Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 1c > Resp > Flashcards

Resp Flashcards

1
Q

what is hospital acquired pneumonia

A

pneumonia that has occurred 48 hrs after hospital admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

common causes of community acquired pneumonia

A

streptococcus pneumoniae (!)
mycoplasma pneumoniae
haemophilus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

atypical organisms that cause pneumonia

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae
legionella pneumophilia
chlamydia psittaci
chlamydia pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

common causes of hospital acquired pneumonia

A

staphylococcus aureus
pseudomonas aeruginosa
klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

causes of aspiration pneumonia

A

anaerobes from gut flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

risk factors for pneumonia

A

smoking
recent travel
immunocompromised
faulty air conditioning (legionella)
pet birds (chlamydia psittaci)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pneumonia symptoms (typical)

A

fever
SOB
productive cough (yellow/green sputum)
pleuritic chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pneumonia symptoms (atypical)

A

dry cough
headache
diarrhoea
myalgia
hepatitis
confusion (legionella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pneumonia signs (typical)

A

resp distress
cyanosis
reduced chest expansion
dull percussion over areas of consolidation
basal coarse crepitus
bronchial breathing
increased vocal resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pneumonia signs (atypical)

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae
- transverse myelitis
- erythema multiforme
- associated with AIHA

legionella
- hyponatraemia
- abnormal LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

pneumonia investigations

A

sputum MCS
FBC (high WCC)
high CRP
ABG (type 1 resp failure)

pleural fluid MCS via thoracentesis
CXR (consolidation with fluid levels)

atypical:
blood film
urinary antigens
LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what would cxr show for pneumonia

A

lobar pneumonia
- consolidation within one lobe

bronchopneumonia
- consolidation all over the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how is pneumonia severity assessed

A

CURB-65

confusion
urea > 7mmol/L
resp rate > 30
BP <90
age >65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mx of pneumonia

A

depends on CURB-65 score

1 = GP + oral antibiotics
2 = A&E + IV antibiotics
3+ = hospital admission + IV antibiotics + consider ITU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

community acquired pneumonia antibiotics

A

typical:
- amoxicillin
- co-amoxiclav if severe

atypical:
- clarithromycin

typically amoxicillin and clarithromycin are given together if causative organism not yet identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hospital acquired pneumonia antibiotics

A

staph aureus:
- flucloxacillin

MRSA:
- vancomycin

pseudomonas:
- tazocin + gentamicin

anaerobes:
- metronidazole and amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

special considerations when prescribing for pneumonia

A

if pt has penicillin allergy give doxycycline

in HIV pts give co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pneumonia differentials

A

bronchitis
bronchiectasis
lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

complications of pneumonia

A

pleural effusion
sepsis
ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

acute bronchitis typical organisms

A

rhinovirus
parainfluenza
influenza A or B
respiratory syncytial virus
coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

risk factors acute bronchitis

A

smoking
cystic fibrosis
COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

acute bronchitis signs and symptoms

A

non-productive or minimally productive cough
dyspnoea
MILD fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

acute bronchitis investigations

A

diagnosis based on clinical presentation
maybe CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mx in acute bronchitis

A

otherwise healthy pts:
- paracetamol and ibuprofen as required
- hydration

cough persisting > 2 wks:
- inhaled corticosteroids
- inhaled beta 2 agonist may be useful if wheeze
- antitussives if cough interfering with sleep

pts with underlying lung pathology:
- oral abx (7 days of amoxicillin or doxycycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

acute bronchitis differentials

A

asthma
pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

acute bronchitis complications

A

pneumonia
chronic bronchitis
sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pulmonary embolism risk factors

A

cancer, chemo, cardiac failure, COPD, factor c deficiency

trauma, thrombocytosis, travel

stasis, surgery, factor S deficiency

varicose veins, virchow’s triad, factor V Leiden

pill (OCP), pregnancy, previous VTE, polycythaemia, paraprotein deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

signs and symptoms of PE

A

depends on severity

pleuritic chest pain
dyspnoea
collapse if severe
central crushing pain
haemoptysis

CXR can show Westermark’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what would ecg show PE

A

S1Q3T3 pattern
right axis deviation
right bundle branch block
sinus tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PE ix

A

depends on wells score

wells score < 4:
low risk, d-dimer

wells score 4+:
high risk, CTPA (except if pregnant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PE Mx

