Reproductive treatment Flashcards

1
Q

What are the characteristics of PCOS?

A

1) Oligomenorrhoea
2) Hyperandrogenism (Hirsutism and acne)
3) Polycystic ovarian morphology (US scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which aromatase inhibitor is used for ovulation induction?

A

Letrozole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does Letrozole work?

A

Inhibition of aromatase activity, subsequently resulting in reduced oestradiol conversion from testosterone.
This reduces the negative feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland, stimulating FSH and LH release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is clomiphene?

A

A oestradiol receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If there is a male factor of infertility how does IVF take place?

A

Intra-cytoplasmic injection of sperm (ICSI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What two methods are used to prevent premature ovulation?

A

GnRH antagonist protocol (Short)

GnRH agonist protocol (Long protocol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do GnRH antagonists and agonists work?

A

GnRH is secreted in a pulsatile manner, stimulating the release of LH.
High dose continuous GnRH leads to a desensitisation of GnRH receptors and thus causing LH inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do combined oral contraceptive pills work?

A

Anovulation
Progesterone causes the thickening of the cervical mucous, prevent sperm penetration, and thinning of the endometrial lining to reduce implantation.
Oestrogen causes negative feedback on GnRH release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the non-contraceptive benefits of using OCPs?

A

Help reduce LH and hyperandrogenism

Helps makes periods lighter and less painful (endometriosis or period pain or menorrhagia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three forms of long-acting reversible contraceptives?

A

1) Intra-uterine device (copper coil)
2) Intra-uterine system (IUS) which secretes progesterone (Mirena coil)
3) Progesterone-only injectable contraceptives or subdermal implants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most effective emergency contraception?

A

Copper intrauterine device (IUD), most effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is levonelle, emergency contraceptive pill?

A

Synthetic progesterone prevents ovulation, must be taken within 3 days of unprotected intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which enzymes reduce the efficacy of contraceptive piill?

A

P450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the main treatment for hypogondotrophic hypogonadism?

A

Treat with Gonadotrophins (LH & FSH) to induce spermatogenesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which cells are stimulated by LH?

A

Leydig cells to increase intratesticular testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the effect of FSH?

A

Stimulates sertoli cells and induces seminiferous tubule development and spermatogenesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What treatment is prescribed to male patients with secondary hypogonadism?

A

Give HCG injections (which act on LH receptors)

Add FSH injections if there is no response in 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What injections should be administer if there is no response to HCG injections within 6 months?

A

Add FSH injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why shouldn’t testosterone be prescribed to males desiring fertility?

A

There is a negative feedback effect which subsequently reduces LH and FSH release- further reducing spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which receptors do HCG injections stimulate?

A

LH receptors on Leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of hypogonadism is Kallmann syndrome?

A

Congenital secondary hypogonadism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the relevance of FSH during mini-puberty in males?

A

Important for growing the pool of immature spermatogonia and germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In patients with Kallmann syndrome, what is the recommended pretreatment?

A

2-4 months pretreatment with FSH before HCG injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What testicular volume range is associated with a better prognosis in patients with Kallmann syndrome?

A

> 6ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When should a serum testosterone level be conducted during the day?

A

At least 2 low measurements of serum testosterone before 11am

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the treatment of a testosterone deficiency in a male not desiring fertility?

A

Testosterone replacement

  • Daily gel (tostran)
  • 3 weekly intramuscular injections (sustanon)
  • 3 monthly intramuscular injections (Nebido)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the associated risks with testosterone replacement therapy?

A
  • Increased haematocrit (risk of hypervicsosity and stroke) due to stimulation of EPO receptors
  • Measure prostate specific antigen levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the aim of ovulation induction?

A

Aim to develop one ovarian follicle, to increase FSH by a small amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the risks for inducing more than one ovarian follicles?

A

Risk of multiple pregnancy - causes risks for mother and baby during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the four methods used to restore ovulation in a patient with anovulatory polycystic ovary syndrome?

A

1) Lifestyle/weight loss/ metformin
2) Letrozole (aromatase inhibitor)
3) Clomiphene (oestradiol receptor antagonist)
4) FSH stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clomiphene (oestradiol receptor antagonist)?

A

Blocks estrogenic hypothalamic receptors, resulting in blinding of the hypothalamus-pituitary axis to endogenous circulating estrogen. This in turn triggers release of FSH from the anterior pituitary following alterations in GnRH pulsatility.

FSH therefore stimulates follicle growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the four main stages of IVF treatment?

A

1) Oocyte retrieval
2) Fertilisation in vitro
3) Embryo incubation
4) Embryo transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the initial stage of IVF treatment?

A

FSH stimulation to induce superovulation prior to egg retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is step 2 in IVF treatment?

A

Prevent premature ovulation by preventing premature LH surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which short protocol treatment is used to prevent premature ovulation?

A

GnRH antagonist between day 6-10, after FSH stimulation ,the antagonist inhibits GnRH receptors on gonadotrophs within the anterior pituitary gland, thereby preventing LH release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

GnRH agonists are used for which type of protocol treatment to prevent premature ovulation during IVF?

A

Long protocol, day -7 to day 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the effects of non-pulsatile GnRH on LH release?

A

Continuous high dose removes pulsatile stimulation of gonadotrophs within the anterior pituitary gland, this desensitisation of GnRH receptors thus cause LH inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Upon egg retrieval which hormone is exposed to the eggs for maturation?

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the stage of meiosis reached by the secondary oocyte prior to sperm fertilisation?

A

Metaphase-II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which hormone is used to trigger egg maturation?

A

hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the associated risk with hCG overstimulation?

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)

42
Q

What are the symptoms of ovarian hyper-stimulation syndrome?

A

Pleural effusion
Ascites
Renal failure
Ovarian torsion

43
Q

Which factor is released due to hCG stimulation leading to angiogensis?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

44
Q

At what day is the oocyte retrieved?

A

Day 13

45
Q

At what day should hCG be used as the trigger of oocyte maturation?

A

Day 11

46
Q

What is done after the embryo is transferred to the endometrium?

A

Pregnancy blood test followed by a pregnancy

ultrasound scan

47
Q

What are the common forms of contraception?

A

Barrier: Male/female condom/ diaphragm or cap with spermicide.

  • Combined oral contraceptive pill (OCP)
  • Progesterone-only (Pill)
  • Long acting reversible contraception (LARC)
  • Emergency contraception
48
Q

What are the permanent methods of contraception?

A

Vasectomy

Female sterilisation

49
Q

What are the advantages of barrier contraception?

A
  • Easy to obtain- free from clinics
  • no need to see a healthcare professional
  • Protection against STIs
  • No contraindications as with some hormonal methods
50
Q

What are the disadvantages of barrier contraception?

A
  • Can interrupt sex
  • Can reduce sensation
  • Can interfere with erections
  • Some skill to use properly
51
Q

What hormones are within the oral contraceptive pill?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone

52
Q

How does the oral contraceptive pill work?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone exert negative feedback on GnRH hypothalamic neurones and gonadotrophs within the pituitary gland, this reduced LH and FSH secretion leading to anovulation.

-Oestrogen and progesterone thicken cervical mucous (prevent sperm penetration), and thin the endometrial lining to reduce implantation

53
Q

What are the advantages to using the oral contraceptive pill?

A
  • Easy to take (One pill a day)
  • Effective
  • Does not interrupt sex
  • Can take several packets back to back and avoid withdrawal bleeds.
  • Reduce endometrial and ovarian cancer
  • Weight neutral in 80%
54
Q

What are the disadvantages to using the OCP?

A
  • Difficult to remember
  • No protection against STIs
  • P450 enzyme inducers may reduce efficacy
  • Not the best choice during breast feeding.
55
Q

What are the possible side effects with using the OCP?

A
Spotting (bleeding in between periods)
Nausea
 Sore breasts
 Changes in mood or libido 
 Feeling more hungry
56
Q

What are the rare side effects to using the OCP?

A

Blood clots in the legs and lungs

57
Q

What are the non-contraceptive uses of the OCP?

A

Helps make periods lighter and less painful
(Endometriosis or period pain or menorrhagia)
-Withdrawal bleeds
-PCOS (reduce LH and hyperandrogenism)

58
Q

Which contraceptive pill can be used by breastfeeding women?

A

Progesterone only pill

59
Q

What are the advantages of using the progesterone only pill?

A

Often suitable if can’ttake oestrogen

 Easy to take – one pill a day, every day with no break
 It doesn’t interrupt sex
 Can help heavy or painful periods
 Periods may stop (temporarily)
 Can be usedwhen breastfeeding
60
Q

What are the negatives with using the POP?

A

Can be difficult to remember
No protection against STIs
Shorter acting – needs to be taken at the same time each day

Possible side effects
 Irregular bleeding
 Headaches
 Sore breasts
 Changes in mood
 Changes in sex drive
61
Q

What are the three forms of LARCs?

A

1) Intra uterine device (IUD)
2) Intra-uterine system (IUS)
3) Progesterone only injectable contraceptives/subdermal implants

62
Q

What are IUDs?

A

Copper coils that mechanically prevent implantation and decrease sperm egg survival (lasts 5-10 years)

63
Q

What is the main risk with using an IUD?

A

Can cause heavy periods and 5% come out during the first 3 months.

64
Q

What is an IUS?

A

An intra-uterine system which secretes progesterone (Mirena coil) , this thins the lining of the womb and thickens cervical mucous.

Lasts 3-5 years.

65
Q

What are the benefits with using a coil?

A

Coils are suitable for most women including Nulliparous (no previous children).
Exclude STI’s and cervical screening up to date before insertion
Prevent implantation of conceptus – important for some religions
rarely can cause ectopic pregnancy
Can be used as emergency contraception

66
Q

How can copper coils be used as emergency contraception?

A

Can be fitted up to 5 days after unprotected sex (<1% chance of pregnancy)

67
Q

What is within an emergency contraceptive pill?

A

Ulipristal acetate 30mg

68
Q

How does the emergency contraceptive pill work?

A

Delays ovulation

69
Q

Until how many days after unprotected intercourse, does the morning after pill become ineffective?

A

5 days

70
Q

Which emergency contraception is leat effective?

A

Levonorgestrel, least effective especially if the BMI > 27

71
Q

What is levonorgestrel?

A

Synthetic progesterone prevents ovulation

Taken within 3 days of unprotected intercourse

72
Q

What are the three forms of emergency contraception?

A

1) IUD
2) Pill- ulipristal acetate
3) Levonorgestrel

73
Q

What are the side effects with using the morning after pill?

A

headache, abdominal pain and nausea

Can vomit within 2-3 hours of taking it - may need to take another

74
Q

Which types of medications makes taking the emergency contraceptive pill ineffective?

A

Liver p450 enzyme inducer

Tetrogenic (lithium or warfarin) drugs

75
Q

In what comorbidities should OCP be avoided?

A
Migraine with aura (Risk of stroke). 
Smoking (>15/day) + age >35 years
Stroke or CVD history 
Current breast cancer
Liver cirrhosis
Diabetes with retinopathy/nephropathy/neuropathy 

Risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)/CVD/Stroke

76
Q

Which conditions may benefit from an OCP?

A

Endometriosis
Menorrhagia
Fibroids

77
Q

What are the risks with hormone replacement therapy?

A

Venous thrombo-embolism - deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

  • Hormone sensitive cancers (Breast and ovarian)
  • Endometrial cancer
  • CVD
  • Oral oestrogens undergo first pass metabolism in liver
  • Oral can increase SHBG, triglycerides and CRP
78
Q

Which is the most preferable form of HRT?

A

Transdermal oestrogens

79
Q

Which type of HRT increases the risk of breast cancer?

A

Continuous combined HRT (oestrogen and progesterone)

Risk is related to duration of treatment

80
Q

What supplement reduces the risk of endometrial cancer in HRT?

A

Prescribe progesterones in all women with an endometrium

81
Q

What are progestogens?

A

Synthetic progestins and the natural hormone progesterone

82
Q

Which form of HRT are safer for VTE risk?

A

Transdermal oestrogen

83
Q

Above what BMI range are oral oestrogen not recommended?

A

> 30kg/m^2

84
Q

In what age group is the risk of cardiovascular disease greater with the use of HRT?

A

Above the age of 60

Increased risk if HRT is started 10 years after menopause.

85
Q

What are the 6 main risks associated with HRT?

A
Breast cancer
Endometrial cancer
Ovarian cancer
VTE
Stroke
CHD
86
Q

Which is the highest risk associated with oestrogen only HRT?

A

Endometrial cancer

87
Q

Which is the highest risk associated with combined oral HRT?

A

Breast cancer

88
Q

What are the benefits of HRT?

A
Relief of symptoms of low oestrogen (flushing, disturbed sleep, decreased libido, low mood) 
Less osteoporosis (decreased by one third)
89
Q

What is cisgender?

A

Same sex and gender

90
Q

What is gender non-confirming?

A

Gender does not match assigned sex

91
Q

What is gender dysphoria?

A

When gender causes depression

92
Q

What is non-binary?

A

Gender does not match to traditional binary gender understanding. Includes agender, bigender, pangender, and gender fluid

93
Q

What is the management for prepubertal young people undergoing gender transformation?

A

GnRH agonist for pubertal suppression and then sex steroids

Gender reassignment surgery

94
Q

What are the side effects with testosterone supplements in transgender men?

A

Polycythaemia, lower HDL, Obstructive Sleep Apnoea (OSA). No increase in CVD).

95
Q

What should be prescribed to transgender males to suppress menstrual bleeding?

A

Progesterone

96
Q

Within 1 to 6 months what are the effects of hormonal therapy in transgender males?

A

Balding (depending on your age and family pattern)
Deeper voice / Acne / Increased and coarser facial and body hair
Change in the distribution of your body fat
Enlargement of the clitoris
Menstrual cycle stops
Increased muscle mass and strength

97
Q

What hormones are given for transgender women?

A

Oestrogen (transdermal, oral , inramuscular)

High does 4-5mg a day

98
Q

How is testosterone reduced in transgender women?

A

GnRH agonists (induce desensitisation of HPG axis)

Anti-androgen medications (crypterone acetate, spirnolactone)

99
Q

What will not change in transgender women undergoing hormonal therapy?

A

Height, voice and Adam’s apple.

100
Q

What happens to transgender women during the first 3 months?

A

Decrease in sexual desire/function (erections)

Baldness slows

101
Q

What happens in 3-6 months for transgender women?

A

Soft skin, and change in body fat distribution
Decrease in testicular size
Breast development/tenderness

102
Q

How long does it take for hair to become softer and finer in transgender women?

A

6 to 12 months