Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What some key features in the pathophysiology of asthma?

A

Smooth muscle spasm and hypertrophy, mucus hyper secretion and goblet cell hyperplasia, release of inflammatory mediators, basement membrane thickening

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2
Q

What investigations can be used to diagnose asthma?

A

Peak flow, spirometry with reversibility, FeNO, bronchial challenge test

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3
Q

Why can we use an FeNO test in asthma?

A

FeNO is produced as a result of asthmatic inflammation

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4
Q

What is the first line management for asthma?

A

a low dose inhaled ICS/formoterol combination inhaler taken as needed for symptoms relief

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5
Q

If someone was just using a SABA to control there asthma what would make you consider moving onto the next level of treatment?

A

If they are using more than three puffs a week, symptoms aren’t under control

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6
Q

What are the benefits of using a spacer?

A

Increased drug deposition in the lungs, less deposited in the mouth or swallowed, no coordination required

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7
Q

What questions are good to ask when monitoring asthma?

A

Any night time/ day time symptoms?
How is asthma affecting usual activities?
How often are you using reliever?

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8
Q

What are some side effects of using a steroid inhaler?

A

Most common: Oral thrush, hoarseness of voice

Less common: increased risk of T2DM, adrenal suppression

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9
Q

Which asthma medications are safe for use in pregnancy and breastfeeding?

A

All asthma medications

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10
Q

What is the correct treatment for a suspected primary pneumothorax greater than 2cm?

A

Simple aspiration

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11
Q

What is the correct treatment for a suspected primary pneumothorax less than 2cm and without associated SOB?

A

Consider discharge and review in ODP in a few weeks

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12
Q

What is the suggested treatment for a suspected secondary pneumothorax greater than 2cm or with associated breathlessness?

A

Chest drain

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13
Q

What is the suggested treatment for a suspected secondary pneumothorax between 1-2cm?

A

Simple aspiration

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14
Q

What is hepatic hydrothorax?

A

Presence of a pleural effusion in a patient with cirrhosis who has no other reason for a pleural effusion

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15
Q

What are diagnosing features of moderate acute asthma?

A

Increasing symptoms, PEF 50-75%

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16
Q

What features would give a diagnosis severe acute asthma?

A

PEF 33-50%, RR >25, HR >110, inability to complete sentences in one breath

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17
Q

What features are diagnostic of near fatal asthma?

A

Raised PaCO2 or requiring mechanical ventilation with raised inflation pressures

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18
Q

What are some diagnostic features of life-threatening asthma?

A

PEF <33%, SpO2 <92%, PaO2 <8kPa, normal PaCO2

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19
Q

What are some features of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Small rod shaped, slow growing, acid fast bacilli

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20
Q

What can increase a patients susceptibility to tuberculosis infection?

A

Crowded living, malnutrition, alcohol + drug abuse, HIV infection, immigration from counter with high rates

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21
Q

What are symptoms of active TB?

A

Cough, fever, malaise, night sweats, loss of appetite, weight loss, SOB (late symptom)

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22
Q

What can be seen on CXR in TB?

A

A cavitating lesion most commonly seen in upper lobes

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23
Q

Which lab test fro TB are screening test which can show exposure to TB/ latent but aren’t diagnostic for active TB?

A

TST (tuberculin skin test) and interferon gamma release assay

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24
Q

Which tests are used to diagnose active TB?

A

Microscopy culture (of sputum), nucleic acid amplification

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25
Q

What is the treatment for TB? (RIPE)

A

Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

All four for 2 month, then just R+I for next 4 months

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26
Q

If there is CNS involvement in TB how does this effect length of treatment?

A

Treatment is 9 months

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27
Q

What is XDR-TB?

A

A TB infection resistant to at least 4 of the core anti TB drugs

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28
Q

What main feature distinguishes a massive PE?

A

A systolic BP <90 for more than fifteen minutes

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29
Q

What is the treatment for a massive PE?

A

Thrombolysis (Alteplase)

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30
Q

What are the clinical features of PE listed from most frequent?

A

Dyspnoea, tachypnoea, pleuritic chest pain, apprehension, tachycardia, cough, haemoptysis

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31
Q

What is a PESI score?

A

Pulmonary embolism severity index- a risk stratification tool to determine mortality of patients with newly diagnosed PE

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32
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A

A multi systemic, chronic inflammatory condition characterised by granuloma formation

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33
Q

What are the ages of peak incidence of sarcoidosis in men and women?