A

depends on whether pt is haemodynamically stable

stable:
(subacute/ chronic)
- resp support
- anticoagulation
> fondaparinux/heparin for 5 days
> warfarin for 3 months

unstable:
SBP <90
(massive PE)
- resp support
- 1st line: thrombolysis
- 2nd line: embolectomy
IV thrombolytics: alteplase, streptokinase, rt-PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

VTE prevention

A

everyone must be VTE assessed within 24 hrs of hospital admission

compression stockings (TED stockings)
LMWH (eg tinzaparin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

classifying pneumothorax

A

traumatic: damage to parietal pleura
spontaneous: damage to visceral pleura

primary: young and otherwise healthy pt
secondary: pre-existing lung pathology, elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

risk factors pneumothorax

A

male
smoking
Marfan’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pneumothorax Ix

A

CXR
- look for loss of lung markings

FBC, clotting screen
- correct clotting abnormalities before inserting chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pneumothorax Mx

A

primary:
<2cm, no SOB: discharge and OPD review
>2cm or SOB: needle aspirate
- aspiration unsuccessful: chest drain
- aspiration successful: observe + O2

secondary:
<1cm, no SOB: observe + O2
1cm-2cm, no SOB: needle aspirate:
- aspiration unsuccessful: chest drain
- aspiration successful: observe + O2
>2cm or SOB: chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tension pneumothorax signs and symptoms

A

MEDICAL EMERGENCY

lung compression
- severe dyspnoea
- tracheal deviation away from lesion
- silent chest, hyperresonance, reduced expansion

mediastinal shift
- hypotension
- tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mx of tension pneumothorax

A

insert large bore cannula (orange or grey) in 2nd ICS, MCL just above 3rd rib to avoid neurovascular bundle of the 2nd rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is ARDS (+Berlin’s criteria)

A

non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

Berlin’s criteria:
- no alternative cause for pulmonary oedema
- rapid onset < 1 week
- dyspnoea
- bilateral signs on CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Causes of ARDS

A

hypoxaemic acute lung injury:
- sepsis
- pneumonia
- ventilation
- severe burns
- acute pancreatitis
- transfusion reactions
- drug overdose
- COVID-19

body responds with profound inflammatory response
- vascular permeability increased
- alveolar collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ARDS Ix

A

bilateral diffuse opacities on chest x-ray
ABG (type 2 resp failure)
sputum culture
blood culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ARDS Mx

A

refer to ICU
ventilator
intubation
draining effusions
consider proning to improve oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what receptor does SARS-CoV-2 bind to

A

ACE2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

covid symptoms

A

dyspnoea
fever
altered smell and taste
headache
GI disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

covid Ix

A

RT-PCR: +ve for viral DNA
pulse oximetry: low o2 sats
bloods: ABG, FBX, TFTs, glucose, CRP, ESR, cardiac biomarkers, coagulation screen, u+e
CXR,CCT: ground glass opacity, consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

covid Mx

A

mild/moderate: bed rest, paracetamol, ibuprofen, hydration, monitor O2 sats

severe: hospital admission, O2 therapy, VTE prophylaxis, dexamethasone, remdesivir, IL-6 inhibitor, consider ICU for ventilation, JAK inhibitor, ECMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

asthma signs and symptoms

A

SOB, dry cough, chest tightmess
expiratory polyphonic wheeze
work of breathing
nasal polyps

48
Q

asthma risk factors

A

fhx of asthma
fhx or personal history of atopy
GORD can make asthma worse

49
Q

asthma investigations

A

basic obs (should be normal unless asthma attack)
FEV1 reduced
FEV1/FVC < 0.7 with BDR
peak flow diary (>20% variability over 2-4 wks)
FeNO 40+

50
Q

asthma mx

A

learn this

51
Q

COPD risk factors

A

childhood resp disease or infection
malnourishment or poor development
smoking
genetics
resp infections
susceptibility to inflammation
environmental exposures
a1-antitrypsin deficiency

52
Q

copd signs and symptoms

A

dyspnoea, exercise induced, progressive
chronic cough, may be productive
weight loss, fatigue, anorexia can be seen in severe disease
ankle swelling secondary to cor pulmonale
tripod, flared nostrils, accessory muscles
hypercapnia
wheeze
barrel chest
hoovers sign

53
Q

COPD risk factors

A

increasing age
childhood resp disease or infection
malnourishment
smoking
genetics
fhx susceptibility to inflammation, environmental exposures
a1-antitrypsin deficiency

