Resp/ENT/Sleep Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of chronic cough

Ddx

A

persistence of cough >4 weeks

Most common 3:

  1. Protracted bacterial bronchitis
  2. Bronchiectasis
  3. Asthma

Aspiration
Atypical infx
Inhaled foreign body
Post viral
ILD
Cardiac disease
Ear disease
Oesophageal disease
Medications
Somatic/habit cough

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2
Q
  1. What is protracted bacterial bronchitis
  2. What are the most common bacteria found in these cases?
  3. What should you be suspicious of if the cough doesn’t respond to 4 weeks abx?
A
  1. Cough lasting >4 weeks that is WET in nature with response to 2 weeks abx tx (ADF) with no other features to indicate another cause
  2. H. influenzae, Moraxella catarralis, Strep pneumonia
  3. Bronchiectasis
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3
Q

Asthma management step wise approach

A
  1. Reliever (salbutamol) PRN
  2. low dose ICS preventer (eg fluticasone, budesonide, ciclesonide) or montelukast or cromeo
  3. higher dose ICS OR low dose ICS plus montelukast OR LABA plus low dose ICS
  4. Refer resp physician

Wait 4 weeks after starting ICS or cromones to assess for sx resolution and 2 weeks after montelukast before stepping up

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4
Q

Bronchiectasis

Definition
Adults vs children

A

ADULT DEFINITION
Irreversible dilatation of one or more bronchi (bronchi larger than accompanying blood vessel) w failure of bronchi to taper in periphery of lung
Bronchoarterial ratio >1
Radiological diagnosis - seen on CT.

CHILDREN

  • Reversible with early treatment
  • Bronchoarterial ratio >0.8
  • Bronchiole normal tubular -> cyclindrical/follicular (dilated) = ‘tree in bud appearance’ on CT -> varicose -> cystic
  • Up to cylindrical point it is reversible in children but beyond this it is not.

FEATURES

  • CT changes + chronic wet/productive cough
  • Frequent resp exacerbations
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5
Q

Spectrum of chronic suppurative lung disease

Underlying pathogenesis

A

Mildest end of spectrum
Protracted bacterial bronchitis (can occur in healthy well children)
-> repeated infections ->
Chronic suppurative lung disease (CT scans normal)
->
Radiological bronchiectasis

Pathophys:
- Insult to lung (infection) -> inflammatory response with cytokines, nests, elastase and bacterial byproducts -> impairs lungs normal mucociliary clearance -> incr mucus production/decr clearance -> blocks small airways -> incr propensity for microbial colonisation -> bacteria cause more inflammation -> cycle continues

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6
Q

Treatment bronchiectasis

A

Antibiotics
Maximise airway clearance (chest PT)
Diet optimisation/nutrition
Minimise environmental pollutants (smoking)
Exercise

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7
Q

Classic bugs that cause infection in children with CF bronchiectasis

A

PSA
Staph aureus

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8
Q

Non typable haemophilis influenza

  • what is its mode of pathogenicity?
  • what condition has increased susceptibility to this bug?
A

Secretes biofilm (ECM protecting against host immune response and abx, helping to prolong existence in airways)
Incr susceptibility in PBB and CF
Worsens inflammation cycle

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9
Q

Abx therapy (abx + duration) in exacerbation of bronchiectasis

  • mild-mod
  • vs mod-severe
A

Initial empiric tx
Mild-mod: PO Augmentin DF (amoxicillin) or Azithromycin. Cipro if PSA in recent culture.
Mod-Severe: IV ampicillin, cefotazime, ceftriaxone. Tazocin or ceftaz and tobra if PSA in recent cultures.

Minimum 10-14 days or cough free for 2 days
Start with oral abx, if not effective then will need IV abx

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10
Q

Indication for long term abx in bronchectasis

A

3+ exacerbations in previous 12 months

Aims for suppression rather than eradication

Decr exac and hospitalisation rate BUT risk of resistance

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11
Q

Benefits of macrolides in CF

Risks

Example of a macrolide

A

ex: Azithromycin

BENEFITS
Antimicrobial and anti-inflammatory
Routinely used in CF
Inhibits biofilms (PSA, NTHI)
Decr exac rate

RISKS
1. BUT macrolide resistance (staph aureus specifically) and risk of GI side effects
Exclude NTM prior to starting tx to avoid induction of resistance to macrolides
2. QTc prolongation (need to perform baseline ECG prior to starting tx)

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12
Q

What conditions have evidence for inhaled abx

A

CF
Non-CF BE with PSA only

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13
Q

Features of salbutamol toxicity
what do u see on blood gas

A
Tremor, tachycardia, tachypnoea
Metabolic acidosis (lactate high)
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14
Q

Pathophys of asthma

A

Two major components to airway obstruction

i. Chronic Airway inflammation
ii. Reactive airways = bronchoconstriction and airway hyperresponsivness

Pathology

i. Smooth muscle hyperplasia of bronchial and bronchiolar walls
ii. Thick tenacious mucous plugs
iii. Thickened BM
iv. Mucosal edema
v. Eosinophilia of the submucosa and secretions
vi. Increased mast cells in smooth muscle

Results in
Mucosal edema, bronchospasm and mucus plugging -> airflow obstruction -> increased resistance to airflow -> decreased ability to expel air -> hyperinflation

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15
Q

Explain VQ mismatch in asthma

Explain how ventolin can affect this

A

Airway inflammation and resulting airflow obstruction is NOT uniform throughout the tracheobronchial tree – distribution of inspired air is uneven, uneven circulation to the alveoli, uneven ventilation (VQ mismatch)

Ventolin
Can cause a paradoxical worsening in VQ mismatch (and thus spO2) early in treatment (first 30min). May need supplemental O2 for this short period of time.

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16
Q

Innervation of bronchial smooth muscle

A

Parasympathetic nervous system -> bronchoconstriction (M3 receptors) = cholinergic

Sympathetic nervous system -> bronchodilation (B2 receptors) = beta adrenergic

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17
Q

Spirometry findings in asthma

Define the values of abnormality for each

A

Airway obstruction defined as

  1. FEV1 <80% (predicted)
  2. FEV1/FVC <75% (varies with age)
  3. MMEF 25-75 <67% (predicted)

Bronchodilator reversibility = improvement of FEV1 of 12% in absolute values

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18
Q

How many actuations in a ventolin inhaler?

A

200

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19
Q

Asthma severity levels

A

Infrequent intermittent asthma (Symptom-free for at least 6 weeks at a time (flare-ups up to once every 6 weeks on average but no symptoms between flare-ups)

Frequent intermittent asthma (Flare-ups more than once every 6 weeks on average but no symptoms between flare-ups, normal exam and PFT between flares)

Persistent asthma
• Daytime symptoms >2 days/week
• Nocturnal symptoms >1 night/week
• Attacks <6 weeks apart
• May have abnormal lung function
• Multiple presentations to ED

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20
Q

Montelukast

Mechanism of action

Age cut off

Indication

A

Mechanism of action = LT receptor antagonist

Can be used in children >= 2 years of age

Main indication = alternative to ICS in children with Frequent intermittent asthma or Mild persistent asthma

Trialed first IF:

  1. The child is unable to use inhaled therapy
  2. The child also has significant allergic rhinitis
  3. The parents have strong concerns about adverse effects of ICS
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21
Q

Risk of LABA use and limitations of use in asthma

A

LABA also results in phosphorylation and internalisation of beta 2 receptor – results in increased mortality

No evidence for children <5 years

Should not be started when child is clinically unwell and should not be used as monotherpay (always with ICS)

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22
Q

Mepolizumab

Omalizumab

A

Mepo

i. Humanised anti-IgE Monoclonal Ab
ii. Prevents binding of free IgE to high affinity receptors on basophils and mast cells
iii. Approved for moderate to severe allergic asthma in children 12 years or older
iv. Delivered by SC every 2-4 weeks

Omal

i. An add-on maintenance therapy for severe asthma with an eosinophilic phenotype in patients age 12 years and older
ii. Anti-IL-5 Mab injected SC every 4 weeks
iii. Decreases the production an survival of eosinophils, a major inflammatory cell involved in asthma pathogenesis

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23
Q

Diagnosis of CF

A

New born screening test looks for elevated IRT (‘immunoreactive trypsinogen’ produced by stressed pancreas)

  • screens for the most common 12 genotypes in the state although over 900 exist

Gold standard is the ‘Sweat Test’ (elevated Cl, Na, sweat weight)

However there is a risk of false negatives
Any child w evidence of pancreatic insufficiency (Steattorrhoea, fat globules or crystals in stool) +/- FTT should be considered for CF

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24
Q

CF gene (most common)

A

Delta 508 most common (90% of patients in australia)

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25
Q

Pathophys CF

A

Mutation in the CF transmembrane regulator gene (CFTR transports Cl across the cell wall)
Results in abnormal CFTR protein processing

  1. Impaired Cl secretion from airway epithelial cell
    - > incr Na and H20 into cell resulting -> causes dehydration of airway surface liquid of cell resulting in THICK mucous and impaired clearance of mucous
  2. Impaired HCO3 secretion from cell -> airway surface liquid pH becomes more acidic -> inhibits antimicrobial fxn -> impaired killing of pathogenic bacteria entering lung

Cycle of CFTR dysfunction -> viscous secretions -> infection and inflammation -> lung damage and abnormal lung function
Ultimately results in death due to resp failure

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26
Q

Classic bugs causing infection in CF

A

Most common early on:

  1. S aureus
  2. Non typable haemophilus influenza

Most common later on (adolescence):

  1. Pseudomonas is a bad prognostic indicator (becomes more predominant older you get)

Uncommon

  1. MRSA (if present in resp tract, almost pathopneumonic of CF)
  2. Steno maltophilia
  3. B cepacia least common but can cause very aggressive lung disease and death in some children

Need abx prophylaxis for first 2 years of life to prevent colonisation especially w Staph

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27
Q

ABPA in CF

Prevalence
What is the pathophys
Diagnostic features
Treatment

A

Risk to CF patients (1-15% prevalence)
Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction - Exaggerated TH2 CD4+ immune response to aspergillus

