Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Define pneumothorax

A

Presence of air in the pleural space causing partial or total collapsing of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe a primary spontaneous pneumothorax

A
  • no underlying lung disease
  • rupture of apical pleural bleb (cyst)
  • risk factors = male, smoker, tall, thin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Known lung disease:
- COPD
- asthma
- interstitial lung disease
- CF
- lung cancer
Infection:
- PCP
- TB
Genetic predisposition:
- catamenial pneumothorax (thoracic endometriosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe a traumatic pneumothorax

A

Penetrating chest wall injury
Puncture from rib fracture
Rupture of bronchus/oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe an iatrogenic pneumothorax

A

Doctor induced
Risk with:
- pacemakers
- CT lung biopsies
- central line insertion
- mechanical ventilation
- pleural aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of a pneumothorax?

A

May be asymptomatic
Breathlessness
Tachypnoea
Pleuritic chest pain
Cough
Hypoxia/cyanosis
Unilateral chest wall expansion
Reduced breath sounds
Hyper-resonant percussion
* tension pneumothorax (emergency):
- deviated trachea
- surgical emphysema
- distended neck veins
- cardiovascular compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What investigations are needed for a pneumothorax?

A

CXR: shows collapsed lung
ABG: detect hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the treatments for a pneumothorax?

A

High flow oxygen
Conservative management (for small pneumothorax)
Aspiration
Chest drain
Surgery (for persistent/recurrent air leak)
*tension pneumothorax requires emergency needle decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define pleural effusion

A

Collection of fluid in the pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are pleural effusions classified?

A

Transudates = pleural fluid protein < ½ serum protein
Exudates = pleural fluid protein > ½ serum protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the causes of a transudate pleural effusion?

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure or reduced osmotic pressure in microvascular circulation
- heart failure
- cirrhotic liver disease
- renal failure
- hypoalbuminaemia
- ascites/peritoneal dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the causes of a exudate pleural effusion?

A

Increased capillary permeability and impaired reabsorption
- pneumonia
- cancer
- TB
- autoimmune conditions (SLE, RA)
- PE
- drug induced (e.g. beta-blockers, methotrexate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of pleural effusion?

A

Can be asymptomatic
Breathlessness
Cough
Pain
Fever
Reduced chest wall expansion
Quiet breath sounds
“Stoney” dull percussion
Tactile vocal fremitus/reduced resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What investigations are needed for pleural effusion?

A

CXR: small = blunt costophrenic angles, large = water-dense shadows with concave upper borders
Ultrasound: identifies fluid
Aspiration: DIAGNOSTIC, tested for protein, glucose, pH, microscopy & culture, immunology (e.g. rheumatoid factor)
Biopsy: is aspiration is inconclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the treatments of pleural effusion?

A

Conservative management for small effusions
Drainage (may need repeating)
Pleurodesis (uses talc to treat recurrent effusions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe a haemothorax

A

Blood in the pleural cavity
Caused by trauma, post-operative, bleeding disorders, lung cancer, PE
Treated with chest drain, vascular intervention, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe a hydropneumothorax

A

Air and fluid in the pleural space
Causes: iatrogenic, thoracic trauma, gas forming organisms
CXR: perfectly straight fluid level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe empyema

A

Pus in the pleural space
Patient has resolving pneumonia and develops a recurrent fever
CXR: pleural effusion
Aspiration: yellow and turbid, low pH, low glucose
Treated with chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define COPD

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, characterised by persistent respiratory symptoms (such as breathlessness, cough, and sputum) and airflow obstruction (usually progressive and not fully reversible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes COPD?

A

Bronchitis (clinical = cough, sputum production) + emphysema (histological = destruction of alveolar walls, enlarged air spaces)
Chronic inflammation caused by exposure to noxious particles or gases (usually tobacco smoke but also from environmental and occupational exposures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the epidemiology of COPD

A

3rd highest cause of death globally
Prevalence is equal in men and women
Onset > 35 y/o
Associated with smoking or pollution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the risk factors for COPD?