A

Men: 30-50
Women: 50-60

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34
Q

What are the symptoms of sarcoidosis?

A

Most cases are asymptomatic.

Symptoms include- fatigue, weight loss, aches and pains, arthritis, SOB, dry eyes

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35
Q

What sign on CXR would indicate sarcoidosis?

A

Bilateral hilar lymph node enlargement

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36
Q

What are some signs of sarcoidosis?

A

Rash, hepatomegaly, arrhythmia, anaemia, nerve palsy, enlarged parotid, erythema nodosum, enlarged lymph nodes

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37
Q

How can you diagnose sarcoidosis?

A

CXR, lung function tests, raised serum calcium and ACE levels

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38
Q

Why is serum calcium raised in sarcoidosis?

A
  1. Uncontrolled synthesis of active vitamin D by macrophage leads to increased absorption of calcium from gut
  2. Increased resorption of bone
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39
Q

In what three conditions is it possible to see bilateral hilar enlargement on CXR?

A

Sarcoidosis, TB and lymphoma

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40
Q

What treatment is used in sarcoidosis?

A

Only treated if treatment is indicated.

Treatment includes NSAIDs and consider steroids

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41
Q

How may a patient with brochiectasis present?

A

Several months with shortness of breath and chronic productive cough

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42
Q

What features on physical examination are seen in bronchiectasis?

A

Coarse crackles, wheeze, clubbing, weight loss

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43
Q

What are symptoms patients with brochiectasis can experience other than chronic cough and SOB?

A

Rhinosinusitis, fatigue, haemoptysis, thoracic pain

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44
Q

What scan is diagnostic for bronchiectasis?

A

High resolution CT chest

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45
Q

What features of bronchiectasis are seen on CT?

A

Lack of tapering of bronchioles (tram-track sign), increased bronchio-arterial ratio (signet ring sign)

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46
Q

What is the main cause of secondary pneumothorax?

A

COPD

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47
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary pneumothorax?

A

Secondary is where there is pre-existing lung disease

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48
Q

What is the main indication for intervention in pneumothorax?

A

Significant breathlessness

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49
Q

How can a patient with pneumothorax typically present?

A

Short of breath, pleuritic chest pain, decreased breath sounds, lack of movement on affected side

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50
Q

What is first line investigation for pneumthorax?

A

CXR

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51
Q

What are causes of cavitating lesions? (CAVITY)

A

Carcinoma, autoimmune (RA, wegner’s granulomatosis), vascular (septic PE), infection (abscess, TB), Trauma (pneumatocoele), youth (CPAM-congenital malformation)

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52
Q

How does COVID pneumonia appear on CXR?

A

Bilateral peripheral shadowing

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53
Q

How does ILD look on a CXR?

A

Reticulo-nodular shadowing

54
Q

What is the pathogenesis of interstitial Lund disease?

A

Epithelial activation followed by dysregulated repair and fibrosis is promoted

55
Q

What drugs can cause ILD?

A

Amiodarone, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, bleomycin, cyclophosphamide

56
Q

What are some clinical signs and symptoms features seen in ILD?

A

Progressive SOB, dry cough, reduced exercise tolerance, fine inspiratory crackles, finger clubbing (small percentage), cyanosis

57
Q

What are some occupations associated with ILD?

A

Ship workers (abestosis), coal workers (pneumoconiosis), pigeon workers (hypersensitivity pneumonitis)

58
Q

What are some diseases associated with ILD?

A

RA, SLE, scleroderma

59
Q

What treatments are used for ILD?

A

Removal of exposure, immunosuppressants, anti fibrotic drugs, pulmonary rehab

60
Q

A patient presents with hyponatraemia, productive cough and fever following a cheap hotel holiday. What is likely atypical cause of their pneumonia?

A

Legionella pneumophila

61
Q

A patient presents with productive cough and low grade fever, they also have a rash made up of target lesions. What is a likely cause of their atypical pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

62
Q

A farmer presents with a flu-like illness. He is found to have an atypical pneumonia, what is the likely causative organism?

A

Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)

63
Q

A parrot owner presents with shortness of breath, productive cough and fever. He is found to have an atypical pneumonia. What is the likely cause?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

64
Q

Why are patient with low CD4 counts given prophylactic oral co-trimoxazole?