Diagnosis requires 5 features

  • Acute or subacute clinical deterioration (BROWN sputum characteristic) often w wheeze
  • Serum IgE >1000 IU/ml
  • Immediate cutaneous reactivity to Aspergillus on RAST skin prick
  • Pos Aspergillus précipitans IgG
  • New or recent abnormalities on chest XR or CT (pulmonary infiltrates)
  • Aspergillus in sputum culture

Treatment

  • Oral steroids (or pulse IV methyl predictive if noncompliant)
  • Oral antifungals (itraconazole)
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28
Q

Abx against pseudomonas in CF

A

Tobramycin (IV or nebulised)
Ciprofloxacin
Cayston (nebulised Aztreonam)

2 month initial eradication course (2 weeks IV Tobra then 2 months nebulised Tobra)

If unsuccessful, for intermittent cycles of abx to try to lessen bacterial load

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29
Q

Indication, effect and MOA of azithromycin in CF patients

A

Indication: patients with chronic PSA infection -> used as a three times a week dosing regime to stabilise chronic lung disease in CF pts w PSA

Effects:

  1. Improvement in lung function
  2. reduced pulmonary exacerbations (PEx)
  3. improvement in nutritional status

MOA:
Azithromycin suppresses alginate production (PSA produces a gene that codes for alginate when it progresses from acute to chronic infection)

Anti neutrophilic and anti inflammatory cytokine production

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30
Q

What is the purpose of cross infection prevention practises in CF patients?

A

Prevent cross infection of NTM between carriers

No 2 CF patients should ever come into contact w each other

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31
Q

Mucolytic therapies in CF

Examples
Effect on disease

A
Pulmozyme (dornase alpha), neb 
Hypertonic saline (6%), neb 
Inhaled mannitol (dry powder delivery device) 

Pulmozyme reduces number of resp exacerbations
Shown to improve lung function with patients with severe lung disease but in patients with normal lung function their lung function continued to decline

ALL:
Get a transient increase in FEV1 then stability in lung function
Not disease modifying agents

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32
Q

Ivacaftor

  • What is it used for
  • What does it do
A
  • For class 3 (G551D) and 4 mutations in CF pts over age of 2
  • *Potentiator*
  • Disease modifying agent: partially corrects the channel defect allowing Cl transport
  • Initial FEV1 increase then stability
  • Decr in sweat chloride to almost non CF levels
  • Improvement in nutrition
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33
Q

What disease modifying agents can you use in delta 508 homozygous (class 2) CF patients

What effects do these have on CF

A

Orkambi in >2yo (ivacaftor and lumicaftor)

  • *corrector*
  • For Class 2 mutations (delta 508 homozygous) in CF in pts >12yo
  • -> improves protein folding and incr trafficking to cell surface
  • 3-4% incr in LFT and 34% decr in pulmonary exacerbations
  • No incr in nutrition or improvement in QOL

Symdeko (Tezacaftor + ivacaftor) in >5yo

  • *corrector*
  • Incr FEV1, reduce pulm exacerbations

Trikafta (elexacaftor, texacantor and ivacaftor)

  • *amplifier*
  • improved/partially corrected protein folding and Cl passage through channel
  • reduces exacerbations, sweat Cl and QOL
  • improves FEV1 and BMI (incr)
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34
Q

CF complications

A

Pancreatic insufficiency
fat soluble vitamin deficiency
Malabsorption
Growth failure/delay/pubertal delay

CF-related diabetes (yearly OGTT and HBA1C > 10yo to detect this). Signs incl reduction in weight and RFT in 2 yrs leading up to diagnosis. Assoc w reduction in life expectancy.

Cancer of small bowel, colon, biliary tract (NOT stomach or rectum)

C diff

Crohns disease

Osteoporosis (Dexa scans yearly over age of 10 to detect this) - sec to malabsorption of vit D, Ca

Infertility (95% men infertile)

CF related liver disease (starts w mild transaminitis -> progress to cirrhosis and portal HTN). can start URSO to improve bile drainage.

CF arthropathy

Pseudo-bartters syndrome (metabolic alkalosis w low K and Na and dehydration)

Anxiety and depression

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35
Q

ChILD

Definition

Presentation

A

Remodelling of lung interstitium and distal airways leading to abnormal gas exchange

Presents w 3/4 of the following

  1. Resp sx (cough, SOB, exercise tolerance)
  2. signs (tachypnoea, creps, clubbing, FTT, resp failure, incr WOB)
  3. hypoxia
  4. diffuse abnormalities on cxr/ct
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36
Q

Tachypnoea and hypoxia soon after birth

CT and biopsy below

Diagnosis? Tx?

A

Pulmonary interstitial glycogenosis

Type of congenital ILD

Histological ddx from lung biopsy
- round glycogen laiden mesenchymal cell

Tx w corticosteroids
- good long term outcome

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37
Q

Otherwise healthy infants during the first months to year of life with persistent tachypnea, crackles, and hypoxemia

Diagnosis?
Tx?

A

Neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia of infancy

Form of ILD - histological or radiological diagnosis

bx- neuroendocrine cell bodies in interstitium or bronchioles
HRCT - ground glass opacities in RML and lingual and air trapping in lower lobes

Tx is supportive

Pulmonary symptoms and hypoxemia tend to improve with time but may persist for years.

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38
Q

Surfactant dysfunction

Causes/genes

presentation

treatment

A

Genetic disorder
- 4 genetic defects

–> SPB: lethal neonatal RDS in homozygous individuals (AR)

–> SPC: AD, causes interstitial lung disease of varying severity and age of onset

–>ABCA3: lethal neonatal respiratory distress OR ILD in those surviving and presenting at older ages

P/w persistant tachypnoea, hypoxia
time of presentation depends on specific genetic defect

Treatment

  • Chronic ventilation
  • Lung transplant
  • Corticosteroids, hydroxyquinolone, azithromycin
  • nutritional supplementation due to incr WOB
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39
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

pathophys

presentation

ix

tx

A

IE ‘Extrinsic Akllergic Alveolitis’

Type 4 (and 3) HS reaction to inhaled organic particles -\> granuloma formation in the lungs
- Commonly to bird Ag ('Bird fancier or breeder's lung') and mould (Aspergillus; 'ABPA')
  • also spray paints, glues, insecticides, dusts

Diagnosis - mean age 10yo
Presentation
- Acute (fever, cough, body aches)
- Subacute: chronic cough w weight loss, dyspnoea, fatigue
- Chronic - as above but with fibrosis (ILD) on CT

Ix

  • CXR, CT (micronodules, ground glass opacities)
  • BAL (lymphocyte infiltration, granulomas, multinucleated giant cell)
  • Lung bx
  • Ag challenge

Tx

  • remove Ag
  • corticosteroids
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40
Q

Connective tissue diseases with lung involvement

  • pathophys
  • causes
A

AutoAb to pulmonary parenchyma and vasculature
Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia most common histological finding

Lead to chILD

Causes
SLE
Systemic sclerosis
Dermatomyositis/polymyositis
Sjogrens syndrome

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41
Q

Ix for chILD

A

Pulse oximetry

Lung function (restrictive pattern, decr lung compliance and lung volumes)

  • spirometry
  • plethysmography
  • DLCO
  • Exercise testing

HRCT (findings depending on underlying cause of ChILD)

Genetic testing

Bronchoalveolar lavage (findings depending on underlying cause of ChILD)

Lung biopsy (gold standard)

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42
Q

Management of chILD

A

Supportive tx
Nutritional support
Immunisations
Lung PT, exercise programs
Avoid smoke exposure
Family support, education

+/- O2 support
+/- If pulm HTN -> sildenafil
+/- steroids for certain conditions
+/- steroid sparing agents /immunomodulators
+/- other specific tx
+/- lung transplant

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43
Q

What cells produce surfactant, when does this occur in-utero?

What does surfactant do?

A

Type II alveolar epithelial cells around 20-24 weeks, produce surfactant around 30 weeks gestation

Decr surface tension of the alveolar, facilitating expansion/keeping them patent.

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44
Q

Tracheomalacia

DEfinition

Sx

A

Absence/deficiency/malformation or softness or tracheal cartilage
Congenital/acquired, primary or secondary types
Sx
- intrathoracic compression = collapse on exp -> retained lower airway secretions, wheeze
- extrathoracic -> collapse on inspiration -> chronic brassy barking or seal-like cough, stridor
- Resp distress

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45
Q

Tracheo-oesohageal fisutla

what is it
how common is vacterl assoc

what are the diff types and which is most common?
complications

A

Defective separation of developing trachea from developing oesophagus

50% have VACTERL assoc

type C is most common ~ 85%

Complications

  • tracheomalacia at level of fistula
  • TOF-cough
  • GORD, dysphagia
  • Recurrent aspiration
  • associated anomalies (laryngeal cleft, other fistulas_
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46
Q

Vascular rings
What is most common type?
Sx
Which syndrome is associated?

A

Most commonly double aortic arch completely encircles trachea and oesophagus, causing compression

Sx - stridor, resp distress, cough/wheeze, frequent infection, feeding difficulties/dysophagia/vomiting

Associated anomalies (often cardiac such as ASD, syndromes such as De George)

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47
Q

Congenital pulmonary airway malformations (CPAM)

What is it
What is it caused by

Where is the blood supply from

Clinical features

Mx

Cx

A

Multicystic masses of segmental lung tissue with abnormal bronchial proliferation. Non-functioning.

Due to abnormalities of branching morphogenesis of lung.

Blood supply is from pulmonary circulation

Clinical features

  • Can be detected antenatally (ultrasound) with pressure effects with hydrops foetalis, mediastinal shift, pleural effusions, polyhydramnios
  • present with neonatal distress
  • can be asymptomatic (carries small risk of malignany)

Cx

  • Cancer risk (Pleuropulmonary blastoma (PPB))- particularly common in type 4 CPAM
  • Infection
  • Pneumothorax
  • Compression of mediastinal structures/mass effect -> resp distress

Mx - depends on sx or malignancy risk but often would be surgical excision

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48
Q

Pulmonary sequestration

What is it

Where is the blood supply from?

How is it classified

Mx

A

=’accessory lung’

Non functioning mass of lung tissue that doesn’t contribute to gas exchange (not communicating with normal tracheobronchial tree)

Predominantly affecting lower lobes (LLL 60% > RLL 40%)
Blood supply from systemic circulation

Classified based on pleural covering

  • Intralobar (75%) - does not have its own pleura
  • Extra lobar - has own pleura separating it from rest of lung; more commonly assoc w other congenital malformations (CDH most common, CPAM 15-20%, bronchogenic cysts, CHD)

​Presentation

  • in newborns as respiratory distress, cyanosis, or infection
  • later in life with r_ecurrent pulmonary infections_ , persistant cough, exercise intolerance
  • If large can present as CCF due to R -> L shunting
  • Occasionally p/w pulm haemmhorage

Mx - surgical excision

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49
Q

Congenital lobar overinflation

What is it
Which areas of lung does it most commonly affect
Clinical presentation
Associations (1x)

A

Hyperinflation of 1 or more lobes, can cause compression of adj lung and mediastinal structures

Most often affects LUL followed by RUL

Presents postnatally with resp distress in neonatal period to first 6mo
Possible wheeze, decr breath sounds, mediastinal shift, hyper resonant percussion note
Assoc w cardiac disease (VSD, PDA, TOF) -> screening echo

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50
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

What is it
Presentation
Mx

A

Defect within the diaphragm where it doesn’t have an associated membranous sac so the abdominal contents can herniate into thorax, inhibiting lung development

Affects left side > right side (liver protective)

Scaphoid abdomen, funnel shaped chest
Contralateral deviation of trachea and mediastinum +/- collapse of contralateral lung
Resp distress

Stabilise baby
Surgical mx

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51
Q

Diaphragmatic eventration

What is it
Causes

Diagnosis
Mx

A

Abnormal elevation of all or part of diaphragmatic dome
(congenital - incomplete development of the muscular portion of the diaphragm or innervation)

Acquired (more common) - phrenic nerve injury from instrumental delivery, insertion of intercostal catheters or from cardiac surgery

Diagnosed by USS -> paradoxical movement of diaphragm

Mx - conservative. Only surgical mx if severe resp distress

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52
Q

Pectus Excavatum

What is it
How does it present
Mx

A

Depression of sternum and anterior chest
- due to defect in sternal cartilage OR overgrowth of costal cartilage of ribs
60% cases assoc with shallow chest

Presentation - generally asymptomatic. ?reduced exercise tolerance. Cosmetic concerns.

Mx - Conservative. Surgical for cosmetic concerns but is a big surgery!

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53
Q

Effects of scoliosis on respiration

Management options

A

Respiratory effects = restrictive lung disease

  • Rigid thoracic cage not allowing full expansion
  • Decr insp muscle strength
  • Reduced lung growth

Mx

  • Bracing
  • Spinal implants/distraction devices (rods allowing for growth)
  • Spinal fusion (for severe scoliosis in adolescents)
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54
Q

Pre op assessment prior to scoliosis surgery

A

Lung function (FVC)
Sleep study
Multidisciplinary clinic to optimise other issues (aspiration, constipation, medication rationalisation)
Establishment of pre-operative resp support (Bipap)

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55
Q

REM sleep

A

rapid eye movement
slow muscle tone
dulled airway reflex
irregular brathing and decr tidal volume
dreaming

More REM sleep in 2nd half of the night (more NREM, or lighter sleep, in the first 1/2 of the night)

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56
Q

What is sleep disordered breathing

A

Continuum from primary snoring (sleep study) to severe obstructive apnoea (OSA can be clinical diagnosis but severity stratification requires sleep study)

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57
Q

OSA

  • Definition
  • Causes
  • Diagnosis
  • Mx
A

Recurrent oropharyngeal upper airway collapse during sleep leading to multiple cycles of hypoxic episodes followed by blood reoxygenation. Often worse in REM sleep (reduced muscle tone)

Causes

  • Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
  • Chronic rhinitis/hayfever
  • Laryngomalacia (<1)
  • Obesity
  • Anatomical
  • Syndromes (T21, PWS, BWS, Pierre-Robin)
  • Abnormal muscular tone (CP, hypotonia, muscular dystrophy)
  • Mucopolysaccharoidosis, Achondroplasia
  • *Diagnosis via**
  • Overnight oximetry (good PPV, but poor NPV) -> look for clusters of desaturations assoc w rise in HR
  • Polysomnography (sleep study)
  • *Mx in children**
  • *Mild**
  • IN steroids (nasonex)
  • Weight/allergy mx
  • Positional
  • Watchful waiting (CHAT study)
  • Adenotonsillectomy if medical tx not successful
  • *Severe**
  • Adenotonsillectomy
  • Turbinectomy, septoplasty, other jaw distracting surgeries
  • CPAP
  • Rarely tracheostomy
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58
Q

Indications for PSG in neonates

A

Periodic desats during sleep
ALTE w history of SDB
Sydromes w compromised airway
Quantification of impact of upper airway lesions (laryngomalacia)
Assess for residual OSA post-op if clinical concern
?Congenital hypoventilation syndrome

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59
Q

CPAP vs BIPAP

A

Continuous/constant raised pressure applied to airway
Pneumatic splint to upper airway
- maintains airway potency, prevents collapse and reduces insp work of breathing

BiPap

  • application of 2 different pressures for inspiration (assists ventilation) and expiration (maintains airway patency)
  • re-expands collapsed/poorly ventilated alveoli, decr WOB
  • improves O2, decr CO2
  • resets chemoreceptors
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60
Q

Nocturnal hypoventilation

Presentation
Risk factors

A

Children with NM disease are at risk (muscular dystrophies most at risk - peripheral >central neurological abnormalities)

IDENTIFIED VIA

  • daytime hypercapnia
  • nocturnal desaturation

Cx of Restrictive lung dsiease in patients w NM disease - reduced FVC

Starts with REM disordered breathing, then progresses to NREM and REM disordered breathing

Mx w BiPAP -> reduces morbidly, mortality

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61
Q

Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome

What is it
Genetic mutaiton involved
Presentation
Associated conditions
Mx

A

Cannot produce ventilatory response to hypercapnia. response to hypoxia is variable.

Rare autosomal dominant condition of primary alveolar hypoventilation (mutation PHOX2B gene at 4p12)
- all subjects heterozygous for a mutation

Typical presentation is

  • in infancy with hypoventilation during sleep but normal when awake.
  • NREM worse than REM.
  • P/W Protracted RTIs and unable to be weaned from ventilator.
  • Severe forms hypoventilate awake and asleep.
  • Also incr risk during exercise as well.

Assoc - hirshsprungs, tumours of neural crest cell origin, arrhythmias etc

Mx - lifelong

  • tracheostomy/IPV
  • NIV
  • Phrenic nerve/diaphragmatic pacing for severe forms

Monitoring

  • 72 hr holter monitor
  • echo
  • formal neurocog assessment
  • barium enema or rectal bx for those w hx constipation
  • imaging/annual review for monitoring of neural crest tumours
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62
Q

What is minute volume?

A

Same as minute ventilation
TV x RR
Volume of gas inhaled (inhaled minute volume) or exhaled (exhaled minute volume) from a person’s lungs in one minute

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63
Q

Dead space
Anatomical
vs pathological
vs physiological

A

Anatomical dead space – air required to fill conducting airways not involved in gas exchange
i. Usually about 150ml

Pathological dead space – air not involved in gas exchange due to pathology

Physiological dead space = Anatomical + Pathological
i. Volume of gas that does NOT eliminate CO2

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64
Q

Alveolar ventilation

  • definition
  • formula
  • how does this relate to CO2 concentration
A

= (TV – physiological dead space) x RR

Volume of atmospheric air entering alveoli

Concentration of CO2 in alveolar gas and arterial blood is INVERSELY related to the alveolar ventilation

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65
Q

Round pneumonia

  • most common age group
  • most common pathogen
  • pathogenesis
A

Strep pneumonia

Age 5 most common (<8 majority)

Pathogenesis

  • Inter-alveolar communication and collateral airways (pores of Kohn and canals of Lambert) develop as children age and allow air-drift between the parenchymal subsegments
  • In adults, these allow lateral dissemination of infection throughout a lobe, leading to lobar pneumonia
  • In children, where these have not developed, the limited spread of infection results in round pneumonia
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66
Q

Definition of pneumonia

What is complicated pneumonia?

Aetiology

A

CLINICAL diagnosis when there a signs of a lower respiratory tract infection + wheeze excluded
i. Presence of persistent or repetitive fever, cough and tachypnoea at rest

‘Complicated’ pneumonia = parapneumonic effusion, empyema, lung abscess or necrotising

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67
Q

What pathogens are associated with the following types of pneumonia?

  1. Lobar
  2. Bronchopneumonia
  3. Necrotising
  4. Caseating
  5. Interstitial and peribronchiolar
  6. HAP
  7. Immunocompromised
  8. Aspiration
A
  1. Lobar pneumonia = S. pneumoniae pneumonia.
  2. Bronchopneumonia = primary involvement of airways and surrounding interstitium -> Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia.
  3. Necrotizing pneumonia = associated with aspiration pneumonia and pneumonia resulting from S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes, and S. aureus)
  4. Caseating granuloma = tuberculosis
  5. Interstitial and peribronchiolar with secondary parenchymal infiltration – typically occurs when a severe viral pneumonia is complicated by bacterial pneumonia
  6. Hospital acquired: GNR (​Klebsiella pneumoniae, E.coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa), S. aureus
    * *(MRSA)**
  7. Immunocompromised pneumonia:
    * *Klebsiella, Pneumoncystis jiroveci, M. tuberculosis, aspergillosis**
  8. Aspiration pneumonia: Klebsiella, E.coli, S. aureus, gastric bacteria
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68
Q

Tx of pneumonia

Mild-mod

Severe

Progression desipite empirical abx

A

Admission is required for oxygenation, fluid therapy or moderate to severe work of breathing

Administer oxygen to maintain O2 saturations >92%

If giving NG or IV fluids limit to half or 2/3 maintenance

Antibiotics

  1. Non-severe pneumonia
    - Amoxicillin 30 mg/kg TDS
    - IV benpen 60 mg/g Q6H – if unable to tolerate oral intake/vomiting
  2. Severe pneumonia
    - IV ceftriaxone + flucloxacillin
    - Consider IV vancomycin if MRSA suspected
  3. Consider IV azithromycin if pneumonia progressing despite antimicrobial therapy (?atypical)
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69
Q

Indications for IV vanc in pneumonia

A

Concurrent skin infection due to MRSA

Indigenous or Torres Strait Islander

Necrotising pneumonia

Previous MRSA colonization)

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70
Q

How does Osteltamivir work?
When is this indicated?