A

Smoking
Occupational exposures (dusts, fumes, chemicals)
Air pollution
Genetic factors (alpha-1 antitrypsin)
Lung development in-utero/childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of COPD?

A

Shortness of breath
Cough
Sputum production
Wheeze
Tachypnoea
Orthopnoea
Accessory muscle use
Hyperinflation of chest
Cyanosis
Cor pulmonale (raised JVP, peripheral oedema)
Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What investigations are needed for COPD?

A

Spirometry: FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.7 or 70% (little or no reversibility after bronchodilator)
CXR: hyperinflated lungs, excludes other causes
CT: more detail of structural damage (bronchial wall thickening, increased air spaces)
Serum alpha-1-antitrypsin: detects deficiency
FBC: may show anaemia, high platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the investigations needed for an exacerbation of COPD
ABG CXR ECG FBC ESR/CRP Sputum culture
26
What are the treatments for COPD?
Non-pharmacological: - smoking cessation - physiotherapy - pulmonary rehabilitation - psychological support - optimise comorbidities Pharmacological: - 1st = short-acting beta agonist (e.g. salbutamol) or muscarinic antagonist (e.g. ipratropium) as a reliever - 2nd + long-acting beta agonist (e.g. salmeterol) and muscarinic antagonist (e.g. tiotropium), OR + inhaled corticosteroid (e.g. beclomethasone) if asthmatic features - 3rd = LABA + LAMA + ICS - 4th = refer to specialist (oral steroids, theophylline, mucolytics, prophylactic antibiotics, long-term oxygen)
27
What are the treatments of an acute exacerbation of COPD?
Nebulised bronchodilators (salbutamol + ipratropium) Oxygen therapy (with care, as some patients rely on hypoxic drive) Steroids: IV hydrocortisone + oral prednisolone Antibiotics (if infectious cause) IV theophylline Intubation/ventilation
28
Describe the epidemiology of lung cancer
2rd most common cancer More common in males Incidence is decreasing 10% survival rate after 10 years
29
What are the causes of lung cancer?
Cigarette smoking (most common, including passive smoking) Occupational - asbestos, nickel, arsenic Lung fibrosis
30
What are the signs/symptoms of lung caner?
Local: - cough - shortness of breath - haemoptysis - chest pain - recurrent chest infections Systemic: - general malaise - weight loss - paraneoplastic syndrome - clubbing - anaemia
31
What are the types of lung cancer?
Primary carcinoma: (95% are bronchial carcinomas) - small cell (neuroendocrine tumours, often cause paraneoplastic syndromes) - non-small cell (squamous cell, adenocarcinoma, or large cell) Metastatic carcinomas (more common than primary carcinomas) Others: - benign tumours - salivary gland type tumours - soft tissue tumours - lymphoma
32
What investigations are needed for lung cancer?
Bloods: FBC (anaemia), LFTs and U&Es (effect of metastases) Imaging: CXR, CT Biopsy (DIAGNOSTIC) Molecular testing
33
What are the treatment of lung cancer?
Surgery Chemo/radio therapy Palliative care
34
What are the types of tumours of the pleural?
Pleural fibroma (benign) Mesothelioma (malignant, caused by asbestos)
35
Define occupational lung disease
A wide-range of respiratory conditions caused by inhaling a harmful substance in the workplace or exposures which may aggravate the symptoms of any pre-existing lung disease
36
What things may cause occupational lung diseases?
Dusts - chiselling stone/cutting wood, flour Fumes - soldering/welding Mists - coolant used in metal work Vapours/gases - spray paint/gas leaks
37
What are the most common occupational lung diseases?
Asthma Non-malignant pleural disease Pneumoconiosis Inhalation accidents Bronchitis/emphysema Lung cancer Mesothelioma
38
What factors affect a persons development of occupational lung diseases?
The physical and chemical nature of the agent The duration and dose of exposure Individual susceptibility
39
Describe the different progressions of occupational lung disease
- Immediate effects: e.g. high dose exposure to chlorine gas resulting in acute airway injury and chronic asthma - Short latency (months-years): present while patient is still exposed e.g. occupational asthma - Long latency (often decades): commonly present close to/after retirement e.g. asbestosis, silicosis