54
Q

COPD investigations

A

gold standard:
- spirometry post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.7 with no BDR

basic obs: low sats
CXR: hyper-expansion, air trapping
FBC: exclude anaemia

55
Q

COPD management

A

1) educate

2) reduce risk factors:
- smoking cessation
- pneumococcal and influenza vaccines
- develop personal COPD plan

3) if breathless with exercise limitation (CAT score):
- SABA or SAMA prn

4) if symptoms continues or has exacerbations:
- reduce risk factors or review adherence

5) asthmatic features (hx of asthma, eosinophils, peak flow variability > 20%):
- no: LABA + LAMA, if no success after 3 month review then add ICS. review after 3 months and if ICS doesn’t help then remove ICS
- yes: LABA + ICS, LABA + LAMA + ICS

56
Q

when to consider long term oxygen therapy for COPD

A

if pt has:

PaO2 < 7.3 when stable

or

PaO2 between 7.3 and 8 kPa when stable with 1+ of:
- secondary polycythaemia
- peripheral oedema
- pulmonary hypertension

also non smoker

57
Q

what is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

lung scarring of an unknown cause

58
Q

risk factors for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

older (>65) males
smoking
Fhx

59
Q

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis signs and symptoms

A

progressive SOB
exertional dyspnoea
dry cough
may have weight loss, fatigue, malaise
slow insidious onset
clubbing (not common)
bi-basal fine end inspiratory crepitations

60
Q

Ix for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

MDT approach

rule out common mimics:
- CXR
- spirometry and gas transfer: (restrictive FEV1:FVC > 0.7 with reduced gas transfer)

rule in pulmonary fibrosis with imaging:
- HRCT to show IPF pattern of fibrosis (bi-basal sub-pleural fibrosis)

rule out any other cause of pulmonary fibrosis:
- i.e other ILDs (exposure history, ANA panel, rheumatoid factor, anti CCP and myositis panel for collagen vascular disease)

bronchoalveolar lavage +/- lung biopsy if MDT aren’t sure

61
Q

IPF management

A

monitoring and assess for treatment:
- baseline, 6mo, 12mo: spirometry and gas transfer, 6 min walking test, SO2, and QoL

specialist care:
- pulmonary rehab
- supportive care - ambulatory or long term o2
antifibrotics: pirfenidone or nintedanib if FVC is between 50-80% predicted
lung transplant

62
Q

typical pt profile for sarcoidosis

A

black woman with cough and skin patch on her shin

63
Q

what is sarcoidosis

A

systemic non-caseating granulomas deposited around the body causing disease. affects lungs and other organs

64
Q

sarcoidosis risk factors

A

infection (eg TB)
FHx
Scandinavian
Afro-Caribbean (esp extrapulmonary)
woman 20-40 yrs

65
Q

sarcoidosis signs and symptoms

A

chronic dry cough
progressive SOB with exertional dyspnoea
disproportionate chronic fatigue
joint pain
skin lesion (lupus pernio and erythema nodosum)
eye problems
wheeze
rhonci

serum biochem - high calcium and ACE
cardiac involvement most common cause of death

66
Q

What is Lofgrens syndrome

A

self resolving pulmonary manifestation of sarcoidosis

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
erythema nodosum
arthralgia
fever

67
Q

staging Lofgrens syndrome

A

stage 1: bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
stage 2: bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy + pulmonary infiltrates
stage 3: pulmonary infiltrates alone
stage 4: extensive fibrosis with distortion

68
Q

sarcoidosis investigations

A

CXR
HCRT
- ground glass (reversible)
- cystic (irreversible)
PFTs: obstructive or restrictive
BAL
lung biopsy
skin biopsy
ECG
urea and creatinine
AST high
high serum calcium and high ACE

69
Q

sarcoidosis management

A

done by specialist
not all need treatment
currently revolves around corticosteroids and later immunosuppressants (azathioprine, methotrexate)

70
Q

sleep apnoea pathology

A

complete or partial collapse of upper airway

71
Q

sleep apnoea risk factors

A

things that make you more overweight or thicken airway soft tissue
-obesity
-Cushing’s
-acromegaly
-menopause

