Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of cludding?

A
  • Resp:
    • Bronchial carcinoma
    • lung fibrosis
    • bronchiectasis (suppurative lung disease as in cystic fibrosis)
    • mesothelioma
    • TB
    • lung abscess
  • Cardio:
    • Atrial myoma
    • infective endocarditis
    • cyanotic heart disease
  • GI:
    • Cirrhosis
    • inflammatory bowel disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define pneumonia.

A

Infection of the lung parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the aetiology and risk factors for pneumonia?

A
  • impaired lung defenses
    • poor cough/gag reflex (e.g. illness, drug-induced)
    • impaired mucociliary transport (e.g. smoking, cystic fibrosis)
    • immunosuppression (e.g. steroids, chemotherapy, AIDS/HIV, DM, transplant, cancer)
  • increased risk of aspiration
    • impaired swallowing mechanism (e.g. impaired consciousness, neurologic illness causing dysphagia, mechanical obstruction)
  • no organism identified in 75% of hospitalized cases, and >90% of ambulatory cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the common organisms that cause community acquired pneumonia?

A
  • Typical Bacteria
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • Moraxella catarrhalis
    • Haemophilus influenzae
    • Staphylococcus aureus
    • GAS
  • Atypical Bacteria
    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    • Chlamydophila pneumoniae
    • Legionella pneumophila
  • Viral
    • Influenza virus
    • Adenovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the common organisms that cause nosocomial pneumonia?

A
  • Enteric GNB (E. coli)
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • S. aureus (including MRSA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the common organisms that cause aspiration pneumonia?

A
  • Oral anerobes (Bacteroides)
  • Enteric GNB (E. coli)
  • S. aureus
  • Gastic contents (chemical pneumonitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the common organisms that cause HIV associated pneumonia?

A
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci
  • Fungi (Cryptococcus)
  • Nocardia
  • CMV
  • HSV
  • TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the common organisms that cause alcoholic pneumonia?

A
  • Klebsiella
  • Enteric
  • GNB
  • S. aureus
  • Oral anaerobes (aspiration)
  • TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the clinical features of pneumonia?

A
  • cough (± sputum), fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia
  • elderly often present atypically; altered LOC is sometimes the only sign
  • evidence of consolidation (dullness to percussion, bronchial breath sounds, crackles)
  • features of parapneumonic effusion (decreased air entry, dullness to percussion)
  • complications: ARDS, lung abscess, parapneumonic effusion/empyema, pleuritis ± hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What Ix should be done on a pt with pneumonia?

A
  • pulse oximetry to assess severity of respiratory distress
  • FBC and differential, electrolytes, urea, Cr, ABG (if respiratory distress), troponin/CK, LFTs, urinalysis
  • sputum Gram stain/C&S, blood C&S, ± serology/viral detection, ± pleural fluid C&S (if effusion >5 cm or respiratory distress)
  • CXR±CT chest shows distribution (lobar consolidation or interstitial pattern), extent of infiltrate ± cavitation
  • bronchoscopy ± washings for:
    • (1) severely ill patients refractory to treatment or
    • (2) immunocompromised patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Rx for CAP and HAP?

A
  • Supportive:
    • ABCs, O2, IV fluids, consider salbutamol
    • Determine prognosis and need for hospitalisation and Abx
  • ABx
    • CAP need to assess severity: CURB65 or SMARTCOP
      • Mild amoxycillin or doxycycline
      • Moderate: benzylpenicillin IV PLUS doxycycline oral
      • Severe : ceftriaxone IV PLUS azithromycin IV
    • Hospital-acquired pneumonia:
      • Mild: amoxycillin + clavulanate PO
      • Moderate: ceftriaxone IV
      • Severe: ceftriaxone
      • High risk of MDR all severities: piperacillin + tazobactam IV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is CURB65

A
  • Used as a diagnostic tool for the severity of pneumonia
  • CURB 65: 0-1 outpatient, 2-3 hospitalise, 4-5 ICU admit
    • Confusion: Altered mental status = 1
    • Urea/BUN: Urea>7mmol or BUN>20mg/ml = 1
    • Respiratory rate: >30 = 1
    • Blood pressure: Systolic <90 or diastolic <60 = 1
    • Age: 65 or lder = 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is SMARTCOP

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the pathological stages of pneumonia?

A
  • Congestion in the first 24 hours: characterized histologically by vascular engorgement, intra-alveolar fluid, small numbers of neutrophils, often numerous bacteria. Grossly, the lung is heavy and hyperemic.
  • Red hepatization or consolidation: Vascular congestion persists, with extravasation of red cells into alveolar spaces, along with increased numbers of neutrophils and fibrin.
  • Grey hepatization: Red cells disintegrate, with persistence of the neutrophils and fibrin. The alveoli still appear consolidated, but grossly the color is paler and the cut surface is drier.
  • Resolution (complete recovery): The exudate is digested by enzymatic activity, and cleared by macrophages or by cough mechanism.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the complications of pneumonia?

A
  • Healing by fibrosis
  • PLeuritits
  • empyema
  • abscess formation
  • haematogenous seeding - bacteraemia
  • Pleural effusion
  • ARDS
  • death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Lights criteria used for?

A

Determination of transudate vs exudate source of pleural effusion.

  • Fluid is exudate if one of the following Light’s criteria is present:
    • Effusion protein/serum protein ratio greater than 0.5
    • Effusion lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)/serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6
    • Effusion LDH level greater than two-thirds the upper limit of the laboratory’s reference range of serum LDH
18
Q

What are the causes of an exudative effusion?

A
  • Abdominal fluid: Abscess in tissues near lung, ascites, Meigs syndrome, pancreatitis
  • Connective-tissue disease: Churg-Strauss disease, lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, Wegener granulomatosis
  • Endocrine: Hypothyroidism, ovarian hyperstimulation
  • Iatrogenic: Drug-induced, esophageal perforation, feeding tube in lung
  • Infectious: Abscess in tissues near lung, bacterial pneumonia, fungal disease, parasites, tuberculosis
  • Inflammatory: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), asbestosis, pancreatitis, radiation, sarcoidosis, uremia
  • Lymphatic abnormalities: Chylothorax, malignancy, lymphangiectasia
  • Malignancy: Carcinoma, lymphoma, leukemia, mesothelioma, paraproteinemia
19
Q

What the causes of transudative effusions?

A
  • Atelectasis: Due to increased negative intrapleural pressure
  • Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak into pleural space: Thoracic spine injury, ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt dysfunction
  • Heart failure
  • Hepatic hydrothorax
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Iatrogenic: Misplaced catheter into lung
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Peritoneal dialysis
  • Urinothorax: Due to obstructive uropathy
20
Q

List some exceptions - that is they typically cause exudative effusions, but may cause transudative effusions.

A
  • Amyloidosis
  • Chylothorax
  • Constrictive pericarditis
  • Hypothyroid pleural effusion
  • Malignancy
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Superior vena cava obstruction
  • Trapped lung
21
Q
A