40
How are occupational lung diseases managed?
Standard lung disease education and treatment Liaison with occupational health and/or employer Compensation advice Prevention or reduction of exposure
41
What are the effects of occupational lung disease?
Unemployment (up to one third of OA) Loss of earnings Chronic resp ill health Depression Loss of self worth Breakdown of relationship
42
How are occupational lung diseases prevented?
Elimination or substitution of cause Engineering controls (ventilation) Training and behaviour Respiratory protective equipment Surveillance of workers at risk
43
What are the common causes of occupational asthma?
Flour Cleaning products/disinfectant Isocyanates (in spray paint) Glue/adhesive Wood Welding fumes
44
Define hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Granulomatous inflammation (due to type III hypersensitivity reaction) of the lung parenchyma and airways due to repeated inhalation of organic antigens in dusts (e.g. from dairy/grain products, animal dander, chemicals)
45
What are the different forms of hypersensitivity pneumocystis?
Acute: - 4-8 hours after exposure, resolves quickly - flu-like illness = fever, chest tightness, dry cough, dyspnoea Subacute: - gradual onset, may be history of repeated attacks - less severe symptoms = productive cough, dyspnoea, fatigue Chronic: - long-term exposure, gradual onset - exercise intolerance, weight loss, may develop cyanosis, clubbing, hypoxaemia, right-sided heart failure - can cause fibrosis, emphysema, and permeant damage
46
What are the causes of pneumoconiosis?
Asbestos = pleural disease -> lung fibrosis (asbestosis) -> cancer (mesothelioma) Silica (from stone/brick) = causes silicosis, COPD, can lead to cancer Coal dust = known as coal worker's pneumoconiosis
47
Define asthma
A chronic respiratory condition associated with inflammation and airway hyperresponsiveness, leading to episodic bronchospasm due to triggers
48
Describe the epidemiology of asthma?
Incidence is higher in children More common in boys in early childhood, but more common in female adults Occupational asthma accounts for 15% of adult onset asthma
49
Describe the pathophysiology of asthma
Dendritic cells recognise and present allergen peptides to T-cells which release cytokines to activate other immune cells (such as mast cells which release histamine on IgE binding), resulting in contraction of the airway smooth muscle cells, causing reversible obstruction or bronchospasm in exacerbations
50
What are the risk factors for asthma?
Personal/family history of atopic disease (asthma, eczema, allergic rhinitis) Male sex (children)/female sex (adult) Premature birth/low birth weight Obesity Social deprivation (exposure to damp housing, pollution, smoking) Workplace exposures (dust, spray paints etc.) Exposure to allergens at home (pets, feather pillows/duvets etc.)
51
What are the sings/symptoms of asthma?
Breathlessness Wheezing (non-specific) Cough Chest tightness Nocturnal symptoms
52
What things can trigger asthma?
Exercise Allergen Irritant exposure Changes in weather Respiratory infections Work-related triggers (e.g. dust, spray paint etc.) Smoking/passive smoking Pollution Emotional stress Drugs (NSAIDs, beta-blockers)
53
What are the investigations needed for asthma?
Spirometry: FEV1/FVC < 0.7 (obstructive), or seen during bronchial challenge, reversible by 12% after using bronchodilator Peak flow meter: taken x2 daily for 1-2 weeks, shows 20% diurnal variability Detect allergens: measure total/specific IgE in blood, or skin prick testing FeNO testing (detects eosinophilic airway inflammation)
54
What are the treatments for asthma?
Non-pharmacological: - smoking cessation - weight loss - physio/speech therapy - allergen/air pollutant avoidance Pharmacological: - 1st = reliever inhaler of short-acting beta-agonist (e.g. salbutamol) - 2nd + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (e.g. beclomethasone) - 3rd + leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast) - 4th + long-acting beta-agonist (e.g. salmeterol) +/- LTRA - 5th = specialist input (+ oral steroids/theophylline/biologics)
55