72
Q

sleep apnoea presentation

A

assess risk using STOP-BANG score:

snoring
tired
observed apnoea
pressure (BP)
BMI>35
age>35
neck circumference>40cm
gender - male

scores > 3 should be referred for polysomnography

73
Q

sleep apnoea Ix

A

night time in lab polysomnography
Apnoea Hypopnoea Index is the average number of obstructive events per hour

mild: AHI 5-14
moderate: AHI 15-30
severe: AHI > 30

74
Q

sleep apnoea mx

A

all: address risk factors

mild asymptomatic: intra-oral mandibular advancement device

mild/moderate/severe symptomatic: CPAP

75
Q

occupational lung disease particulates

A

coal, silica, asbestos etc

76
Q

asbestos related lung disease signs and symptoms

A

clubbing
reduced expansion
asbestos wart
bibasal crackles
RHF

77
Q

types of asbestos related diseases

A

asbestos disease - presence of asbestosis with no symptoms or CXR findings

pleural plaques - thick calcified pleura on CXR, restrictive lung disease

asbestosis - lung fibrosis 5-10 yrs after heavy exposure, severe restrictive lung disease, reduced gas transfer, progressive dyspnoea

mesothelioma - pleural effusion, chest pain, SOB, 20-40 yrs after exposure

asbestos related lung cancer - usually 10+ yrs after first exposure

78
Q

asbestos related lung disease investigations

A

hx of exposure and exclusion of other conditions
CXR
restrictive: low FEV1, low FVC, low residual vol
normal or high fev1/FVC
alveolar damage: reduced DLCO
ABG if acute may show hypoxia
HRCT:
- basal diffuse reticulonodular infiltrates
- shaggy heart border
- ground glass and diffuse interstitial fibrosis
lung biopsy

79
Q

asbestos related lung disease Mx

A

no specific mx
compensation available if they apply within 3 yrs of diagnosis
corticosteroids
support groups

80
Q

causes of cavitating lung lesions

A

CAVITY:

Cancer:
- lung cancer (ie squamous cell carcinoma)
- pulmonary metastasis

Autoimmune:
- granulomatosis with polyangiitis
- rheumatoid arthritis (rheumatoid nodules)

Vascular:
- bland and septic pulmonary emboli

Infection:
- abscess
- tuberculosis

Trauma:
- pneumatoceles

Youth:
- congenital pulmonary airway malformation
- pulmonary sequestration
- bronchogenic cyst

81
Q

what is bronchiectasis

A

abnormal irreversible dilation of bronchi and bronchioles

82
Q

causes of bronchiectasis

A

tuberculosis (worldwide)
cystic fibrosis (western world)

83
Q

bronciectasis risk factors

A

post infection
chronic aspiration
immunodeficiency
chronic aspiration
chronic inflammation
chronic airway inflammation
congenital disease eg CF, Youngs, a1-antitrypsin deficiency, Kartagener’s, primary ciliary dyskinesia
underlying chronic lung condition

84
Q

Kartagener’s syndrome/PCD triad

A

bronchiectasis
sinusitis
situs inversus

85
Q

resp causes of clubbing

A

bronchiectasis
ILD
lung cancer
lung abscess
empyema
TB
CF

86
Q

bronchiectasis signs and symptoms

A

chronic daily productive cough >8wks
-large amounts
-mucopurulent (pus) sputum
-foul smelling
-green/yellow if infection, white otherwise

haemoptysis
dyspnoea, SOB
weight loss
non pleuritic chest pain
recurrent resp infections
clubbing
course crackles in lower lung and maybe wheeze

87
Q

bronchiectasis ix

A

basic obs
sputum MCS
FBC, u+e, high crp, lft, abg
x-ray (tram tracking)
HRCT gold standard imaging

tests for underlying cause
sweat test (CF)
genetic test
skin prick/serun IgE (ABPA)
serum immunoglobulin

88
Q

classic bronchiectasis feature on imaging

A

signet ring sign

89
Q

bronchiectasis mx

A

conservative
- exercise, diet
- vaccinations
- smoking cessation
- airway clearance (chest physio, nebulised hypertonic saline, high freq oscillation device)

pharm
- steroids, bronchodilators
- IV ABx in acute exacerbation
- oral ABx
- ciprofloxacin (pseudomonas)

surgery indicated in massive haemoptysis

90
Q

complications of bronchiectasis

A

recurrent infections
cor pulmonale (RHF)
resp failure

91
Q

organism causing TB

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

92
Q

latent TB vs active TB

A

latent TB:
- not transmissible
- TB contained in caseating granulomas

active TB:
- transmissible
- pt requires treatment

10% risk reactivation in immunocompromised or aging

93
Q

TB risk factors

A

HIV
overcrowding
homeless
immunosuppressive meds
sub-sahara africa, india, bangladesh travel

