Research Methods Flashcards

All AS and A2 research methods on the AQA psychology specification are covered as part of this deck

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Significance level most often used in Psychology

A

P<0.05

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2
Q

Determination that the results are significantly strong to reject the null hypothesis

A

Significance

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3
Q

The likelihood that certain events will occur

A

Probability

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4
Q

The value a test statistic must reach in order to consider the result significant

A

Critical value

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5
Q

The value of a statistic that is calculated for a particular data set (outcome of the stats test)

A

Calculated value

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6
Q

(False-positive) occurs if an investigator falsely rejects a null hypothesis that is actually true in the population

A

Type I error

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7
Q

(False-negative) occurs if an investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false in the population

A

Type II error

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8
Q

Decreasing the probability of a type I error increases…

A

the probability of a type II error

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9
Q

How to decrease the likelihood of a Type I error

A

Use a smaller significance level (P<0.01)

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10
Q

How to decrease the likelihood of a Type II error

A

Increase the sample size in the study

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11
Q

Choose the test: Difference, nominal data, Independent Measures

A

Chi Squared (x2)

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12
Q

Choose the test: Difference, at least ordinal data, independent measures

A

Mann Whitney U (U)

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13
Q

Choose the test: difference, interval/ratio data that is normally distributed, Independent measures design

A

Unrelated t-test (R)

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14
Q

Choose the test: difference, nominal data, repeated measures

A

Sign test (S)

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15
Q

Choose the test: difference, at least ordinal data, repeated measures design

A

Wilcoxon t test (T)

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16
Q

Choose the test: difference, internal/ration data that is normally distributed, repeated measures deign

A

Related t-test (R)

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17
Q

Choose the test: Correlation, nominal data

A

Chi Squared (x2)

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18
Q

Choose the test: correlation, at least ordinal data

A

Spearman’s Rho (Rs)

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19
Q

Choose the test: Correlation, interval/ratio data that is normally distributed

A

Pearson’s product moment

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20
Q

Sign test: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or less than

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21
Q

Mann Whitney U: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or less than

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22
Q

Wilcoxon: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or less than

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23
Q

Chi Squared: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or greater than

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24
Q

Unrelated t test: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or greater than

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25
Q

Related t test: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or greater than

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26
Q

Spearman’s Rho: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or greater than

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27
Q

Pearson’s Product moment: should the calculated value be greater than or less than for significance?

A

Equal to or greater than

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28
Q

Which inferential statistic do I have to calculate by hand?

A

Sign test

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29
Q

Qualitative data

A

Expressed in words, in depth-non numerical (thoughts, feelings etc).

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30
Q

Quantitative data

A

Numerical data

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31
Q

Primary data

A

Obtained first hand by the researcher for the purpose of the current study

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32
Q

Secondary Data

A

Information already collected by others or already in existence so pre-dates current project

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33
Q

Meta-analysis

A

Combining the findings from a number of studies on a particular topic for an overall conclusion

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34
Q

Examples of descriptive statistics

A

Central tendency, measures of dispersion, charts and graphs

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35
Q

Measures of central tendency show what

A

The average of a set of data (mean, median or mode)

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36
Q

The mean is..

A

found by adding all scores and dividing by the number of scores - the arithmetic average

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37
Q

The median is..

A

The central/middle value (once all data is in order)

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38
Q

The mode is…

A

The most frequently occurring value

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39
Q

Strength of the mean

A

Most representative as it uses all the data scores

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40
Q

Weakness of the mean

A

Easily distorted by outliers

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41
Q

Strength of the median

A

Unaffected by extreme scores/outliers

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42
Q

Weakness of the median

A

Less sensitive (ignores extreme values that may be important!)

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43
Q

Strength of the mode

A

easy to calculate

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44
Q

Weakness of the mode

A

Crude, not very useful, doesn’t represent all the data, might me more than one!

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45
Q

Measures of dispersion show..

A

The spread of data (range or standard deviation)

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46
Q

The range is

A

overall data spread. Biggest value minus the smallest value

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47
Q

Strength of the range

A

Easy to calcuate

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48
Q

Weakness of the range

A

Doesn’t take into account all data, extreme values only

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49
Q

The standard deviation is

A

a measure of the average deviation from the mean

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50
Q

How do you calculate standard deviation?

A

Step 1: Find the mean.
Step 2: For each data point, find the square of its distance to the mean.
Step 3: Sum the values from Step 2.
Step 4: Divide by the number of data points.
Step 5: Take the square root.