What are the emergency treatments for an acute asthma attack?
Nebulised bronchodilators (e.g. salbutamol + ipratropium if severe) Oxygen (if low sats) Systemic steroids (oral prednisolone/IV hydrocortisone) IV magnesium sulphate (if severe, anti-inflammatory and bronchodilator) Antibiotics (only if infective cause) Intubation/ventilation
56
How do the treatments for asthma/COPD work?
- beta agonists = relax bronchial smooth muscle by increasing cAMP, acting within minuets (short acting) or overnight (long acting) - corticosteroids = decrease bronchial mucosal inflammation, acting over days - leukotriene receptor antagonists = block the effects of cysteinyl leukotrienes in the airways to reduce inflammation - muscarinic antagonists = decrease bronchial smooth muscle spasm, can be short or long acting (used for COPD not asthma) - theophylline = inhibits phosphodiesterase, so decreases bronchoconstriction by increasing cAMP - biologics (e.g. omalizumab) = anti-IgE monoclonal antibody
57
What are the common causes of upper respiratory tract illnesses?
Viral illness: - Rhinoviruses (45-50%) - Influenza A virus (25-30%) - Coronaviruses (10-15%) - Adenoviruses (5-10%) - Respiratory Syncytial viruses (5%, immunocompromised or children )
58
What are the complications of upper respiratory tract illnesses?
May lead to bacterial infection May causes systemic symptoms (particularly influenza A and SARS-CoV2) Can lead to sinusitis, pharyngitis, bronchitis, pneumonia (rare)
59
What are the causes of pharyngitis?
Viral (70-80%): - rhinovirus, adenovirus etc. - EBV, acute HIV Bacterial: - S. pyogenes (Lancefield group A, b-haemolytic, treatment = amoxicillin) - Corynebacterium diphtheriae (very rare, greyish membrane on tonsils, treatment = antitoxin, erythromycin/clarithromycin) - Neisseria gonorrhoea (and other sexually transmitted infections) - Mycoplasma pneumoniae (occurs in epidemics)
60
Describe bronchitis
Inflammation of the bronchi epithelium due to upper airway infection Causes: mostly viral Symptoms: cough (1-3 weeks), SOB, wheeze, no systemic features Diagnosis: viral swab for PCR, CXR = normal Treatment: usually none (self-limiting)
61
Describe Haemophilus influenzae
A gram negative coccobacilli Encapsulated form = Haemophilus type B (HiB) Can cause acute epiglottitis Treated with co-amoxiclav/doxycycline (most are are beta-lactamase producers)
62
Describe Bordatella pertussis
Gram negative bacilli, cause of whooping cough Diagnosis = culture, PCR, or ELISA for IgG against pertussis toxin Clinical course = incubation, catarrhal phase (rhinorrhoea, fever, conjunctivitis), paroxysmal phase (coughing spasms, inspiratory whoop, vomiting) Treatment = clarithromycin, vaccination
63
What is a multiplex PCR?
Used to diagnose respiratory viruses Green viral throat swab RNA/DNA extracted and amplified by PCR using probes for each of the common viruses Results within 24 hours
64
Define pneumonia
Inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by infections (usually bacteria)
65
Describe the epidemiology of pneumonia
High incidence and hospitalisation High cost to NHS Usually only in those at risk Significant short and long term mortality
66
What are the risk factors for pneumonia?
Infants and the elderly COPD and certain other chronic lung diseases Immunocompromised Nursing home residents Impaired swallow (neurological conditions etc.) Diabetes Congestive heart disease Alcoholics and intravenous drug users
67
What are the typical organisms which cause pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae (most common) Haemophilus influenzae Moraxella catarrhalis Staphylococcus aureus Klebsiella pneumoniae Viruses
68
Describe some atypical pathogens which causes pneumonia
Legionella (from warm water, causes severe illness) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (epidemic, causes extra-pulmonary features e.g. rash) Chlamydia pneumoniae (often older adults with closed outbreaks, longer duration of symptoms) - diagnosis = needs serology (intracellular so difficult to grow) - treatment = erythromycin/clarithromycin (not susceptible to beta-lactams)
69
Describe the pathophysiology of pneumonia