94
Q

signs and symptoms of TB

A

productive cough
dyspnoea/SOB
+haemoptysis (late)
pleural effusion

low grade fever
gradual weight loss
lymphadenopathy
erythema nodosum

95
Q

extrapulmonary TB examples

A

TB can affect any organ

Meningitis
erythema nodosum
clubbing
Pott’s disease
addison’s disease
sterile pyuria
etc

96
Q

active TB Ix

A

basic obs
sputum MCS (x3 samples, one in early morning)
- microscopy (AFB stain > Ziehl-Neelsen) !!!
FBC( high wcc, anaemia)
high CRP
ABG
HIV
Chest x-ray (bi-hilar lymphadenopathy)
lymph node biopsy (caseating granuloma)

97
Q

latent TB ix

A

Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test)
interferon gamma release assay

if either test positive order CXR

98
Q

what would you see on TB CXR

A

consolidation
bi-hilar lymphadenopathy
upper lobe scarring
cavitating lesions
pleural effusions

miliary TB: (nodular shadowing)

99
Q

TB management

A

RIPE

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

R+I = 6mo
P+E = 2mo

100
Q

side effects of TB drugs

A

all cause hepatotoxicity

red/orange secretions
peripheral neuropathy + vit B6 deficiency > give pyridoxine
hyperuricaemia (gout)
optic neuritis (reversible red-green colour blindness)

101
Q

where does lung cancer metastasise to

A

bone
brain
liver

102
Q

lung cancer signs and symptoms

A

cough (dry or productive)
haemoptysis
SOB
FLAWS
bone (bone pain, fractures)
brain (headaches, blurry vision)
liver (hepatomegaly)
lymphadenopathy

clubbing
tar staining
dull percussion
crepitations
increased vocal resonance

103
Q

lung cancer risk factors

A

smoking
asbestos exposure (esp SqCC)

104
Q

lung cancer sub-types

A

small cell lung cancer (15%)

non-small cell lung cancer (85%)
- adenocarcinoma
- squamous cell carcinoma
- large cell carcinoma

105
Q

small cell lung cancer cell type and associations

A

Kulchitsky endocrine cells

SIADH, ectopic ACTH, Lambert-Eaton syndrome
central lung

106
Q

adenocarcinoma cell type and associations

A

goblet cells
peripheral lung
periostitis
clubbing
arthropathy of large joints

107
Q

squamous cell carcinoma cell type and associations

A

squamous epithelial cells
PTHrp
central lung
cavitating

108
Q

large cell carcinoma cell type and associations

A

epithelial cells
peripheral + central lung

109
Q

Pancoast syndrome signs and symptoms

A

Horner’s syndrome
sympathetic trunk (miosis, partial ptosis, anhidrosis)
branchial plexus (shoulder/arm pain, paraesthesia)
recurrent laryngeal nerve (hoarse voice +/- bovine cough)

can cause SVC syndrome if tumour in right lung apex

110
Q

SVC syndrome signs and symptoms

A

+ve Pemberton sign
pooling of blood
oedema
facial flushing

111
Q

lung cancer Ix

A

basic obs
sputum cytology
FBC
calcium (possibly high)
ALP (possibly high)
LFTs (possibly deranged)
CXR
CT chest, abdo, pelvis
PET (staging)
biopsy (TNM staging)

112
Q

Lung cancer CXR findings

A

primary lung cancer:
- consolidations
- bi-hilar lymphadenopathy
- pleural effusion
- cavitating lesion

secondary lung cancer:
- coin shaped lesions (cannonball mets)

113
Q

RF for mesothelioma

A

asbestos exposure (20-50 yrs latency)

114
Q

mesothelioma signs and symptoms

A

dry cough
clubbing
FLAWS
pleural friction rub on auscultation

115
Q

definitive way to diagnose mesothelioma

A

thoracoscopy and histology

116
Q

mesothelioma Ix

A

sputum cytology
pleural fluid cytology via thoracentesis
FBC
calcium
ALP
LFT
CXR
CT chest abdo pelvis
PET scan
pleural lining biopsy

Phase 1c (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions