP too low?

A

adrenaline

epinephrine

72
Q

BP low and HR slow

A

Stimulate 𝜶 and β adrenoreceptors with combined 𝜶 and β agonist
e.g. ephedrine or adrenaline (very potent therefore only @arrest/ITU)

73
Q

how does NSAIDs work

A

inhibit cyclo-oxygenase

74
Q

how does CPAP work and problems

A

increase intrathoracic pressure
improves FRC and oxygenation

cons
discomfort
non-compliance
gastric distention
aspiration
no impact on CO2
75
Q

how does BiPaP aka NPPV work and cons

A

increases tidal volume
better co2 clearance, reverses resp acid

cons
discomfort
gastic distention
aspiration
failure
76
Q

which NIV is indicated in T1RF

A

CPAP

maintains minimum airway pressure
alveolus held open
fluid forced from lung

77
Q

which NIV is indicated in T2RF

A

BiPAP

insp it adds insp pressure - IPAP which further expands lungs and increases ventilation

exp - adds EPAP, holds open collapsing airway

78
Q

resp failure differentials

A

Pneumonia
Atelectasis (collapsed units), pneumothorax
Pulmonary oedema
Thromboembolic disease
Bronchospasm/obstruction, pre-existing, ARDS,
increased metabolic demand
Central respiratory depression