A

To protect them from pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP) as they are at high risk

65
Q

Is WCC or CRP better for monitoring a patient’s improvement with pneumonia?

A

WCC

- as CRP shows delayed response so may spike a couple days later despite treatment improving patient’s condition

66
Q

What organisms are more commonly seen to cause pneumonia in cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and staphylococcus aureus

67
Q

What organism is more likely to be a cause of pneumonia in patients with bronchiectasis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

68
Q

What are the categories that make up the CURB-65 scoring? What is this used for?

A

Confusion, urea (>7), Resp rate (>30), blood pressure (<90 sys, <60 dys), age (>65)
Used to guide whether to admit a patient with pneumonia

69
Q

At what CURB-65 score would you consider hospital admission?

A

2 or above

70
Q

What are some examination findings that may be present in a patient with pneumonia?

A

focal coarse crackles, bronchial breath sounds, dullness on percussion,

71
Q

What are some side effects of ethambutol?

A

Optic neuropathy and reduced visual acuity

72
Q

What are some side effects of rifampicin?

A

Urine/tears turn orange and drug induced hepatitis

73
Q

What are some side effects of isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy, colour blindness, drug-induced lupus

74
Q

What are the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

strep pneumoniae, haemophilia influenzae, M. Catarrhalis

75
Q

What 3 clinical features do patients with covid-19 who require hospitalisation often have?

A

Hypoxia, lymphopenia, bilateral lower zone changes on CXR

76
Q

What are some findings on CXR which can suggest cancer?

A

Hilar enlargement, peripheral opacity, pleural effusion, atelectasis

77
Q

What are some extra-pulmonary manifestations of lung cancer caused by compression of neurovasculature?

A

Recurrent laryngeal palsy, phrenic nerve palsy, superior vena cava obstruction, Horner’s syndrome

78
Q

What clinical sign can you look for if you suspect superior vena cava obstruction? What does it involve?

A

Pemberton’s sign

When patient raises their hands above their head it causes facial congestion and cyanosis

79
Q

Which scale would you use to help identify obstructive sleep apnoea?

A

Epworth sleepiness scale

80
Q

What are some features suggesting steroid responsiveness in COPD?

A

Previous asthma or atopy diagnosis
High blood eosinophil count
Variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400ml)
Substantial diurnal variation in peak flow

81
Q

Which of myasthenia gravis and Lambert-Eaton syndrome improves with muscle use?

A

Lambert-Eaton

82
Q

On CXR there is a loss of the silhouette of the left hemidiaphragm. Which is the most likely area of pathology e.g atelectasis or pneumonia?

A

Left lower lobe

83
Q

On CXR there is a loss of the silhouette of the right hemidiaphragm. Which is the most likely area of pathology e.g atelectasis or pneumonia?

A

Right lower lobe

84
Q

On CXR there is a loss of the silhouette of the right heart border. Which is the most likely area of pathology e.g atelectasis or pneumonia?

A

Right middle lobe

85
Q

On CXR there is a loss of the silhouette of the left heart border. Which is the most likely area of pathology e.g atelectasis or pneumonia?

86
Q

Unable to complete full sentences is a parameter for which stage of acute asthma?

87
Q

‘PEFR 50-75% of predicted’ is a parameter for which stage of acute asthma?

88
Q

‘PEFR 33-50% of predicted’ is a parameter for which stage of acute asthma?

89
Q

‘PEFR <33% of predicted’ is a parameter for which stage of acute asthma?

A

Life-threatening

90
Q

‘Oxygen saturations <92%’ is a parameter for which stage of acute asthma?

A

Life-threatening

91
Q

Haemodynamic instability, fatigue and no wheeze are parameters for which stage of acute asthma?

A

Life-threatening

92
Q

‘HR >110 and RR >25’ are parameters for which stage of acute asthma?

93
Q

Which electrolyte should be monitored when giving lots of salbutamol?

94
Q

What medications are used in the treatment of acute asthma? (O shit me)

A
O-oxygen
S- salbutamol (5mg nebulisers)
H- hydrocortisone 
I- ipratropium bromide (nebulised)
T- theophylline/aminophylline 
M- magnesium sulphate 
E- escalate care
95
Q

What forms the triangle of safety used for chest drain insertion?

A

5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line and mid axillary line

96
Q

What s the immediate treatment for tension pneumothorax?

A

Insert large bore cannula into the second intercostal space mid-clavicular line

97
Q

When inserting a needle into the thorax do you go just above or just below the rib?