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51
Q

What type of graph should I use to represent the strength and direction of a correlation?

A

Scatter graph/Scattergram

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52
Q

When plotting a scatter gram which co-variable goes on the X axis?

A

It doesn’t matter!

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53
Q

What type of graph represents the frequency of each variable by the height of its spaced columns and is only used with Discrete data?

A

Bar Chart

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54
Q

When plotting a bar chart which variable goes on the X axis?

A

The categories (the IV)

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55
Q

What type of graph displays continuous data and uses the height and width of touching bars to show frequency?

A

Histogram

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56
Q

The X axis of a histogram must start at..

A

True 0

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57
Q

What does the Y axis of a histogram represent?

A

the frequency

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58
Q

A summary table would display…

A

Raw data

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59
Q

A normal distribution graph looks like…

A

a Bell curve, symetrical

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60
Q

In a normal distribution the mean, median and mode are

A

The same (at the highest peak of the curve)

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61
Q

In a normal distribution the tails of the curve never touch what?

A

The X axis (they are never 0)

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62
Q

A distribution curve that is not symmetrical is known as..

A

a Skewed distribution

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63
Q

In a positively skewed distribution the curve leans..

A

towards the Y axis

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64
Q

In a positively skewed distribution, the longer tail is on the left or right?

A

The right

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65
Q

In a negatively skewed distribution the curve leans..

A

away from the Y axis

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66
Q

In a negatively skewed distribution, the longer tail is on the left or right?

A

left

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67
Q

In a skewed distribution curve, the measures of central tendency appear in what order (starting at the top of the curve working down the tail)?

A

Mode, median, mean

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68
Q

In a normal distribution curve - what percentage of people appear within 1 standard deviation of the mean (either side)?

A

68%

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69
Q

In a normal distribution curve - what percentage of people appear within 2 standard deviations of the mean (either side)?

A

95%

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70
Q

In a normal distribution curve - what percentage of people appear within 3 standard deviations of the mean (either side)?

A

99.7%

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71
Q

A positive correlation is

A

As one variable increases so does the other

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72
Q

A negative correlation is

A

As one variable increases the other decreases

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73
Q

Zero correlation is

A

No relationship between variables

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74
Q

How can we tell the strength of a correlation

A

How tightly packed the points are around the line of best fit or correlation coefficient

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75
Q

A statistical measure of the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables is known as..

A

Correlation Coefficient

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76
Q

Correlation Coefficient is between..

A

+1 and -1

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77
Q

A correlation coefficient of 0.1-0.3 (positive or negative) is what strength relationship?

A

Weak

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78
Q

A correlation coefficient of 0.4-0.6 (positive or negative) is what strength relationship?

A

Moderate

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79
Q

A correlation coefficient of 0.7-0.9 (positive or negative) is what strength relationship?

A

Strong

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80
Q

A correlation coefficient of 1 (positive or negative) is what strength relationship?

A

A perfect correlation

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81
Q

DV Data which is in rank order (ranked or rated)

A

Ordinal data

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82
Q

DV data which is categorical

A

Nominal data

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83
Q

DV data which is measured in fixed units with equal distance between points on the scale or set intervals

A

Interval data

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84
Q

Which variable determined the level of data in a study?

A

Dependent variable

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85
Q

Name a qualitative method of data analysis

A

Content analysis or thematic anaylsis

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86
Q

In a content analysis what technique is performed on the data?

A

Coding

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87
Q

Content analysis converts qualitative data to

A

Quantitative data

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88
Q

Thematic analysis produces what type of data?

A

Qualitative

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89
Q

strucLab experiment is..

A

IV is directly manipulated under controlled setting to measure the impact on a DV

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90
Q

Field experiment is

A

IV is directly manipulated in natural settings to measure the impact on a DV

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91
Q

Natural experiment is

A

The CHANGE in an IV is natural and would have occurred without the presence of the researcher (e.g. before and after a natural disaster - no direct manipulation by a researcher) DV is measured

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92
Q

a Quasi experiment is

A

IV is already occurring (e.g. ethnicity) and so cannot be directly manipulated - the impact on DV is measured

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93
Q

Strength of a lab experiment

A

controlled conditions increase reliability and internal validity

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94
Q

Weakness of a lab experiment

A

setting isn’t natural = behaviour isn’t natural and results lack ecological validity

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95
Q

strength of a field experiement

A

Higher ecological valdity

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96
Q

weakness of a field experiment

A

lacks control and internal validity

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97
Q

strength of a natural experiment

A

high external validity, unique study opportunity

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98
Q

weakness of a natural experiment

A

rare, less likelihood of causality

99
Q

strength of a quasi experiment

A

unique insight free from manipulation (less demand characteristics)

100
Q

weakness of a quasi experiment

A

cannot randomly allocate - less chance of causality (participant variables)

101
Q

Naturalistic observation is

A

conducted in natural settings

102
Q

Controlled obervation is..