Bacteria colonises in the airway and overwhelms the respiratory host defences, developing an inflammatory response, where inflammatory exudate/pus (dead bacteria + dead neutrophils + tissue fluid) fill the alveolar space
70
What are the signs/symptoms of pneumonia?
Local: - cough - sputum (rusty sputum suggests S. pneumoniae) - shortness of breath - pleuritic chest pain - tachypnoea - signs of consolidation (reduced expansion, dull percussion, increased vocal resonance) Systemic: - malaise - weakness - fever, sweats, rigors - tachycardia - hypotension - hypoxia, cyanosis
71
What are the red flags for a respiratory infection?
Delirium/confusion Renal impairment (high urea) Increased oxygen demand (high resp rate, high lactic acid from anaerobic respiration) Low blood pressure *all signs of sepsis
72
What investigations are needed for pneumonia?
FBC: raised WBC U&E: asses renal function for severity CRP/ESR: asses severity of inflammation Oxygen: pulse oximetry, ABG (define respiratory failure Microbiology testing: sputum, urine for legionella, pleural fluid (using bronchoalveolar lavage if needed), PCR (viruses) CXR: infiltrates, pleural effusion, or cavitation
73
What is the CURB65 score?
Asses the severity of community-acquired pneumonia One point for each: - confusion - urea > 7mmol/L - respiratory rate > 30/min - blood pressure < 90/60 - age > 65 0 = mild 1-2 = moderate 3-5 = severe Predicts mortality and need for admission
74
What is the empirical treatment for pneumonia?
Mild severity (CURB65 = 0-1): - oral amoxicillin or clarithromycin if allergic Moderate severity (CURB65 = 2): - oral amoxicillin + clarithromycin Severe (CURB65 = 3-5): - IV co-amoxiclav/cefuroxime + clarithromycin
75
What antibiotics are used to treat pneumonia caused by the following bacteria: - S. pneumoniae - H. influenzae - Staph. aureus - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Legionella pneumoniae
S. pneumoniae = amoxicillin/cefuroxime H. influenzae = co-amoxiclav/doxycycline Staph. aureus = flucloxacillin/vancomycin (if MRSA) Klebsiella pneumoniae = co-amoxiclav/cefuroxime Legionella pneumoniae = fluoroquinolone + clarithromycin
76
How is pneumonia prevented?
Vaccine: e.g. polysaccharide pneumococcal vaccine - protects against 23 serotypes - given to adults >65 y/o, immunocompromised, and co-morbid patients Smoking cessation also helps
77
Describe hospital acquired pneumonia
Acquired at least 48 hours after hospital admission Most commonly in elderly, patients on ventilators, or post operative Likely to be more resistant organisms and harder to treat = needs broader/complex antibiotics (e.g. metronidazole, doxycycline, piperacillin-tazobactam)
78
What are the common causes of hospital acquired pneumonia?
Gram negative enterobacteria Staphylococcus aureus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Klebsiella pneumoniae Bacteroides
79
What are the common causes of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?
All typical bacteria Fungal: pneumocystis jirovecii (treated with co-trimoxazole) Viral: cytomegalovirus, RSV, herpes
80
Describe the epidemiology of TB
Leading cause of death from a single infectious agent (above HIV/AIDS) Mostly in Southern Africa and South East Asia Associated with HIV
81
How is TB spread?
Most: aerosol from infected individuals entering the lungs Rare: drinking unpasteurised milk from a cow infected with M. bovis (gut TB)
82
Describe the pathophysiology of TB
Infection is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (active TB) The bacilli contaminate macrophages and T lymphocytes and remain while the initial infection is cleared (latent TB) A granuloma (most commonly in upper lobe) persists and develops into a cavity, with other nodes being affected, and causing effusion/collapse There can also be haematogenous dissemination, leading to serious non-pulmonary disease (e.g. miliary TB, GI/GU TB, spinal TB etc.)
83
What are the signs/symptoms of TB?
Pulmonary: - cough - chest pain - breathlessness - haemoptysis Systemic: - weight loss - night sweats - malaise, fever, anorexia
84
What are the investigations needed for active TB?
Non-specific: FBC = anaemia, ESR/CRO = raised Microscopy, culture (sputum) PCR Biopsy of lymph nodes/affected structures CXR: fibronodular/linear opacities in upper lobes, effusion, lymphadenopathy
