Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What is the investigatory pathway for diagnosing asthma?

A
  1. Initial assessment: (decides probability of asthma)
    -Episodic symptoms (need 2+ of the 4 symptoms for higher probability: wheeze, dyspnoea, chest tightness, cough)
    -Wheeze by auscultation
    -Evidence of diurnal variability
    (= worse at night or early in the morning)
    -PMH of atopy
    -Need to check for symptoms that suggest another diagnosis

If high probability:
2. Start monitored 6 week inhaled corticosteroid trial

  1. Give validate symptom questionnaire or PEFR test
  2. Diagnosis = If there is good symptomatic and objective response to treatment response to treatment

A CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS (no one single test), since asthma is variable (test on one day might see symptoms/signs, test on another day can see nothing)

If intermediate probability:
“Only have some typical symptoms or don’t respond to treatment initiation”
- Spirometry with brondilator reversibility

  • Methacholine challenge test or measure fractional expired nitric oxide FeNO (eosinophilic inflammation)

If low probability:
- Investigate for alternative diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are vesicular breath sounds? What are they like? (Pitch, loudness, durations, gaps)

A

Normal breath sounds.

No gap between inspiration and expiration

Inspiration is longer than expiration

Soft

Low pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are bronchial breath sounds?
What are they like? (Pitch, loudness, durations, gaps)

Could be described as a wheeze by patient, but it is distinct from wheeze.

A

Abnormal breath sound caused by smaller airways.

Loud

High pitch

Gap between inspiration and expiration

Inspiration is same duration as expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a wheeze? How does it sound? (Pitch, loudness, duration, gaps)

A

A musical sound caused by narrowing of the airways (bronchospasm, scarring, secretions etc)

Can be Low or high pitch
Low = sonorous, due to secretions
High = sibilant, due to bronchospasm (asthma)

Can be Polyphonic or monophonic
Polyphonic = asthma wheeze (widespread bronchospasm degree is variable, many different wheezes together)
Monophonic = localised obstruction (means only one area generates the wheeze, so one tone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is respiratory crackle? (AKA crepitation)

A

An inspiratory (ONLY) rumble.

Not heard on expiration.

Can be early/middle/late/biphasic in the inspiratory phase.

Can be fine or coarse quality.

Caused by: interstitial fibrosis or fluid secretions, as air comes in to the lung the airways pop open, causing the crackling sound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a pleural rub? (Inspiratory or expiratory)

A

Sound caused by pleural inflammation, causing the visceral and parietal pleura to rub on oneanother during inspiration

Inspiratory

Low pitch

Grating sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the objective definition of a moderate acute asthma attack?

A

PEFR is 50-75% of best (or predicted)

Signs:
RR is >20
HR is >90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the objective definition of a severe acute asthma attack? (PEFR)

A

PEFR is 33-50% of best (or predicted) and respiratory rate is >25/minute

Signs:
RR is >25
HR >110
Speaking in incomplete sentences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the objective definition of a life-threatening acute asthma attack?

A

PEFR <33%
SpO2 <92%

Subjective criteria:
altered consciousness
exhaustion
cardiac arrhythmia
hypotension
cyanosis
poor respiratory effort
silent chest
confusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which three questions must be asked in a yearly asthma review?

(We’re trying to establish wether the current management is adequate for the patient)

A
  1. In the past year has your asthma caused any difficulty sleeping?
  2. Have you had your usual asthma symptoms during the day?
  3. Has your asthma interfered with your usual daily activities?

We must also record PEFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an A-a gradient?

A

The difference in oxygen concentration between the alveoli (A; approx atmospheric) and in the arteries (a)

= PAO2-PaO2

Remember that alveolar is always higher conc than arterial.

If the gradient is too high it indicates a lung issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the peak expiratory flow rate?

A

The maximal rate that a person can exhale during a short maximal expiratory effort after a full inspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main benefit of ABGs over VBGs?

A

ABGs give representative oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.

By the time blood is in the venous system the gas profile has changed a lot.

However VBGs are just as good as ABGs for pH and Bucarbonate levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are light’s criteria for pleural effusion samples?

A

Light’s criteria differentiates transudate from exudate.

Depends on relative protein and lactate dehydrogenase concentration (released during cell damage): both should be low in the pleural fluid.

If any of the following are met, the sample is an exudate:

  1. Pleural/Serum protein >0.5
  2. Pleural/Serum Lactate dehydrogenase >0.6 (LDH)
  3. Pleural LDH is >2\3 upper limit of normal serum LDH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which conditions cause extremely high (>4g/L) pleural fluid protein content?

A

TB

Multiple myeloma

Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which conditions cause extremely high lactate dehydrogenase (>1000) in the pleural fluid?

A

Empyema

Rheumatoid pleurisy

Malignancy

17
Q

What pathological processes does high cholesterol presence within pleural fluid indicate?

A

Vascular leakage and degenerating cells, generally in an exudate.

18
Q

Which conditions cause low glucose in the pleural fluid?

A

Rheumatoid pleurisy

Empyema

Parapneumonic effusion

Malignancy

Lupus pleuritis

Oesophageal rupture

19
Q

What are the pathological processes that cause low pH in the pleural fluid?

A
  1. Increased acid production by mesothelial cells - empyema
  2. Decreased proton efflux to rest of body
    - malignancy
    - rheumatoid pleurisy
    - TB
20
Q

Which conditions cause a high pleural amylase?

A

Acute pancreatitis (raised serum amylase)

Chronic pancreatitis

Oesophageal rupture

Malignancy

21
Q

Which condition causes raised adenosine deaminase in pleural fluid?

A

Adenosine deaminase is an enzyme tested for in the pleural fluid to detect active TB

An important part of TB diagnosis.

Adenosine deaminase activity increases in the proliferation of lymphocytes, as occurs during episodes of active TB.

i.e. when the immune system respond to the death of macrophages from bacterial proliferation within them.

22
Q

How is COPD staged?

A

Post-bronchodilator s’mmpirometry with challenge: GOLD staging (global strategy for obstructive lung disease) - based on % of FEV1 vs predicted FEV1

Stages 1-4: mild to very severe

  1. > 80%
  2. 50-79%
  3. 30-49%
  4. <30%
23
Q

How is COPD diagnosed?

A
  1. Primarily - bronchodilator reversibility spirometry
  2. CXR - hyperinflation, rib flattening, reduces heart size, emphysemous bullae etc
  3. ECG - exclude cardiac causes of breathlessness
24
Q

What is an A.a gradient?

A

Alveolar.arterial pressure gradient

The ratio of oxygen in the lungs/atmosphere vs oxygen in the blood

Should always be positive

If gradient is >10 there is a lung problem

25
Q

How do we investigate suspected acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

CXR to differentiate from pneumonia

ABG to assess for respiratory failure (gas exchange)

FBC, U+E, CRP to assess level of inflammation

Sputum culture if purulent

Blood cultures if pyrexia

26
Q

Which patient groups is CURB65 not useful for?

A

Young patients - can’t score as high as older patients, underestimates risk of death

Chronic renal impairment - their urea can be higher naturally, overestimates risk of death

27
Q

How many points must you score in NEWS2 in order to have continuous monitoring of vital signs?

A

7 or more, below this it is once per hour

28
Q

Why do we check urine in suspected pneumonia?

A

Pneumococcal and legionella pneumonias have urinary antigens

29
Q

How do we diagnose pneumonia?

A
  1. If CAP - assess severity with CURB65
    Send to hospital if score is 2 or more
    Consider CRP If diagnosis is unsure
  2. Sputum and blood culture
  3. Consider urine test for legionella and pneumococcal antigens
  4. If emergency/highly vulnerable: ABG and U+E’s

Reminder: sputum is not spit

30
Q

What is the acid-fast bacilli test?

A

Tests for TB, indicates for treatment.
Mycobacterium stain pink while other bacteria blue.

  • when stained with fuchsin, heated, washed in alcohol (leaves it on mycobacterium due to fatty mycolic acid layer), then stained with methylene blue
31
Q

What is the diagnostic path for active TB?

A

In short: CXR and three tests on sputum, plus HIV test

  1. CXR - most often upper lobe opacities, cavitation, lymphadenopathy, calcification and effusion
  2. Sputum smear and acid fast bacilli test (AFB)
  3. Sputum culture
  4. Nuclei acid amplification test (NAAT) from sputum
  5. HIV test

If extra pulmonary; aspiration or biopsy (shows granulomas) for AFB, and NAAT on sterile body fluid; shows lymphocyte predominance e.g. in effusion fluid

32
Q

What is the diagnostic path for latent TB?

A

In short: Can’t diagnose latent TB, mostly uses risk factors in combo with these tests to indicate probability of TB

Mantoux test - tuberculin skin prick testing, size of skin induration defines positivity (not diagnostic)

Interferon gamma release assays - tests for T cell release of interferon gamma, indicating reaction to TB (not diagnostic)