A

conducted in controlled settings

103
Q

Covert observation is..

A

participants are unaware they are being studied

104
Q

Overt observation is…

A

participants are aware they are being studied

105
Q

Participant observation is…

A

observer is part of the observed group

106
Q

Non-participant observation is..

A

observer is not part of the observed group

107
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of naturalistic observations..

A

+ natural behaviour
- uncontrolled EVs

108
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of covert observations

A

+ Natural behaviour
- ethical issues

109
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of participant observations

A

+ increased insight (validity)
- loss of objectivity

110
Q

Unlike experiments observations have no…

A

IV

111
Q

Self report techniques are..

A

participants explain their own thoughts, feelings or behaviours (questionnaire/interview)

112
Q

A questionnaire is..

A

A written set of questions (or items) to assess thoughts and experiences

113
Q

Questionnaires can contain open questions; true or false

A

True

114
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of a questionnaire

A

+ cost effective to gather large datasets quickly and easy to analyse
- limited/socially desirable responses

115
Q

An interview where there are no set questions - only the topic is set

A

Unstructured interview

116
Q

An interview where all questions are pre-determined

A

Structured interview

117
Q

An interview where some questions are pre-determined but researchers can ask follow up questions as needed

A

Semi-structured interview

118
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of a structured interview

A

+ Easy to replicate
- limits richness of data

119
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of an unstructured interview

A

+ rich in depth data
- increased bias and hard to compare/replicate

120
Q

A correlation measures..

A

relationships

121
Q

The variables in a correlation are called

A

Co-variables

122
Q

The three outcomes of a correlational study are;

A

positive, negative and no correlation

123
Q

Correlations cannot guarantee what..

A

Causation! (a relationship, not a different or affect - always could be 3rd variables)

124
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of a correlational study

A

+ starting point for future research, quick and easy as uses secondary data often
- is not causation, always a risk of 3rd variables, can be misused

125
Q

A case study is

A

an indepth study of one or a small group of people

126
Q

Case studies can be carried out over a long period - this is called

A

Longitudinal research

127
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of case studies

A

+ in depth, can be longitudinal and use lots of measures to understand the individual so can check for concurrent validity
- cannot be replicated, many EVs, subjective

128
Q

A content anaylsis is

A

used to quantify qualitative data by changing it into frequencies using coding

129
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of content analysis

A

+ useful, ethical, reliable (inter-rater)
- hard to establish objective coding units, loses richness of data, time consuming

130
Q

Thematic analysis is

A

a qualitative method which identifies, analyses and reports themes (patterns) within data

131
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of thematic analysis

A

+ useful, check concurrent data as you apply themes to new data sets, keeps richness of data
- Subjective, time consuming

132
Q

An ‘aim’ in research is…

A

A general statement of what the researcher wants to investigate

133
Q

A hypothesis is

A

A clear testable statement that states a relationship or effect between variables

134
Q

A one tailed hypothesis is

A

Directional - it predicts the direction of the outcome (e.g. which group will perform better)

135
Q

A two tailed hypothsis is

A

Non directional - it predicts there will be a difference/relationship but not in which direction

136
Q

When do researchers tend to use a directional hypothesis?

A

When there is previous research on the topic

137
Q

When do researchers tend to use a non-directional hypothesis?

A

When there is no previous research or it is contradictory

138
Q

Independent variable

A

the variable that the researcher MANIPULATES or that changes naturally (the cause)

139
Q

Dependent variable

A

the variable the researcher MEASURES (the effect)

140
Q

What is meant by ‘levels of the IV’

A

The experimental conditions participants are in e.g. if the IV is Amount of Caffeine the levels may be ‘Caffeine’ and ‘No Caffeine’

141
Q

What is the term for clearly defining your variables in terms of how they can be measured?

A

Operationalisation

142
Q

What is the ‘baseline’ condition called in an experiment?