A
  • Neuraminidase inhibitor
  • Blocks the function of viral neuraminidases of the influenza virus, by preventing its reproduction by budding from the host cell
  • Consider for patients w complicated disease thought to be related to influenza or patients at high risk of complications (CHD, resp disease, immunosuppression)
  • Use within 48 hrs of sx
  • shortens duration of sx
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71
Q

Features of severe pneuonia

A

>/= 2 of
- severe resp distress
- severe hypoxaemia or cyanosis
- marked tachycardia
- altered mental state
OR empyema

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72
Q

Pleural fluid analysis, findings of empyema

  • pH
  • glucose
  • LDH
  • Protein
  • serum protein ratio
A
  1. pH <7.0
  2. Glucose <40 mg/DL
  3. LDH >1000 IU
  4. Protein level > 3.0 g/dL
  5. Pleural fluid: serum protein ratio >0.5
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73
Q

Features of adenovirus infection

A

Can be asymptomatic

Acute respiratory distress = bronchiolitis, pneumonia
o May have features typical of bacterial disease (lobular infiltrates, high fever, parapneumonic effusions)
o Pharyngitis, coryza, sore throat, fever

Follicular conjunctivitis
o Pharyngoconjunctival fever = high temperature, pharyngitis, non-purulent conjunctivitis, lymphadenopathy

Gastrointestinal infection = diarrhoea, usually self-limiting

Haemorrhagic cystitis

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74
Q

Penicillin susceptibility iV vs oral
MIC (intermidiate)

A

IV
Sens – MIC <2; intermidiate 2-4 mcg/mL
NOTE use ceftriaxone if intermediate sensitivities

Oral
Sensitive if MIC <0.05; intermediate 0.05-1

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75
Q

Natural history of Tb in children vs adults (risk of progression to Tb disease)
- why do we treat latent disease in children?

A

Tb exposure -> 70-90% no infection vs 10-30% become infected

  • Of those infected, in 90% Tb will remain dormant (not infectious, never develop Tb) vs 10% will develop active tb at some stage

NOTE the rate of Tb disease in children infected is INCREASED in younger children compared w adults
- This is why we treat latent infection in children (also because young children are at higher risk of extra-pull disease and have more years to potentially develop TB disease)

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76
Q

TB definitions:

Latent Tb infection

Tb disease

Uninfected

A

Latent - Asymptomatic but positive TST and normal CXR

Tb disease - Positive TST, symptomatic and/or abnormal CXR or with ACB or MTB cultured

Uninfected, TST negative and clinically well

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77
Q

hypersensitivity in children w Tb

  • what type of HS?
  • when does it occur
  • how does it present
A

Type 4 HS

Occurs 3–8 wk after primary infection and may be heralded by (or may be asymptomatic):

  • prolonged (‘Wallgren’s) fever
  • formation of a visible primary complex on chest radiograph (CXR)
  • hypersensitivity reactions such as erythema nodosum and tuberculin skin test (TST) conversion.
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78
Q

Inferferon I Release Assays in Tb

How do these work

Examples of such assays (2)

Advantages and disadvantages

Indications for IRA

A

Test for 2 or 3 Ag only:
ESAT-6, CFP10, TB7.7

  1. Quantiferon gold assay
    - T cells from individuals infected w Tb become sensitised to ESAT-6 or CFP-10 Antigens
    - When T cells encounter these Ag in vitro, they release cytokine IFN-gamma
    - Assay measures the amount of IFN-gamma released
  2. T-spot Tb

Positives

  • Unaffected by BCG vaccine
  • Unaffected by non-Tb mycobacteria (highly specific)
  • Only one patient visit
  • Simple yes/no - less subjectivity in terms of measuring
  • not affected by ‘booster’

Disadvantages

  • Expensive
  • Requires blood test
  • Technically more difficult than skin prick

Indications

  • If family cannot return for TST reading
  • If TST boosting likely to occur
  • Taking blood for other reasons
  • TST is borderline in lower risk ppl
  • TST positive but past BCG vaccination
  • If increased sensitivity required
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79
Q

Diagnosis of M Tb

A

Sx + CXR evidence + TST or IRA
Specimen
- sputum (limited in children as unable to expectorate, swallow sputum instead)
- gastric washings (NG)
- BAL
- Other tissue (LN, CSF, urine etc)

Stain - Zeil Neilson for AFB
Culture takes 6-8 weeks
PCR

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80
Q

Tb treatment regime

A
  1. Isoniazid
  2. Rifampicin
  3. Ryrazinmide
  4. Ethambutol (SE = optic neuritis -> eye check prior to starting this)

Generally well tolerated in kids w minimal SE

Use just Isoniazid for 6mo for latent Tb w post TST OR 6-12 weeks if recent exposure but Neg TST

Pulmonary Tb disease
- just 3 of the drugs for 6 months + contact tracing +/ pred if any bronchial obstruction

Military and extra-pulmonary Tb (spread via lymphatics/blood)

  • 3 drugs for 2 mo then Isoniazid/rifampicin for 10 mo (total 12 mo)
  • contact tracing
  • Pred if Tb meningitis

Isolation until smear negative if disease present

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81
Q

Bronchogenic cyst

What is it
Where is it found
PResentation

Cx
CXR features

Tx

A
  • Congenital malformations of the bronchial tree
  • Arise from anomalous budding of the foregut during development (cannalicular stage, usually days 30-40)
  • Most common = middle mediastinal

Presentation
o Typically present during the second decade of life with recurrent coughing, wheezing (which may simulate asthma), and pneumonia
o Newborns with rapidly enlarging central cysts can develop respiratory distress, cyanosis, and feeding difficulty (mass effect/compression)

CXR features
• Usually fluid filled (lined with ciliated epithelium, produces mucous) -> may have air fluid levels
• Usually appear as paratracheal soft-tissue density rounded structures

Cx

  • Superinfection
  • Haemmhorage
  • Rapid grow in size
  • Rare malignant transformation

Tx

  • Some authors advocate surgical excision of all cysts given their tendency to become infected or rarely, to undergo malignant transformatio
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82
Q

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PJP)

RFs
Presentation
CXR features
Tx

A

RFs

  • HIV infection (low CD4 cell count)
  • post-transplant
  • cancer (especially haematologic)
  • Immunosuppressive medications (incl chemo, steroids)

Presentation - fever + dry cough (can be asymptomatic in pts w HIV)

CXR - bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates

Tx - Cotrimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole)

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83
Q

What is the normal pulmonary circulation MAP?

what is pulm HTN defined as?

A

Pulmonary circulation MAP10mmHg

Pulm HTN > 25mmHg

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84
Q

What do your central and peripheral chemoreceptors respond to and where are they located?

A

Central chemoreceptors

i. Situated on ventral surface of medulla, surrounded by CSF
ii. Respond to CSF [H+]
iii. CSF [H+] is a reflection of CO2 in cerebral capillaries
iv. ↑ PaCO2 → ↑ CSF [H+] → ↑ ventilation
v. Do NOT respond to PaO2

Peripheral chemoreceptors

i. Situated in carotid bodies at bifurcation of common carotid arteries in neck, and aortic bodies around arch of aorta
ii. Rapid response
iii. Respond to ↓ PaO2, ↓ pH, ↑ PaCO2 → ↑ ventilation

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85
Q

VQ
ratio
What is the normal value?

VQmismatch

A

The ratio of ventilation (V) and perfusion (Q) in any lung unit
Normal = 0.8 (higher in upper portions of lung and lower at base)
- This is due to gravity reducing blood flow (perfusion) to lung areas above the heart

ii. In pathological conditions, blood flow or ventilation can be impaired resulting in mismatch
- Pneumonia, asthma, pulmonary oedema -> blocked airways/alveoli -> reduce ventilation -> reduce V/Q ratio (0=shunt)
- PE -> blocks blood vessels -> reduced perfusion -> incr V/Q (infinity = deadspace)

iii. In hypoxic conditions, pulmonary arteries constrict (opposite to systemic) and redirect to other alveoli to reduce perfusion
iv. In hypoxia, airways bronchodilate to increase ventilation

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86
Q

A-a gradient

How does fiO2 affect Aa gradient?

A
  • The alveolar to arterial (A– oxygen gradient is a common measure of oxygenation (“A” denotes alveolar and “a” denotes arterial oxygenation)
  • It is the difference between the amount of the oxygen in the alveoli (ie, the alveolar oxygen tension [PAO2]) and the amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma (PaO2)

A-a oxygen gradient = PAO2 - PaO2

Higher fiO2 -> incr A-a gradient

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87
Q

Bacterial tracheitis

A

invasive soft tissue infection of bronchi
bacterial - staph aureus
preceding viral illness common
common <6yo
TOXIC presentation
essentially a ‘bacterial croup’

Complex airway - may need airway support.
IV vancomycin + cef
neb adrenaline for stridor

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88
Q

mechanism of ventolin

why do you get a paradoxical worsening

A

beta2 agonist - bronchodilator

initial hypoxaemia due to bronchospasm

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89
Q

signs of ventolin toxicity

A

tachycardia, tachypnoea and metabolic acidosis

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90
Q

Diagnosis of narcolepsy

Features

A

multiple sleep latency test (following normal sleep study)

Ft

  • Sleepiness
  • Cataplexy (sudden involuntary muscle weakness/’drop attacks’)
  • Hallucinations before and for sleep
  • Sleep paralysis
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91
Q

How might CF present/be picked up?