85
What are the investigations needed for latent TB?
Cannot culture bacteria Tuberculin skin test/Mantoux test: antigen injected intradermally, fast inflammatory response shows T-cell memory, indicating previous exposure Interferon gamma release assays (IGRAs): stimulates memory T cells with specific TB antigens (no vaccine)
86
What are the treatments of active TB?
4 drugs for 6 months: (RIPE) - rifampicin 'R' (6m) SE = hepatitis, red urine/sweat/tears - isoniazid 'H' (6m) SE = hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy - pyrazinamide 'Z' (2m) SE = hepatitis, rash - ethambutol 'E' (2m) SE = optic neuritis
87
What are the treatments for latent TB?
Isoniazid (6m) Rifampicin + isoniazid (3m)
88
How is TB prevented?
Active case finding – reduce infectivity Detection and treatment of latent TB Neonatal BCG vaccination
89
Describe drug resistant TB
Drug resistance may be to single or multiple drugs Risk factors: previous TB treatment, poor quality drugs, non-adherence Common in former soviet union, china
90
What ABG results are seen in type 1 respiratory failure?
O2 = low CO2 = normal/low HCO3 = normal
91
What ABG results are seen in type 2 respiratory failure?
O2 = low CO2 = high HCO3 = normal (acute), high (chronic)
92
What are some common causes of type 1 respiratory failure?
Pneumonia Pulmonary embolism Altitude Lung fibrosis
93
What are some common causes of type 2 respiratory failure?
Obstruction (COPD/severe asthma) Muscle weakness (motor neuron disease) Reduced respiratory drive (e.g. opiate SE) Obesity
94
Define cystic fibrosis
A multi-organ disease caused by an abnormality in the CFTR gene, causing respiratory, gastrointestinal, biliary, and pancreatic problems
95
Describe the epidemiology of cystic fibrosis
Most common inherited disease in Caucasian population Only risk factor is family history All UK babies are screened at birth
96
Describe the pathophysiology in the lungs of cystic fibrosis
CFTR is chloride channel that also affects other cellular activities, like sodium transport in respiratory epithelium, composition of cells surface glycoprotein, and antibacterial defences Defects in these processes cause reduced mucociliary clearance and increased bacterial colonisation, leading to inflammatory lung damage
97
What are the signs/symptoms of cystic fibrosis?
Neonates: - meconium ileus - failure to thrive - rectal prolapse - prolonged jaundice Children/adolescents: - cough - wheeze - recurrent respiratory infections - nasal polyps - bronchiectasis - pancreatic insufficiency - portal hypertension/variceal haemorrhage - male infertility - finger clubbing
98
What are the investigations needed for cystic fibrosis?
Sweat testing (DIAGNOSTIC): high chloride, low sodium, 98% sensitive Molecular genetic testing for CFTR Bloods: FBC, U&Es, LFTs, vitamins A, D and E, glucose Sputum culture: common pathogens include Pseudomonas aeruginosa, H. influenzae, S. aureus CXR: dilated airways filled with mucus, detect pneumonia/pneumothorax Abdominal ultrasound: fatty liver, chronic pancreatitis Sinus x-ray/CT: opacification of sinuses Spirometry: obstructive defect
99
What are the treatments for cystic fibrosis?
Chest physiotherapy (postural drainage, airway clearance techniques) Antibiotics: for infective exacerbations, and prophylactically Mucolytics (e.g. Dornase alfa): cleaves neutrophil-derived DNA to reduce viscosity and aid removal of sputum Pancreatic enzyme replacement Maintain adequate weight (high energy meals) Screening and treatment for diabetes and osteoporosis Psychological interventions Heart/lung transplant in severe disease
100
Define bronchiectasis
Chronic inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles leading to permanent dilatation and thinning of these airways
101
Describe the epidemiology of bronchiectasis
Prevalence increases with age Slightly more common in women
102
What are the causes of bronchiectasis?
Previous severe lower respiratory tract infection: - pneumonia - pertussis - pulmonary TB - influenza (most common) Congenital: - cystic fibrosis - primary ciliary dyskinesia - Young's syndrome Associated conditions: - COPD - asthma - rheumatoid arthritis - IBD - allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Obstruction: - bronchial tumour - foreign body
103
Describe the pathophysiology of bronchiectasis
Irreversible inflammatory damage to the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial walls causes the permanent dilatation
104
What are the signs/symptoms of bronchiectasis?
Persistent cough Copious purulent sputum Haemoptysis Dyspnoea Wheeze Coarse crackles Finger clubbing Systemic: fever, fatigue, weight loss
105
What are the investigations needed for bronchiectasis?
Sputum culture: often colonise Pseudomonas aeruginosa, or S. aureus FBC: raised WBC in infection CXR: exclude other pathology, may show abnormalities in severe disease High-resolution CT: DIAGNOSTIC, asses extent and distribution of disease Spirometry: often shows obstructive pattern, may show reversibility Immunoglobulins: test for IgG, IgA, and IgM deficiency Bronchoscopy: exclude obstruction, obtain sample for culture Other tests: CF testing, IgE/skin prick test for Aspergillus, RF/anti-CPP/ANCA for RA
106
What are the treatments for bronchiectasis?
Physiotherapy: - airway clearance - exercise Antibiotics: - for acute exacerbations, depends on sensitivities (e.g. Pseudomonas = oral ciprofloxacin) - long-term, for recurrent exacerbations, depends on sensitivities Bronchodilators: - beta agonists (e.g. nebulised salbutamol) - muscarinic antagonists - theophylline - corticosteroids (only if also asthmatic) Surgery: (in severe disease) - resection - bronchial artery embolisation
107
Define interstitial lung disease
A heterogenous group of conditions, which are characterised by scarring (fibrosis) and inflammation of the lung interstitium
108
How are interstitial lung diseases categorised?
Idiopathic: - idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - non-specific interstitial pneumonitis Known cause: - occupational/environmental (e.g. asbestosis, silicosis) - drug-associated (e.g. nitrofurantoin) - hypersensitivity pneumonitis - infection (e.g. TB, fungi, viral) Associated with systemic disorders: - sarcoidosis - rheumatoid arthritis - SLE - systemic sclerosis
109
What are the shared clinical features of interstitial lung disease?
Dyspnoea (on exertion) Non-productive coughing Insidious fatigue and weight loss Abnormal breath sounds Abnormal CXR or HRCT Restrictive pattern spirometry Decreased TLCO
110
Define idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
The most common type of interstitial lung disease, characterised by fibrosis and inflammatory cell infiltrates of unknown cause
111
Describe the pathophysiology of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Proliferation of fibroblasts (forming foci) which deposit collagen in the extracellular matrix, causing thickened alveolar interstitium, destruction of alveoli, and lower gas exchange, mostly affecting the periphery and base of lungs
112
What are the treatments for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Supportive care: oxygen, opioids analgesics, palliative care Pirfenidone (inhibits fibroblasts + immunosuppressive) and nintedanib (inhibits growth factor receptors) to reduce the rate of scarring and slow disease progression
113
Define sarcoidosis
A multi-system chronic granulomatous inflammatory disorder of unknown cause, commonly affecting the lungs and thoracic cavity but also other sites (e.g. skin, eyes, liver, nervous system)
114
Describe the epidemiology of sarcoidosis
Commonly affects 20-40 y/o More common in women More common and severe in Afro-Caribbeans than Caucasians
115
What are the clinical features of sarcoidosis?
Pulmonary: - dry cough, dyspnoea, fever, chest pain - abnormal CXR (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy +/- peripheral infiltrates) - restrictive/obstructive pattern Non-pulmonary: - raised serum ACE - rash - uveitis - lymphadenopathy - hepatosplenomegaly - Bell's palsy, neuropathy, meningitis - cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias
116
What are the treatments of sarcoidosis?
Only early pulmonary disease = bed rest, NSAIDs Corticosteroids (oral prednisolone) Immunosuppressants (e.g. methotrexate) Anti-TNF (e.g. adalimumab)