A

Control group

143
Q

An extraneous variable is

A

A variable outside of the IV which has the capability to affect the DV if not controlled

144
Q

How is an extraneous variable different to a confounding variable?

A

EVs dont systematically vary with the DV so have the capability to affect the DV is not controlled. CVs do vary with the IV so it’s impossible to tell if this has affected the DV or not! It has confounded our results!

145
Q

Participants react to cues from the researcher/environment and this is known as

A

Participant reactivity

146
Q

These are cues from the research regarding the AIM which lead to the potential of participants changing their behaviour.

A

Demand characteristics

147
Q

What are the behavioural consequences of demand characteristics?

A

The please-U effect (over-perform to please the researcher) or the screw-U effect (underperform to sabotage the research).

148
Q

The investigator may (consciously or unconsciously) affect the participant’s behaviour, this is known as…

A

Investigator effects

149
Q

A method to control the effects of bias when designing materials and deciding the order of experimental conditions

A

Randomisation

150
Q

A method of controlling for investigator effects by keeping all procedures the same for each participant

A

Standardisation

151
Q

A control method where the participant is not aware of the research aims to prevent demand characteristics

A

Single blind procedure

152
Q

A control method where the participant is not aware of the research aims to prevent demand characteristics and the researcher is not aware of the aims to prevent researcher bias

A

Double Blind Procedure

153
Q

What is meant by experimental designs?

A

The different ways in which participants are organised in relation to the experimental conditions

154
Q

Name the experimental design: different participants complete different levels of the IV and the two separate groups are compared.

A

Independent measures design

155
Q

Name the experimental design: Pairs of participants are matched on a variable relevant to the DV with one being assigned to condition A and the other to B. The two separate groups are then compared.

A

Matched pairs design

156
Q

Name the experimental design: all participants take part in all conditions of the experiment and the two groups are them compared.

A

Repeated measures design

157
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of an independent measures deign

A

+ no order effects, less chance of demand characteristics
- more participant variables, more time consuming and costly

158
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of repeated measures design

A

+ controls for participant variables, more economical
- more chance of order effects, more chance of demand characteristics

159
Q

1 strength and 1 weakness of a matched pairs design

A

+ controls for participant variables, reduces order effects and demand characteristics
- can never match participants exactly, time consuming/costly

160
Q

What is meant by order effects?

A

Performance in a second set of conditions is improved (practice effect) or worsened (fatigue/boredom effect) compared to the first

161
Q

How might you control for order effects?

A

Counterbalancing or use an independent measures design

162
Q

What is counterbalancing?

A

the ABBA technique - participants complete the conditions in different order to spread out order effects.

163
Q

How can you control participant variables?

A

Repeated measures design, matched pairs design, random allocation to conditions

164
Q

What is meant by the ‘population’

A

A group of people who are the focus of the research from which the sample are drawn

165
Q

The group of people who take part in the research and are presumed to represent a larger target population are called…

A

Sample

166
Q

The methods used to collect your sample are collectively known as

A

Sampling techniques

167
Q

What is meant by a random sample?

A

All members of the target population have an equal chance of being selected for the sample

168
Q

How is a random sample collected?

A
  • Get a complete list of all names of people in the target population
  • assign each name a number
  • use a lottery method to select X amount (picking from a hat, computer method)
169
Q

1 Strength and 1 weakness of random sampling

A

+ potentially unbiases due to the laws of chance = increase internal validity
- time consuming and could still be unrepresentative particularly is some refuse to take part (then its more like a volunteer sample)

170
Q

What is systematic sampling?

A

Selecting every nth person in a population

171
Q

How is a systematic sample collected?

A
  • Create a sampling frame (organised list of everyone in the population e.g. alphabetical)
  • Choose a sampling system (every 3rd or 5th for example)
  • start your sampling from a random point
172
Q

1 Strength and 1 weakness of systematic sampling

A

+ Objective as the researcher has no influence over participant selection
- time consuming and if participants refuse it becomes biased like a volunteer sample

173
Q

What is stratified sampling?

A

Where the composition of a sample matches the composition of a population based on its subgroups (or strata)

174
Q

How is a stratified sample collected?

A
  • Identify the strata (or sub groups)
  • Work out the representative proportions of each strata for the sample
  • Use random sampling to select the number needed in each strata
175
Q

1 Strength and 1 weakness of Stratified Sampling

A

+ representative as it reflects the proportions of the population
- cannot represent all differences so can’t get a completely accurate representation of the population

176
Q

What is opportunity sampling?

A

The sample is made up of anyone is is willing and available at the time of the research

177
Q

How is an opportunity sample collected?

A

The research would ask anyone who is around at the time of the study if they would take part

178
Q

1 Strength and 1 weakness of opportunity sampling

A

+ quick and convenient
- unrepresentative sample as participants may have something in common if they’re all free and available at that time and also open to researcher bias as they choose the participants.

179
Q

What is a volunteer sample?

A

Participants self-select i.e. volunteer to take part in response to an advert

180
Q

How is volunteer sampling conducted?

A

The researcher places an advert in a relevant place (poster, newspaper or magazine, online) and waits for responses

181
Q

1 Strength and 1 weakness of volunteer sampling

A
  • easy and not time consuming on the part of the researcher
  • sample suffers from volunteer bias
182
Q

What is meant by generalisability?

A

The extent to which the findings of research using a sample can be broadly applied to the population

183
Q

Who is responsible for creation of ethical guidelines?

A

BPS (British Psychological Society)

184
Q

Name the 4 major principles of the ethics code

A
  • Respect
  • Responsibility
  • Competence
  • Integrity
185
Q

What method would an ethics committee use in determining if a piece of research is ethically acceptable?

A

Cost- benefit analysis (does the benefit of the research outweigh the costs?)

186
Q

What is meant by informed consent?

A

Participants are aware of the aims and procedures of the research and their right to withdraw (without penalty) as well as how their data will be used before deciding to take part in the study

187
Q

How do you get informed consent?

A

Issue a consent letter/brief with all relevant information that participants can sign (parents sign if under 16)

188
Q

What is meant by deception?

A

Deliberately misleading participants about the true nature of the study (aims, procedures or nature of confederates) meaning you don’t obtain informed consent

189
Q

What is meant by protection from harm?

A

Participants should not, as a consequence of their participation, be placed at a greater risk of physical or psychological harm than in daily life. Participants should have the right to withdraw if they feel so as part of their protection from harm.

190
Q

If you have deceived/exposed participants to harm - what should researchers do?

A
  • Full Debrief (including reveling the true nature of the study and how the data will be used)
  • Provide the right to withdraw/withhold data
  • Offer counselling if relevant
191
Q

What is meant by confidentiality?

A

Having the right to control your own information (right to privacy) so participants’ data should not be personally identifiable (should be anonymous or coded) nor should institutions/locations be named and should be stored in line with the data protection act.

192
Q

What is meant by a pilot study?

A

A small scale version of the research conducted prior to the main study.

193
Q

What is the aim of pilot studies?

A

Check materials/procedures and review before the larger scale study

194
Q

In a structured observation how does the researcher record behaviour?

A

Using a predetermined set of behavioural categories (or behavioural checklist)

195
Q

Which type of observation records behaviour continuously?

A

Unstructured observations

196
Q

In an observation the researcher counts the number of instances a particular behaviour is displayed. This is known as…

A

Event sampling

197
Q

In an observation the researcher records what behaviour is occurring a pre-established intervals of time (e.g. every 10 seconds). This is known as…

A

Time sampling

198
Q

Questions for which there is no fixed choice and participants are free to answer in as much or little detail as they choose

A

Open questions

199
Q

Questions which have a fixed set of responses determined by the question setter

A

Closed questions

200
Q

A form of closed question where respondents indicate their agreement with a statement on a 5 point scale (strongly disagree to strongly agree)

A

Likert Scale

201
Q

A form of closed question where respondents indicate their strength of feeling towards a statement/between two semantic opposites (e.g. happy to sad)

A

Rating Scale

202
Q

A form of closed question where there is a list of possible options and respondents select those which apply to them

A

Fixed choice options

203
Q

What should be avoided during question design?

A
  • Jargon
  • emotive language
  • leading questions
  • double barrelled questions (two questions in one)
  • double negatives (I am not unhappy - agree or disagree)
204
Q

When conducted research is assessed by others who specialise in the same field to ensure high quality this is known as

A

Peer Review

205
Q

When does peer review happen?

A

Before research can become part of a journal

206
Q

What are the aims of peer review?

A
  • Allocate funding decisions
  • Validate quality and relevance of research (looking for fraud also)
  • Suggest amendments and improvements
207
Q

Anonymity in peer review can be a problem, why?

A

Using this to criticise rival research

208
Q

Publication bias in peer review can be a problem, why?