A

Majority picked up on NST
GI
- Mec ileus in ~15%
- DIOS
- adhesive small bowel obstruction
- GORD (often need fundoplication)

Respiratory: chronic productive cough, bronchiectasis, bronchitis, nasal polyps and sinusitis

Pancreatic insufficiency w fat soluble vitamin malabsorption and FTT
Pancreatitis
Dehydration w hyponatraemia
Infertility

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92
Q

where is the CFTR gene located

what is the mutation?

A

Large arm (q arm) of chromosome 7

Point mutation - Is a deletion (D) of Phenylalanine (‘F’)

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93
Q

CF gene mutation classes

A

Class (1-4 most common in caucasian populations; 1-3 are severe, 4-6 are milder forms)
1. No protein/defective protein synthesis (G542X, 2nd most common)
2. No traffic: misfolded protein -> not trafficked to cell surface (delta508del, most common)
3. No function: channel doesn’t open/gating defect (G551D, 3rd most common)
4-6. Some protein reaches the surface but
4 - less function (less Cl can move through channel due to structural problem)
5 - less protein produced
6 - less stable -> quick turnover of protein

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94
Q

G551D

A

Class 3 CF mutation

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95
Q

DF 508 del

A

Class 2 CFTR mutation

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96
Q

G542X

A

Class I CFTR mutation

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97
Q

NST/screening for CF

A

Immune reactive trypsin test (IRT HIGH)
- if result in highest 1% of population, child goes on to have genetic testing for 3 CF genes (also can be done on the guthrie card)

If both positive, referral to local paed for

  • repeat genetics
  • sweat test (CF is Na >60)
  • stool sample (elastase low, chymotrypsin absent, and high fat content)
  • genetics for parents
98
Q

what is a positive/diagnostic sweat test result for CF

what is the detection rate for CF?

A

Na and Cl both high!

Cl > 60mmol/L
Na >60mmol/L (<40 NOT CF)
sweat weight >75mg

94% detection rate

99
Q

Conditions which give you false positive result on sweat Cl

A

Adrenal insufficiency
Hypothyroid or parathyroidism
Glycogen storage disorders
MPS
G6PD deficiency
DI
Klinefelters

100
Q

Conditions which give you false neg result on sweat Cl

A

Malnutrition
Skin oedema
Mileralocorticoid use

101
Q

NST picks up what % of CF cases?

A

95% of cases (5% missed)

102
Q

Can CF NST pick up carriers?

A

Yes

103
Q

Management of CF

A
Staph prophylaxis for at least first 2 years to prevent staph colonisation 
Treat infx (Abx according to bugs isolated on sputum in past)
Airway clearance (PT, mannitol, hypertonic saline nebs, pulmozyme, DNaze)
104
Q

Infectious bacteria and Abx for infections/exacrebations in bronchiectasis

A

Staph aureus
> PO fluclox or augmentin or IV

PSA
-> first isolation of PSA: IV tobra + ceftaz/mero or PO cipro and tobramycin neb as eradication trial
-> chronic PSA: Tobramycin alt months
Reduce inflammation - azithromycin

Burkholderia cepacia (also poor prognostic indicator) 
- first isolation try for IV eradication: meropenem, temocillin and bactrim

Stenotrophomonas (unclear clinical significant but treat if symptomatic)

  • bactrim, doxy
  • IV tazocin, mero, ceftaz

Non-tb mycobacteria (NTM)

  • M avid complex
  • M abscessus complex
  • other species
  • treat if smear positive and symptomatic (x2 positive samples)
  • need to be confident NTM disease is present (not as non-clinically significant commensal) as tx course if long(12-15 mo after first neg culture) and toxic
105
Q

Fungal aetiology of exacerbations and treatment of these in CF

A
  • candida albicans 75-90%: nil stat in mouth or fluconazole if in BAL
  • aspergiillus fumigates 40-60% itcraconazole
  • scedosporium apiosperum: can be commensal. treat w voriconazole or posaconazole if symptomatic as can cause allergic pulmonary mycosis
106
Q

CF carrier rate and incidncece rate in developed world

A

carrier 1 in 25 in developed world
incidence 1 in 2500

107
Q

Presentation and diagnosis of CF related diabetes

A

More common in girls >10yo
Often assoc w drop in FEV1 and LOW in absence of resp exacerbation
Diagnosis on OGTT

108
Q

At what FEV1 cutoff would you refer a CF patient for lung transplant

A

FEV1 <30%

109
Q

adjustments made to creon based on the ____ content of meals

A

fat

110
Q

What fat soluble vitamin deficiency causes neurological sx (ataxia, weakness, poor coordination, decr vibratory sense and bilateral hyporeflexia)?

A

Vitamin E deficiency

111
Q

Clinical utiltily of LFTs

A

Asthma
CF
NM disorders (DMD)
Severe ChILD
Chronic neonatal lung disease

112
Q

Lung volume definitions

Vital capacity

Residual volume

tidal volume

FRC

A

Vital capacity : vol of air expired following maximal inspiratory breath/effort

residual volume: vol of air left in lungs following max insp/exp effort
*never reduced in any paediatric conditions*

Functional residual capacity: amt of air left in lungs following normal in/out breath (vital volume)

tidal volume: normal insp and exp volumes

113
Q

Formula of total lung capacity
can spirometry measure this and why?

A

Vital capacity + residual volume

Cannot be measured by spirometry because cannot measure residual volume

114
Q

Patient factors that affect lung volumes

A

Height
Gender
Ethnicity
Age

115
Q

Spirometry measures

what is considered abnormal in kids?

A
  1. FVC = vital capacity (max amt of expired air after maximum inspiraotyr capacity)
    - > abnormal if <80% predicted
  2. FEV1 (or FEV 0.75)
    - > vol of air expired in 1st (or first 0.75) seconds of expiration
    - > abnormal if <80% predicted

2b. ratio of FEV1/VC values
- > abnormal if <78 ~80 (actual value, not % predicted)

  1. FEF 25-75% - average RATE of flow during middle half of an FVC manoeuvre
    - > marker of disease affecting MEDIUM sized airways (CF, asthma, bronchiolitis)
    - > anything below 67% is abnormal

Anything BELOW 1.64 z- scores of reference (we don’t care about values that are ‘too high’)

116
Q

What type of defect is this?

A

Obstructive

  • PEF reduced
  • FVC may be reduced
  • Inspiratory curve normal
  • Exp curve CONCAVE
117
Q

what is the earliest PFT sign of obstructive lung disease?

A

Reduction in FEF 25-75% is earliest sign
high sensitivity, low specificity

  • sensitive (normal value rules OUT restrictive lung disease) but NOT specific (low result does not mean it is necessarily an obstructive lung disease (hard to interpret if the VC or FVC is abnormal))
118
Q

Restrictive spirometry

A

TLC < 1.64 z score (LOW)

FVC reduced with
Normal to increased FEV1/VC

*note most common cause of low TLC is low effort/poor technique

119
Q

obstructive spirometry values

A

Low FEV1 and FEV1/FVC < 1.64 z score

FVC normal

120
Q

what is this lung defect ?

A

suggestive of Restrictive lung disease
- FVC reduced and flow is higher than expected at a given lung volume

HOWEVER spirometry cannot strictly diagnose restrictive lung disease as cannot measure TLC (RV)

  • normal VC rules out restrictive lung disease
  • need body plesmysthography to measure TLC
121
Q

FVC low
FEV1 low
FEV1/FVC normal

A

Bad technique
Restrictive

122
Q

Low FVC
Normal or incr FEV1
Normal or incr FEV/FVC

A

Restrictive
or poor technique/inadequate effort

123
Q

Low FVC, FEV1, FEV1/FVC

A

Mixed defect
SEVERE obstruction
or obstruction w inadequate effort

(if FEV1/FVC ratio is low, obstruction has to be there)

124
Q

What findings rule out
obstruction vs restriction on spirometry?

A

Normal FEF 25-75% rules out obstruction

Normal FVC rules out restriction

125
Q

FVC nromal
FEV 1 low
FEV1/FVC low

A

Obstructive

126
Q

Normal FVC
Normal FEV1
Low FEV1/FVC

A

Obstruction

OR Dysanaptic growth = unequal growth of lung parenchyma relative to lung airways (seen in preterm and obese children)

127
Q

DLCO
what is this and why do we care?

A

Measures diffusion capacity to CO
Reduction in DLCO is seen in ILD
Helps to distinguish between causes of restrictive lung disease
- DLCO low -> ILD, pneumonitis, scleroderma, miliary tb etc
- DLCO normal -> scoliosis, obesity, chest wall abnormalities or NM disorders

128
Q

Positive bronchodilator response - what is a positive result?

A

If you give 4 puffs of 100mcg salbutamol and repeat spirometry after 15 minutes,

POSITIVE= FEV 1 and/or FVC INCR of >12% and 200ml
from baseline

= airway hyperreactivity/asthma

129
Q

what does this spirometry loop show? ddx?

A

Shows relative flattening of inspiratory loop

= variable (not fixed) EXTRA- thoracic (central or upper) airway obstruction (ex: laryngeal paralysis, vocal cord dysfuncton )

130
Q

what does this show? ddx?

A

relative flattening of exp flow loop compared w insp flow loop

Variable (not fixed) INTRA-thoracic (central or upper) airway obstruction
ddx: tracheomalacia

131
Q

what does this loop show? ddx?

A

flattening of insp and exp flow curves

FIXED central or upper airway obstruction

ddx tracheal stenosis, subglottic stenosis

132
Q

what is the answer?

A

D)
obstruction w positive bronchilator response

133
Q

how do you diagnose restrictive lung disease?