A

Just above to avoid the neruovascular bundle that runs below the ribs

98
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

SIADH, Lambert-Eaton, cushings

99
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with squamous cell lung cancer?

A

Hypercalcaemia from PTH production

100
Q

What blood test may be abnormal in sarcoidosis?

A

Calcium may be raised

101
Q

What features of sarcoidosis require treatment with steroids?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, hypercalcaemia, involvement of eyes, cardiac or neurological system

102
Q

Why would a patient with COPD have polycythaemia?

A

Secondary response to chronic hypoxia

103
Q

What is the acute management of an infectuve exacerbation of COPD?

A

Prednisone one 30mg
Salbutamol and ipratropium
Antibiotics (co-amoxiclav for 5 days)
Mucolytics (nebulised saline in acute setting can help break up mucus)

104
Q

When do you consider NIV in severe COPD?

A

If type 2 respiratory failure and pH 7.25-7.35

105
Q

What are microscopic changes in 1) gastric cancer, 2) UC 3) Crohn’s 4) coeliac disease?

A

Signet ring cells
Cryst abscess and goblet cell hypoplasia
Granulomatous inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa
Villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia and increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes

106
Q

What is initial management of hepatic encephalopathy (build up of ammonia secondary to liver cirrhosis)?

107
Q

What criteria is used to assess whether a UC flare is mild to moderate to severe?

A

True love and Witts criteria

108
Q

How would you treat severe UC flare?

A

IV hydrocortisone

109
Q

How would you treat mild/moderate UC flare?

A

Mesalazine (topical +/- oral)

110
Q

What skin rash can be seen in sarcoidosis?

A

Erythema nodosum

111
Q

Why is calcium high in sarcoidosis?

A

Uncontrolled synthesis of vitamin D in macrophages which increases calcium absorption in intestines

112
Q

Is sarcoidosis self limiting?

A

Most will have spontaneous remission within two years however some will need treatment if particular symptoms are present

113
Q

What are some indications for treatment in sarcoidosis?

A

Progressive pulmonary disease, uveitis, end organ involvement, neurological involvement, persistent hypercalcaemia

114
Q

What are main causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy?

A

Sarcoidosis, TB, lymphoma

115
Q

Common causes of pleural effusion?

A

CCF, malignancy, TB, pneumonia

116
Q

Why can you get hypercalcaemia with lung cancer?

A

Release of PTH related protein from squamous cell carcinoma, osteolytic activity at sites of skeletal metastatase

117
Q

What blood test should patients presenting with TB also have?

A

HIV testing

118
Q

Risk factors for pneumothorax?

A

Male, smoking, existing lung disease, mechanical ventilation, marfan’s

119
Q

What are asthmatic features or features of steroid responsiveness in COPD?

A

Previous asthma diagnosis, raised eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, diurnal variation in peak flow (not routinely measured in COPD)

120
Q

which pneumonia causing bacterial pathogen is associated with cold sores?

A

strep pneumoniae

121
Q

how do we treat sarcoidosis and when would we treat it?

A

treated with glucocorticoids.
steroids indicated in patients with stage 2/3 disease who are symptomatic, have hypercalcaemia or heart/eye/neuro involvement

122
Q

what is a ghon complex in TB?

A

the lung lesion and affected lymph nodes in TB

123
Q

what staining technique is used to identify mycobacterium?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

124
Q

what is the order of tests we use to diagnose asthma in adults and young people (over 16)?

A

blood eosinophils or FeNO
Bronchodilator reversibility with spirometry
peak flow variability
bronchial challenge

125
Q

preceeding influenza predisposes to pneumonia caused by what bacteria?

A

staph aureus

126
Q

what is the management of latent TB?

A

3 months isoniazid and rimfampicin
or 6 months isoniazid

127
Q

what is likely to have happened in a patient who has a sudden deterioration following ventilation?

A

iatrogenic tension pneumothorax

128
Q

what are causes of lower lobe lung fibrosis with mneumonic ACID?

A

asbestos
connective tissue disorders
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
drugs e.g methotrexate, nitrofurantoin

129
Q

what is Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis otherwise known as?

A

Churg Strauss syndrome

130
Q

what syndrome should be considered in patients with asthma, nasal congestion, peripheral neuropathy, and signs of renal involvement such as haematuria and proteinuria?

A

churg strauss syndrome

131
Q

what