A

Tendency to only want significant findings, ground-breaking research otherwise we see the file drawer phenomenon

209
Q

Why might someone bury groundbreaking research in the process of peer review

A

It challenges the status quo

210
Q

We must consider the impact of psychological research on what factor that represents financial sustainability?

A

The economy

211
Q

Name the term: refers to consistency, i.e. the ability to get the same results. If a study is repeated using the same method, design and measurements, and the same results are obtained

A

Reliability

212
Q

Name the term: the extent to which a particular measure used in an investigation (e.g. a questionnaire or test administered) is consistent within itself

A

Internal reliability

213
Q

Name the term: the extent to which the results of a measure are consistent from one use to another

A

External reliability

214
Q

Explain how the split half method tests reliability

A

You would compare the scores from the two halves using a correlational analysis

215
Q

Explain how the test-retest method tests reliability

A

Complete a task twice on two different occasions cores from the 2 tasks (the test and the retest) are compared using correlational analysis

216
Q

Explain how you would establish inter-observer reliability

A

Two observers would carry out the test separately and then the observers’ sores would be analysed using a correlation

217
Q

What score on a correlation would indicate reliability

A

0.8 or above

218
Q

How do you increase reliability?

A
  • Operationalising variables
  • Pilot studies
  • Standardisation
219
Q

Name the term: concerns accuracy; the degree to which something overall measures what it intends to

A

Validity

220
Q

Name the term: concerns whether the research is accurate in itself, and whether the researcher has measured what they intended

A

Internal validity

221
Q

Name the term: whether the results are still accurate in other settings

A

External validity

222
Q

Name the term: The extent to which a measure, at ‘face value’, looks like it is measuring what it intends to

A

Face validity

223
Q

Name the term: correlating scores on a new test of unknown validity with another test that is known to be valid and trusted to check for accuracy

A

Concurrent validity

224
Q

Name the term: the extent to which the results are considered an accurate representation of other people

A

Population validity

225
Q

Name the term: the extent to which results are considered accurate outside the research setting

A

Ecological validity

226
Q

Name the term: the extent to which results are considered accurate across time

A

Temporal Validity

227
Q

Name the term: refers to the view that gathering data and evidence from experience (sensory information) is central to the scientific method, rather than simply relying upon our
own viewpoints.

A

empiricism

228
Q

Name the term: the extent to which research or materials/procedures are able to be repeated

A

replicability

229
Q

Name the term: not open to interpretation - using critical distance to analyse information rather than subjectivity

A

objectivity

230
Q

Name the term: - a set of shared assumptions and agreed methods within a scientific discipline (these may change)

A

paradigms and paradigm shifts

231
Q

Name the term: the opportunity to refute a claim and prove it as false

A

falsifiability

232
Q

Name the section of a report: A brief summary (150 – 200 words) of the key points of the study that appears at the start of the report

A

Abstract

233
Q

Name the section of a report: Background to the research area and rationale (why the study was conducted).
The background will include a literature review of relevant past studies and
theories,

A

Introduction

234
Q

Name the section of a report: Describes how the study was carried out in sufficient detail for someone else to be able to
replicate it.

A

Method

235
Q

Name the section of a report: Summarises the findings of the research clearly and accurately. There is normally a section on
descriptive statistics and also inferential statistics.

A

Results

236
Q

Name the section of a report: This section explains what the results mean and is broken down into several sections including looking at modifications and implications for further research

A

Discusson

237
Q

Name the section of a report: Information on sources of information used in the report shown in alphabetical order.

A

References

238
Q

Name the section of a report: Copies of materials that are not suited to any other section of the report

A

Appendices

239
Q

What method of referencing is used

A

Harvard

240
Q

Outline how an end of test reference should be written

A
  • Author surname then comma and initial followed by full stop
  • Publication year in brackets
  • Article title with no capitals apart from the first word and full stop at end
  • Journal title in italics with a comma
  • Volume & issue (in brackets) followed by comma
  • Page numbers with hyphen in between and full stop at end
241
Q

What information goes in an in text reference?

A

Surname of researchers, year of publication (pages numbers only if its a direct quote)

242
Q

If there are two or more researcher in the reference how do we link their names?

A

&

243
Q

If there are three or more researchers in the reference use

A

et al.

244
Q

What are the purposes of referencing?

A
  • To avoid plagiarism.
  • Provide a theoretical framework for the topic.
  • To acknowledge direct quotes.
  • To provide evidence to support arguments.
  • So that readers can check how much preparation has gone into your work and can find extra information