A

Body plethysmography
- need TLC which can’t be diagnosed on spirometry as can’t calculate RV

134
Q

what is the defect?

A

MIXED: definite obstruction and restriction cannot be ruled out without body plethysmography

135
Q

what is the defect?

A

Could either be EARLY obstruction (normal FEV1/FVC but low FEF25-75%) or NORMAL

Negative BD response

136
Q

Presentation of FB

A

<4yo

Often unwitnessed choking/inhalation and may have occurred days or weeks prior to presentation

NORMAL resp exam or CXR doesn’t exclude inhaled FB

Persistent wheeze (may be focal and partially respond to bronchodilators) and/or cough
WOB, stridor, Focal wheeze or decreased breath sounds
\+/- drooling
137
Q

Mx foreign body

A
138
Q

Mx of croup

A
139
Q

Diagnosis?

Sore throat
Fever
Neck pain and stiffness or torticollis
Fullness and redness of posterior pharyngeal wall; may be midline but can be laterally behind tonsil
Dysphagia and drooling

A

Retropharngeal abscess

lateral neck xray - paravertebral soft tissue swelling

140
Q

Diagnosis?

Severe sore throat (often unilateral)
Hot potato/muffled voice
Trismus
Swollen posterior palate and tonsil, with medial displacement of tonsil and deviation of the uvula

A

Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)

Causes

  • Strep pyogenes, staph aureus, HIB, neiseria
  • fusobacterium (anaerobic)

tx

  • clindamycin or third gen cephalosporin (due to incr presence of beta lactamase producing oranisms resistant to penicilins)
  • or amox + metronidazole
141
Q

Diagnosis?

Inadequate Hib immunisation or immunocompromised
High fever and systemically unwell
Muffled voice
Hyperextension of neck
Dysphagia
Pooling of secretions, drooling
Absent cough
Low pitched expiratory stridor or stertor

A

Epiglottitis

142
Q

Diagnosis?

Systemically unwell
More severe and rapidly progressive symptoms (stridor etc)
Recent URTI
Markedly tender trachea
Cough may be productive with thick secretions

A

Bacterial tracheitis

143
Q

Most common cause of croup

A

parainfluenza

144
Q

most common causes of bronchiolitis

A

RSV in 80% of cases
Human metapneumovirus
Adenovirus
Influenza
Parainfluenza
Rhinovirus

145
Q

Diagnosis of primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

Screening - nasal NO levels (low, need to be done on 2 separate occasions as can be transiently low w URTIs)

Electron microscopy for cilia cross-sectional structure can be normal in some patients w PCD

Gene panel

146
Q

Inheritance pattern, Sx and Cx of PCD

A

Autosomal-recessive

Disorder of motile cilia characterised by chronic lung disease (bronchiectasis), chronic nasal congestion and sinusitis from first few months of life, recurrent OM -> hearing impairment and subfertility (all men infertile; women variable, incr risk ectopic preg).

Nasal symptoms and respiratory distress usually start soon after birth, and by adulthood bronchiectasis is invariable.

147
Q

Stages of lung development inutero

A

Embyronic

Pseudoglandular (from 4-6wks)

Cannalicular (from 16wk)

Saccular = surfactant (from 24 weeks)

Then alveolar from 36wk

148
Q

In the performance of spirometry in 6 to 12-year-old children, the flow volume curves
should appear similar in configuration on repeat testing.
What is the maximum allowable variation on repeat testing?

A

150ml

149
Q

What condition is most likely to have low lung volumes and a low
DLCO?

A

ILD

150
Q

Inhaled NO

  • what are its uses
  • MOA
  • method of inactivation
  • half life
A

Indications: neonatal pulmonary HTN, airspace disease

MOA: Vasodilation of aerated airspaces via cGMP pathway, NO can redirect blood flow from poorly ventilated areas, atelectatic or diseased lung regions, to better aerated air spaces and improves oxygenation and ventilation perfusion mismatch

Method of inactivation: When it reaches the vascular lumen, NO avidly binds to haemoglobin and is thereby inactivated

Half-life of 2-6 seconds.

151
Q

Components of pulmonary surfactant

A

70-80% Phosphatylcholines (type of phospholipid)
10% Surfactant protein A
10% Neutral lipids

152
Q

Ddx biphasic stridor

A

FIXED obstruction/lesion needs to be at level of vocal cords or glottis

  • Laryngeal web or laryngeal mass
  • Subglottic haemangioma or subglottic stenosis
  • B/L vocal cord paralysis (assoc w FTT, feeding difficulties)
  • Other vocal cord lesion
153
Q

Stertor
vs stridor

A

stertor - UPPER airway noise - noises produced nasal cavities, pharynx, tonsil

stridor
- middle airway noise (supra glottis, glottis, sub glottis)

154
Q

Ddx inspiratory stridor

A

Obstruction at level of glottis/supra glottic/sub glottis

  • Laryngomalacia
  • Subglottic stenosis
  • Other subglottic pathology (FB etc)
155
Q

Ddx expiratory stridor/wheeze

A

Obstruction at level BELOW subglottis ie trachea or below

  • tracheomalacia
  • lower tracheal or bronchial foreign body
  • vascular ring
156
Q

Commonest cause of stridor in neonatal age group (birth - 3mo)

A
  1. Laryngomalacia
  2. Bilateral vocal cord palsy
  3. Sub glottic stenosis

then can have choanal atresia, subglottic haemangioma etc

157
Q

Common causes of stridor in 18mo + group

A

Foreign body
Tracheomalacia
Acquired subglottic stenosis (intubation related etc)

158
Q

What airway pathology is associated with 22q11/di george syndrome?

A

Laryngeal webs - 65% of pts

159
Q

weak or absent cry
biphasic stridor
may be present at birth

What’s the diagnosis?

What syndrome is this assoc with?

A

Laryngeal web

Could also be assoc w di george syndrome

159
Q

Pink on crying, blue on BF in neonate - dx? cause?

What is the bedside test to investigate for this condition?

ix? mx? what is associated?

A

B/L Choanal atresia - bone or membrane at back of nasal passage behind turbinates blocking nasal passage

Caused by failure of recanulisaiton of nasal fossa during development.

Passage of size 6 french feeding tube through both nostrils
CT sinuses is next

60% Assoc w other congenital anomalies (CHARGE syndrome/association)

Mx - if B/L require surgical mx (hole in membrane or stent in bone)

160
Q

laryngomalacia

sx
pathophys
tx

A

most common cause of stridor in neonates

Inspiratory stridor esp when upset
Feeding difficulty, choking
+/- apnoeas, blue spells, O2 requirement
50% have associated severe reflux (Mx w losec)

Pathophys: immature cartilage or neural maturation

Intervene only w aponeas/O2 requirement/FTT (excision of floppy supraglottic areas)

161
Q

Bilateral vocal cord paralysis

sx
causes
mx

A

Sx - inspiratory stridor, feeding difficulty, weak cough, hoarse voice, aspiration risk, dyspnoea

Causes

  • Idiopathic 80% (neonatal age group)
  • Birth trauma
  • Tumour
  • Prolonged intubation

Mx - some neonates improve on their own; 80% need temporary tracheostomy 12-24%

162
Q

Subglottic haemangioma or infantile/capillary

A

NOT present at birth
Onset ~4-16 weeks after birth as lesion grows
My be other associated haemangiomas visible on skin

Sx - recurrent, persistent and/or progressive, inspiratory or biphasic stridor, respiratory distress and feeding difficulties

Mx - propanolol 3mg/kg/day BD minimum 12 months. NOT excision.

163
Q

Congenital haemangioma - percentage of newborns affected, RF
Natural hx
Tx

A

1-3% newborns
RF: LBW, preterm birth weight

Start to proliferate around 4 weeks
Involution from 12 months

Tx - most don’t require treatment. propranolol only if very large or in airway causing obstruction or in eyes or brain

164
Q

Rapidly involuting congenital haemangioma (RICH)

A

rapid onset and rapidly regress within 6 weeks of onset; but can ulcerate and cause transient thrombocytopaniea/coagulopathy.

165
Q

Non-involuting congenital haemangioma (NICH)

A

Involutes in late childhood (ie haemangioma in a 4 year old). DOES NOT respond to propranolol.

166
Q

Inspiratory stridor with FTT/feeding difficulties in child that improves when nursed prone

A

Vallecular or epiglottic cyst (between tongue and epiglottis)

  • presents first 2 weeks of life
  • Thyroglossal duct origin
  • complete excision is required to obtain long lasting cure.
167
Q

Tracheo and bronchomalacia - presentation
ix
tx

A

Excessive tracheal or bronchial collapsivity

Clinical presentation includes early-onset EXP stridor or fixed wheeze, recurrent infections, brassy cough and even near-death attacks, depending on the site and severity of the lesion.

ix - definitive/gold standard diagnosis w flexi bronchoscopy. radiological diagnosis w cxr or CT

168
Q

Most common cause of parotid mass in children 6mo and under

A

Parotid congenital haemangioma
First line ix with doppler USS

169
Q

Laryngeal web

what is it? why/how did it form

presentaiton

mx

A

A rare malformation consisting of a membrane-like structure that extends across the laryngeal lumen close to the level of the vocal cords
Due to incomplete recanulisation of larynx
Mostly seen between the vocal cords and has a concave posterior margin
presentation - airway obstruction (biphasic stridor) weak cry or aphonia from birth

mx - excision

170
Q

Types of stridor and sites of origin

A

Inspiratory - above glottis

Expiratory - below sub glottis (thoracic trachea, bronchi)

Biphasic - glottis, subglottis, cervical trachea

171
Q

Mx of feeding difficulties associated with cleft lip/palate

A
  1. Special cleft palate bottles
    - If this fails then proceed to:
  2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NOT NG tube) - if baby can breath, they can feed
172
Q

Fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss - ddx?

