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BRS 1b > Children Orthopaedics > Flashcards

Children Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

How many bones are found within a paediatric skeleton?

A

270 bones

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2
Q

Which regions of a paediatric skeleton is associated with growth post-natally?

A

Epiphyseal growth plates

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3
Q

Which bones are formed from intramembranous bone development?

A

Mesenchymal Cells - bones, flat bones

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4
Q

What are the examples of flat bones?

A

Facial bones, mandible & medial part of the clavicle

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5
Q

Which bones are associated with endochondral ossification?

A

Mesenchymal  Cartilage  Bone  Long bones

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6
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A
  • Condensation of mesenchymal cells which differentiate into osteoblasts – ossification centre forms.
  • Secreted osteoid traps osteoblasts which become osteocytes.
  • Trabecular matrix and periosteum form. (Angiogenesis occurs and blood vessels are incorporated between woven bone).
  • Compact bone develops superficial to cancellous. Crowded blood vessels condense into red bone marrow.
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7
Q

Where does long bone formation occur?

A

At primary and secondary ossification centres

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8
Q

What is the primary ossification centre?

A

Sites of pre-natal bone growth through endochondral ossification from the central part of the bone

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9
Q

What are the secondary ossification centre?

A

Occurs post-natally after the primary ossification centre and long bones often have several

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10
Q

What are the stages of endochondral primary ossification?

A
  1. Mesenchymal differentiation at the primary centre
  2. The cartilage model of the future bony skeleton forms
  3. The capillaries penetrate cartilage – calcification at the primary ossification centre – spongy bone forms. Perichondrium transforms into periosteum.
  4. Cartilage and chondrocytes continue to grow at ends of the bone
  5. Secondary ossification centres develop with its own blood vessel and calcification at the proximal and distal end – calcification of the matrix.
  6. Cartilage remains at epiphyseal (growth) plate and at joint surface as articular cartilage.
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11
Q

What happens at secondary ossification centres?

A

Post bone growth occurs, at the physis

Long bone lengthening occurs at the physeal plate, containing cartilage (proliferation of chondrocytes and subsequent calcification of the extracellular matrix into immature bone that is subsequently remodelled0

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12
Q

What happens at the epiphyseal side?

A

Hyaline cartilage active and dividing to form hyaline cartilage matrix

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13
Q

What happens at the diaphysial side of bone?

A

Cartilage calcifies and necroses - replacement by bone

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14
Q

What is the main difference between adult and paediatric skeleton?

A
  1. Elasticity
  2. Physis
  3. Speed of Healing
  4. Remodelling
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15
Q

Where does continuous endochondral ossification happen?

A

At secondary ossification centre

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16
Q

Compare the speed of healing in an paediatric skeleton compared to that of the adult?

A

The speed of healing is faster in a child

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17
Q

Why is paediatric bone more elastic than adult bone?

A

Has an increased density of Haversian canals

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18
Q

Why does plastic deformities occur within paediatric bone?

A

The energy is dissipated in altering the structure of the bone - bending prior to fracture

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19
Q

What is a buckle fracture?

A

The bone buckles forming a torus-column prior to fracturing.
One side of the bone bends (does not break all the way through).

A stable fracture - bone fragments have no separated
Compression fracture

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20
Q

What is a stable fracture?

A

Bone fragments have no separated

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21
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

One cortex fracture, however the other side remains intact (is bent)

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22
Q

When does gradual physeal closure occur?

A

Menarche in females

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23
Q

When does physeal closure occur in girls?

A

15-16

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24
Q

When does physeal closure occur in boys?

A

18-19

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25
Q

What classification is used to assess physeal injuries?

A

Salter-Harris Classification

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26
Q

Why does premature failure occur?

A

Due to physeal injuries- significant trauma can elicit growth arrest

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27
Q

What happens in patients with a partial arrest of bone growth?

A

Can manifest as deformities due to inconsistencies in bone growth between affected and non-affected areas

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28
Q

What factors does the speed of healing and remodelling potential are dependant on?

A

Location

Age of patient

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29
Q

Which physis of the skeleton grows more?

A

Knee

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30
Q

Which bones within the skeleton exhibits faster growth rates?

A

Distal femur and proximal tibia exhibits faster growth rates as opposed to the proximal femur or ankle

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31
Q

Why does the humerus tolerate angulation and deformity?

