Resp - DPD Flashcards

1
Q

The Symbicort inhaler consists of which two drugs?

A

Budesonide (steroid)

Formeterol (long-acting beta agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name an anti-muscarinic drug that is used to treat COPD.

A

Tiotropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an important complication of COPD?

A

Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is COPD a risk factor for pneumothorax?

A

COPD leads to the formation of bullae (an air pocket that replaces lung tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List causes of sudden-onset breathlessness (within seconds).

A

PE

Pneumothorax

Foreign body

NOTE: anxiety can also cause sudden-onset breathlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List causes of breathlessness that develops over minutes/hours.

A

Problems with the airways (inflammation/obstruction)

Pus in the interstitium (due to chest infection (e.g. pneumonia))

Fluid in the interstitium (due to acute heart failure)

Blood in the lungs (pulmonary haemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List causes of breathlessness that develops over days/weeks.

A

Interstitial lung disease

Malignancy

Large pleural effusion

Neuromuscular

Anaemia/thyrotoxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is CPAP and what is it used for?

A

Continuous positive airway pressure

It provides positive airway pressure that keeps the airways open

It IMPROVES OXYGENATION

It is used in people with type 1 respiratory failure

E.g. if someone has pulmonary oedema and is not getting better, you may give them CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the management of a primary pneumothorax that is: < 2 cm > 2 cm

A

< 2cm Discharge and repeat CXR

> 2 cm Aspiration If that fails, insert a chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the management of a secondary pneumothorax that is: < 2 cm > 2 cm

A

< 2cm Aspiration

> 2 cm Chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What important feature of the chest drains must the patient be made aware of when they have on put in?

A

There is an underwater seal and it should be bubbling as the air comes out It should be kept below waist height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

State a cause of homogenous white shadowing in the lung field on CXR.

A

Pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

State a cause of reticulo-nodular shadowing on CXR

A

Interstitial lung disease (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

State causes of fluffy white shadowing on CXR.

A

Pus – e.g. pneumonia (left)

Fluid – e.g. pulmonary oedema (right)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first step in the acute management of a patient with PE? What are RBBB and Right Axis Deviation signs of?

A

High flow oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

State three ECG changes that may be seen in a patient with PE.

A
  • S1Q3T3 - sign of acute cor pulmonale
    • google to see what it looks like
    • https://www.healio.com/cardiology/learn-the-heart/ecg-review/ecg-topic-reviews-and-criteria/pulmonary-embolism
  • RBBB
  • Right axis deviation

(all sugest RV strain which could be due to PE)

NOTE: ECG is not diagnostic of PE; normal ECG doesn’t exclude PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you determine axis deviation on an ECG?

A

Look at leads I and II – are either of them overall negative? If either of them is overall negative – there is axis deviation Then look at lead aVL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are RBBB and Right Axis Deviation signs of?

A

Right sided heart strain

19
Q

What is the next step in the acute management of a patient with PE?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (e.g. enoxaparin, tinzaparin, dalteparin)

20
Q

Explain BiPAP.

A

Form of non-invasive ventilation Provides positive pressure outside the lungs at the beginning of inspiration (iPAP) so that air goes into the lungs When the patient expires, the pressure doesn’t drop down to zero, it is maintained at an expiratory positive airway pressure (ePAP) NOTE: if iPAP = ePAP then it is CPAP

21
Q

In what condition is BiPAP used?

A

Respiratory acidosis NOTE: COPD can cause CO2 retention and respiratory acidosis

22
Q

Why is it important to continue LMWH for a few days once warfarin has been started?

A

Because warfarin causes a transient procoagulant phase due to the inhibition of protein C and protein S LMWH needs to be continued for a few days until INR remains within the target range for > 24 hours

23
Q

What are the indications for thrombolysis in a case of PE?

A

Massive PE and blood pressure has dropped (haemodynamic compromise) What is the main diagnostic test for PE? CTPA

24
Q

What important type of medication should patients a pneumothorax requiring a chest drain be put on?

A

Regular analgesia (the chest drain is very painful)

25
Q

What is a bulla?

A

A thin-walled air-filled space within the lung, arising congenitally or in emphysema. It may cause trouble by rupturing into the pleural space causing a pneumothorax.

26
Q

Describe the difference in FEV1/FVC for restrictive and obstructive lung disease.

A

Obstructive: < 70% Restrictive: > 70%

27
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis of reticulo-nodular shadowing on CXR.

A

Idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis Connective tissue disease (e.g. SLE, scleroderma) Drugs (e.g. methotrexate, nitrofurantoin) Asbestosis (ship builder?)

28
Q

Define asbestosis.

A

Pulmonary fibrosis due to asbestos NOTE: the presence of plaques of asbestos does NOT constitute asbestosis

29
Q

How many anterior ribs must be visible to consider the lungs as being hyperinflated?

A

7 ribs

30
Q

What causes hyperinflation of the lungs?

A

COPD

31
Q

Which parts of the lungs does pulmonary TB tend to affect most?

A

Upper lobes

32
Q

What respiratory condition is keeping pigeons a risk factor for?

A

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

33
Q

What features of an X-ray are important to comment on when presenting an X-ray?

A

PA/AP X-ray Name and DOB Date and time Rotation – spinous processes should be equidistant from the two ends of the clavicles Inspiration Penetration

34
Q

What is a classic feature of right middle lobe pneumonia on CXR?

A

You cannot see the right heart border

35
Q

What should you always be able to see behind the heart on CXR?

A

Right hemidiaphragm If you can’t see it then consider collapse and consolidation

36
Q

What does homogenous white shadowing on a CXR indicate?

A

Pleural effusion

37
Q

What does fluffy white shadowing on CXR indicate?

A

Pulmonary oedema

38
Q

What does reticulo-nodular shadowing show on CXR?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis (interstitial lung disease)

39
Q

State two conditions that can cause total white shadowing across an entire lung field.

A

Massive pleural effusion Lung collapse

40
Q

What feature of the CXR would help you differentiate between these causes?

A

Deviation of the trachea Pleural effusion – away from the affected side Collapse – towards the affected side

41
Q

State three causes of a cavitating lung lesion with an air-fluid level.

A

Infection (e.g. TB, Klebsiella) Inflammation (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis) Malignancy (e.g. squamous cell carcinoma)

42
Q

Describe the appearance of a pericardial effusion on CXR.

A

The heart has a globular appearance It will be homogenous white

43
Q

List three causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

A

TB Sarcoidosis Lymphoma