A

FLUCTUATING SNHL = congenital hearing loss assoc w vestibular aqueduct in inner ear (Mondini malformation)

Minimal hearing loss at birth, progressing over first 10 years of life

Assoc w balance disturbance, dizziness

Associations

  • recurrent meningitis (connection to CSF)
  • thalidomide nad rubella embryopathies
  • pendred syndrome (BL SNHL and goitre)
  • CHARGE
  • Digeorge
  • Wildervanck
173
Q

what sort of hearing loss does a cholestatoma give?

A

Usually unilateral conductive hearing loss
mixed only if it goes into inner ear

174
Q

what type of hearing loss is assoc w goldenhar syndrome?

A

Conductive

175
Q

what type of hearing loss is assoc w otitis media w effusion

A

SMALL amt of conductive hearing loss (<50 dB)

176
Q

what type of hearing loss does otosclerosis give you?

A

abnormal fixation of stapes bone
= conductive hearing loss

177
Q

Causes of hearing loss at birth

A

21% connexin 26 deficiency (AR GJB2 mutation )
21% CMV infection
14% Syndromic 14$
30% Other genetic non-syndromic
3% Pendred’s syndrome
Other environmental causes 14%

178
Q

Most common presentation of cholesteatoma

A

Otorrhea

If bad enough, can cause hearing loss, otalgia, hearing loss, facial palsy, dizziness

179
Q

Mx of Otitis media

what about if cx by mastoiditis?

A
  1. Pain assessment and management
  2. Antimicrobials
    Under 2yo: treat w abx for severe infections (risk of abx)

Over 2yo: hold abx for 48 hrs

Abx: amoxicillin

  1. Mastoiditis: IV flucloxacillin plus 3rd generation cephalosporin (risk of intracranial cx)
180
Q

Causative Pathogens for otitis media

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae
  3. Moraxella catarrhalis
  4. Group A streptococcus
181
Q

Environmental RF for otitis media in children

A
  1. daycare outside of the home/exposure to other children (biggest RF!)
  2. low SES
  3. Race
  4. Formula feeding
  5. Exposure to tobacco
182
Q

Peritonsillar abscess/Quinsy

Causes
Age group affected
PResentation
Ix
Mx

A

Causes

  • GAS
  • Staph aureus
  • Haemophilis influenza

Deep-seated infection that spreads secondary to tonsillar infection

Occurs more commonly in young adults

Presentation:
‘hot potato voice’ (muffled),
unilateral throat pain, deviation of uvula, truismus (decr ROM jaw), tortocollis (decr ROM neck), red throat and exudative tonsil, drooling, fever

ix - ultrasound

mx - IV fluids, I&D, analgesia, IV augmentin

183
Q

REtropharyngeal abscess

Cause
Presentation/age affected
Ix
Mx

A

Cause (Secondary to infx elsewhere in head/neck region)

  • group A Streptococcus
  • S. aureus
  • H. influenzae

Sx:
Affects age <= 5years

Neck pain and MASS, limitation of neck movement/ tortocollis,
+ fever, sore throat, rarely respiratory distress (WOB, wheeze/stridor)

ix - xray may show soft tissue swelling posterior to pharynx however CT is much better (look at airway narrowing and distinguish abscess from cellulitis)

mx - IV augmentin

184
Q

Sleep disorder sx in children

A

Anxious
Irritable
Poor concentration
Inattentive
Impulsive

185
Q

physiological changes during sleep

A

Drop in BP and body temp

Decr in muscle tone
Incr in upper airway resistance (2x in REM)
Decr in tidal volume (1/2 in REM)

THUS sleep is like a stress test for your respiratory system
-> any impairment of ventilation when awake will be worse in sleep (including laryngomalacia)

186
Q

Functions of sleep

A
  1. Consolidated learning + pre-req for ongoing learning
  2. Restorative - immune and brain
  3. Hormonal (GH secretion) -> growth
187
Q

Effects of sleep deprivation

A

Blunted hormone response (GH) -> poor sleep
Pro-inflammatory cytokine secretion TNFalpha section -> CV disease and DM
Behavioural changes (similar to ADHD)
Assoc w obesity in MALES ONLY (tired and hungry due to decr leptin and incr ghrelin and decr exertion)
Assoc w increase mortality

188
Q

Stages of sleep

A

NREM

  • N1: transition to light sleep, easily roused
  • N2: light sleep (K complexes and spindles)
  • N3: deep sleep (slow wave sleep = delta waves), very hard to rouse, very regular breathing

REM: dream sleep. more common in 2nd half of night.

  • decr tone
  • rapid eye movements
  • partial paralysis
  • irregular breathing
  • incr upper airway resistance
  • decr tidal volume
  • easily rousible
189
Q

what stage of sleep?

A

N2 (NRem)

190
Q

What stage of sleep?

A

REM
Can see no chin movements (paralysed) and eye movements in opposite directions

191
Q

what percentage of children don’t have any daytime naps by 5 years of age?

A

95%

192
Q

what stage of sleep decreases relative to the others as you age?

A

REM sleep decreases proportionate to NREM sleep

193
Q

Types of behavioural insomnia

A

*problem falling asleep and staying asleep*
Type 1 - sleep association type
Type 2 - limit setting disorder (naughty children)
Type 3 - Mixed

Mx

  • Exclude physiological cause (red flag - if child falls asleep ok but wakes up during night)
  • daytime behaviour/limit problems
  • Sleep hygiene

If behavioural

  • sudden or graduated extinction (controlled crying)
  • fading (move bedtime 15min every 3 nights) with positive bedtime routines (reading etc)
194
Q

Physiologic causes for night waking

A

GORD
Eczema
Asthma
OSA
PLMD

*ADHD*

195
Q

Mx of sleep disturbance in ADHD

A

Behavioural therapy
Melatonin
Atomoxetine instead of stimulants (norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and is believed to work by increasing norepinephrine and dopamine levels in the brain)

196
Q

What is delayed sleep phase

A

Common in adolescents
‘Permanent jet lag’ - going to bed LATE (1, 2am) and getting up late
Promoted by Late homework, TV, texting, internet
Mx - sleep hygiene, advance bedtime by 15mins each 3 night, melatonin as adjuvant

197
Q

Night terror vs nightmare

A

Night terror is a form of Parasomnia

  • Abnormal arousal at end of N3 ie tend to occur same time every night
  • Runs in Families
  • 39% of children
  • Mx: timing wakenings, clonazepam

Nightmare

  • awakening during REM.
  • can recall event in morning.
198
Q

What is rhythmic movement disorder

A

Age group <4years
Occurs just before sleep onset and slightly into stage 1
Head banging 3-6.5%
Is a normal variant in most cases!!
RF: autism, developmental delay

199
Q

Periodic limb movement disorder

  • what is it caused by
  • treatment
A

Part of restless legs spectrum but this occurs only in sleep
Partial iron deficiency in CNS
Treat with iron to keep systemic ferritin > 50 (forcing iron into brain)
-> sometimes need to use injection of IV tx if PO oral doesn’t work

200
Q

Hypersomnia

what is it?
what is the most common cause?

A

Difficulty staying awake in a situation where person would normally be expected to be awake

most common cause is LACK OF SLEEP

  1. OSA
  2. Circadian rhythm
  3. CNS tumours
  4. Psychiatric disorders (depression etc)
  5. Medications (beta blockers, alcohol)
  6. Substance abuse
201
Q

What causes narcolepsy

A

Deficiency of hypocretin 1/orexin (involved in staying awake)

202
Q

Periodic sleepiness ddx for primary hypersomnias

A

Klein levin syndrome (obese patient w periodic sleepiness and hypersexuality)

Menstrual related hypersomnia

203
Q

Constant sleepiness ddx for primary hypersomnias

how to investigate?

A
  1. Narcolepsy
  2. Primary idiopathic hypersomnia with low or normal sleep time (= familial sleepiness)
    1. Symptoms often begin between adolescence and young adulthood and develop over weeks to months.
    2. People with IH have a hard time staying awake and alert during the day (chronic excessive daytime sleepiness, or EDS).
    3. They may fall asleep unintentionally or at inappropriate times, interfering with daily functioning. They may also have difficulty waking up from nighttime sleep or daytime naps.
    4. Sleeping longer at night does not appear to improve daytime sleepiness

ix with multiple sleep latency test
- measure short time for falling asleep (< 8 min) WITH REM during day (abnormal)

204
Q

What type of CNS tumour causes excessive sleepiness

A

hypothalamic tumour

205
Q

Mx narcolepsy

A

Routine - regular good quality sleep
Scheduled naps
Stimulant medication
- methylphenidate or dexamphetamine
- Modafinil if the above fails

+/- Cataplexy (‘drop attacks’ with sleep or laughter)

  • SSRI (fluoxetine) first line
  • venlafaxine
206
Q

Cytokines and inflammatory cells involved in pathophys of asthma (vs nonatopic response)

A

Atopic response: Th2 -> IL4,5 13 -> IgE mediated atopy and eosinophilic inflammation

Non atopic: Th1 -> IL2, IFN gamma -> IgG protection and suppression of atopic Th2 response

207
Q

what does
- multi breath nitrogen washout
- DLCO
measure?

A
  • Multi breath nitrogen washout measures lung volumes (incl residual volume)
  • DLCO measures gas transfer from alveoli into blood (alveolar-capillary unit function) -> reduced in CF, ILD, pulmonary vascular disease (PE, PPHN)
208
Q

Presentation of bronchogenic cyst

A

Asymptomatic at birth, often incidental finding on CXR (mediastinal mass +/- Air fluid level on CXR)
Present when secondarily infected or they enlarge in size and compromise an adjacent airway

Tx: surgical resection

209
Q

What is this cxr of?
what are the features?

A

Bronchiologitis
Features
- Hyperinflation (horizontal ribs, flattened diaphragm)
- patchy atelectasis (often RUL)
- peribronchial thickening

210
Q

Pulmonary sequestration - what is it and what are the two types, presentations and relative prevalences?

A

Pulmonary sequestration, also called accessory lung, refers to the aberrant formation of segmental lung tissue that has no connection with the bronchial tree or pulmonary arteries.

It is a bronchopulmonary foregut malformation (BPFM).

2 types:

  • Intralobar sequestration (ILS)
  • > accounts for the majority (75-85% of all sequestrations 4,5,7)
  • > present later in childhood with recurrent infections
  • > venous drainage via pulm veins to LA
  • Extralobar sequestration (ELS)
  • > Less common (15-25% of all sequestrations 4,5,7)
  • > Usually present in the neonatal period with respiratory distress, cyanosis, or infection
  • > almost always affect LLL however 10% of extralobar sequestrations can be subdiaphragmatic
  • > venous drainage via systemic veins to RA
211
Q

prevalence of asthma

A

10% or 1 in 10

212
Q

Asthma

  • good control
  • vs partial control
  • vs poor control
A
  • good control: daytime sx <=2 days per week, no limitation in activity, no nocturnal sx and need for reliever <= 2 days per week
  • vs partial control: daytime sx > 2 d/week, any limitation in activity, nocturnal sx, need for reliever >2 d/week
  • vs poor control either daytime sx >2 days per week, min-hrs and recurring OR >= 3 ft of partial control within same week
213
Q

Treatment of acute asthma (severe)

A

O2 if spO2 <=90% persistently

Salbumatol via MDI-spacer 1 dose every 20 minutes for an hour then reassess need for ongoing

Ipratropium by MDI/spacer - 1 dose every 20 minutes for 1 hour only

Oral prednisolone (see below)

IV MgSO4

IV aminophilline

Consider ICU admission

If critical

  • needs neb salbutamol, atrovent and IV methylpred in addition to the things above
  • Consider IV salbutamol
  • ICU admission
214
Q

Sodium cromoglycate

  • what is its MOA
  • indication for use
A

Mast cell stabiliser
First line tx for frequent intermittent asthma in the 1-2yo age group (before trialling ICS as second line)

215
Q

What is pseudo-bartter syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemic alkalosis secondary to Na and K loss in SWEAT

Occurs in very unwell children with CF

216
Q

What is the spirometry defect(s) seen in CF?

A

Early on get obstructive picture

Picture becomes more restrictive w disease progression (FVC reduced > FEV1)

217
Q

Causes of bronchiectasis

A

Post-infectious (Severe pneumonia, whooping cough, measles)
Inhaled FB
CF
IgA deficiency IgG subclass deficiency
Primary ciliary dyskinesia

218
Q

what is the defect that causes primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

AR (incomplete penetrance)
Absence of dyne arms on the cilia resulting in absent or defective ciliary action
Affects lungs, nose, ears and sperm ducts

Sx

  • Neonatal respiratory distress, poor feeding, FTT
  • Chronic sinusitis
  • Otitis media (conductive hearing loss)
  • Chronic productive cough +/- wheeze
  • Infertility - poor sperm fertility, ciliary dysfunction in fallopian tubes
  • Can also present with neonatal hydrocephalus (ventricles lined by cilia, important for CSF flow) and retinitis pigmentosa

50% assoc w situs inversus

218
Q

What is the respiratory presentation of alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Emphysema

  • But presents at 30-50 years of age, rarely younger
  • Hyperinflation on CXR
219
Q

What is this condition based on the path shown?
What is the classic triad of features
Causes?

A

Pulmonary haemosiderosis: chronic diffuse alveolar haemorrhage
- brown lung tissue with haemosiderin laden macrophages

Triad

  1. Iron def anaemia (low Hb and haematocrit, low iron; incr relics and bilirubin)
  2. Haemoptysis
  3. CXR: multiple alveolar infiltrates

Causes

  • primary; goodpastures
  • secondary: vasculitis (SLE, Wegeners, HSP), HUS, PPHN
220
Q

Diagnostic pathway of asthma

A
  1. history and exam findings
  2. spirometry (if >= 5yo)
    3a. If spirometry abnormal, do bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) testing
    - > if positive, asthma.
    - > If negative BDR, do FeNO (exhaled nitric oxide) -> if elevated, suggests asthma.
    3b. If spirometry normal, does not exclude asthma. Can go on to do FeNO.
221
Q

Exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test - what is it used to diagnose/what does it indicate?

A

Use in children >= 8yrs

Positive test suggests eosinophilic inflammation

Provides supportive (not conclusive) evidence for asthma diagnosis
-\> high level in asthma, atopy, allergic rhinitis, eczema, eosinophilic bronchitis

-> Normal test does NOT exclude asthma

Can be used to distinguish between poorly controlled (high) vs well controlled asthma (low)

222
Q

Asthma treatment step up approach < 5years

A

Step 1: SABA PRN

Step 2: Regular preventer (Low dose ICS or montelukast) + reliever PRN

Step 3: Low dose ICS + Montelukast + reliever PRN

Step 4: Refer to paed/resp specialise

223
Q

Asthma treatment step up approach > 5years

A

Step 1: SABA PRN

Step 2: Regular preventer (Low dose ICS OR montelukast) + reliever PRN

Step 3:
High dose ICS
OR Low dose ICS + Montelukast
OR ICS/LABA combination (low dose)
+ reliever PRN

Step 4: Refer to paed/resp specialise

224
Q

What asthma inhaler to use in different age groups

A

<4: mask w MDI and small vol spacer
5+: MDI and spacer (no mask!)

225
Q

SE of ICS

A

Small effect on growth
0.7% reduction in adult height

226
Q

LABA use in children

Examples
Age group to use in
principles of use
Why aren’t they commonly used in children?

A

ex: formoterol, salmeterol

Should not be used <=4 years old
Should ALWAYS be used in combination with an ICS (mono therapy is unsafe)
Causes downregulation/reduciton in Beta2 adrenoceptors

227
Q

SMART therapy

A

Symbicort (low dose budesonide-formoterol) combination can be used for both regular BD maintenance use AND as a PRN reliever (instead of salbutamol)

*Note

  • not suitable for Seretide (fluticasone/salmeterol) as not as quick onset
  • not suitable for young children
228
Q

MOA Omalizumab in asthma

A

Binds to free IgE so it can’t bind to IgE receptor

Reduces cell bound IgE and thus get downregulation of number of receptors

Have to be >6yrs, have severe asthma, have very high levels IgE etc

Injection administered q4weekly

229
Q

MOA Mepolizumab and Reslizumab in asthma

A

Bind to IL-5 (monoclonal Ab)

Inhibit proliferation/activation of eosinophils and B cells

230
Q

MOA Benralizumab in asthma

A

monoclonal Ab that Binds IL-5 receptor

prevents activation/proliferation of eosinophils and B cells

231
Q

Bronchoprovocation testing in asthma

  • indication
  • diagnostics
A

Bronchoprovocation testing with either methacholine or histamine is useful when spirometry findings are normal or near normal, especially in patients with intermittent or exercise-induced asthma symptoms. Bronchoprovocation testing helps determine if airway hyperreactivity is present, and a negative test result usually excludes the diagnosis of asthma.

Methacholine is administered in incremental doses up to a maximum dose of 16 mg/mL, and a 20% decrease in FEV1, up to the 4 mg/mL level, is considered a positive test result for the presence of bronchial hyperresponsiveness.

232
Q

What electrolyte/blood gas abnormalities might you see in undiagnosed CF?

A

Hyponatraemia from excessive sweating
Hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

233
Q

What tests is most likely to detect early respiratory failure in neuromuscular disease?

A

Polysomnography

234
Q

is bronchiectasis obstructive or restrictive?

A

obstructive - causes lower airway DILATATION

235
Q

MOA - montelukast

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist

  • blocks the action of leukotriene D4 in the lungs resulting in decreased inflammation and relaxation of smooth muscle.
236
Q

Genetic surfactant deficiency conditions (x3) and inheritance patterns and presentation

A
  1. Surfactant Protein B (SP-B) Deficiency: neonatal onset, AR. resp distress despite surfactant replacement and ventialtion. early death in first few motnhs of life.
  2. ABCA3 deficiency: neonatal or childhood onset, AR. may present at birth, similar to SP-B deficiency, or in older children in whom course of the disease may be milder and more chronic with cough and failure to thrive.
  3. Surfactant Protein C. can present at any age. AD. Variable presentation, from acute respiratory distress to a more slow-onset and chronic lung disease.
237
Q

Parotid swelling ddx

  1. Fever + intraoricular pus when pressure applied to parotid gland =?
  2. Multiple episodes (onset age <5yo) of parotid swelling and/or pain associated with fever or malaise over a period of years (nonobstructive, nonsuppurative) =?
  3. Recurrent episodes swelling and pain worse before/after meals - may present as bacterial infection =?
  4. Recurrent B/L parotidis in children and dry eyes >5yo, fhx autoimmune diosease =? what labs would assist in diagnosis?
  5. list Viral causes
A
  1. Acute suppurative parotitis (staph aureus infx)
  2. Idiopathic recurrent parotiditis
  3. sialolithiasis
  4. Sjogrens. positive antinuclear antibody, SS A, and SS B antibodies; presence of rheumatoid factor; and hypergammaglobulinemia
  5. Viral: Mumps, HIV, CMV
238
Q

Congenital lobar emphysema/overinflation

A
  • Characterized by respiratory distress due to overexpansion of one or more pulmonary lobes of the histologically normal lung without the destruction of alveolar walls with compression of surrounding lung parenchyma
  • The affected lobe is essentially non-functional because of overdistention and air trapping.
  • LUL > RUL and RML > lober lobes

Aetiology

  • 50% idiopathic/unknown
  • Paucity/underdevelopment of cartilage in airways leading to airtrapping

Presentation

  • Almost 50% of the patients are symptomatic at birth and another 50% present within the first six months of life
  • Resp distress, wheezing, retractions, and cyanosis
  • Difficulty in feeding
  • history of chronic cough and recurrent respiratory infections

Ix

  • CXR - overinflation, hyperlucency of affected lobe; may push mediastinal structures over to contralateral side due to mass effect
  • CT is gold standard

Tx

  • Conservative tx if mild-mod sx
  • Lobectomy if severly sx-atic