A

Due to spontaneous rate of repair and remodelling potential or paediatric bone

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32
Q

What are the four common congenital conditions of bone growth?

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Club foot
Achondroplasia
Osteogeneis imperfecta

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33
Q

What is developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Group of disorders of the neonatal hip where the head of the femur is unstable or incongruous in relation to the acetabulum
‘Packaging disorder’

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34
Q

What does the normal development of the hip rely on?

A

The normal development relies on the concentric reduction and balanced forces through the hip.

The hip needs to reside within the acetabulum (normal forces through the join)

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35
Q

How common is hip dysplasia?

A

2:100

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36
Q

What is dislocation?

A

2:1000

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37
Q

Why does hip dysplasia occur?

A

Abnormal pressure through the acetabulum and hip dysplasia (not centrally placed within the socket)

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38
Q

What are the risk factors of developmental dysplasia?

A 
Female
First bone
Breech
Family history 
Oligohydraminos
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39
Q

What is oligohydraminos?

A

Insufficient fluid within the amniotic sac reducing the hydrodynamics and pressure exerted onto the developing foetus in utero, by the amniotic fluid

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40
Q

Which ethnicities are associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Native American/Laplanders

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41
Q

How is developmental dysplasia of the hip diagnosed?

A

Usually picked up on baby check- screening in the UK

42
Q

What are the movements of the developmental dysplasia?

A

Range of motion of hip
usually limitation in hip abduction
Leg length (Galeazzi)

43
Q

What investigations are conducted in patients with developmental dysplasia?

A

Ultrasound- birth to 4 months

After 4 months - X-ray

44
Q

Why is an X-ray non-beneficial in patients with development dysplasia within the first 4 months?

A

The primary ossification centres of hip have no yet ossified

45
Q

What is the treatment for neonates with developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Reducible hip and <6 months

Pavlik harness

46
Q

What is an abduction strap?

A

Maintains the abduction position of the hip joint such that the head of femur is held in the acetabulum, therefore, during development the concentric pressures through the joint an support normal growth

47
Q

What are the alternative treatments to dysplasia of the hip?

A

MUA and closed reduction and spica

48
Q

What is congenital talipes equinovarus?

A

There is congenital deformity of the foot

49
Q

Congenital deformities of the foot are common in what demographic?

A

Hawaiian

M 2:1 F

50
Q

Which gene is implicated in congenital talipes equinovarus?

A

PITX1 gene

51
Q

What is CAVE?

A

Deformity due to muscular contracture

Cavus – High arch: Tight intrinsic, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus.
Adductus of foot: Tight posterior and anterior tibialis
Varus: Tight Tendoachilles, tib post, tip ant
Equinous: Tight Tendoachilles

52
Q

What is cavus?

A

High arch

Tight intrinsic , flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus

53
Q

What is the treatment for club deformity?

A

Ponseti method

54
Q

What is the Ponseti method?

A

1) First a series of casts to correct deformity
2) Many require operative treatment – soft tissue release
3) Foot orthosis brace (Sufficient to treat the deformity)
4) Some will require further operative intervention to correct final deformity

55
Q

Which gene is implicated in achodnroplasia?

A

G380 mutation of FGFR3

56
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

Skeletal dysplasia that is characterised by an autosomal dominant condition

57
Q

Why does achondroplasia occur?

A

Inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis

Results in defect in endochondral bone formation

58
Q

What is rhizomelic dwarfism?

A

Humerus shorter than the forearm
Femur shorter than tibia
Normal trunk
Normal cognitive development + significant spinal issues

59
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Brittle bone disease

60
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Autosomal dominant or recessive

61
Q

Which type of collage is decreased in osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Decreased type I collagen due to decreased secretion and production of abnormal collagen

There is insufficient osteoid production

62
Q

What are the effects of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Fragility fracture
Short stature
Scoliosis

63
Q

What are the non-orthopaedic manifestations of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Heart
Blue sclera
Dentiogenesis imperfecta - brown soft tissue
Wormian skull
Hypermetabolism - affecting the parathyroid pathway

64
Q

What classification is used for paediatric fractures?

A

Pattern
Anatomy
Intra/extra-articular
Displacement

Salter-Harris Classification for those affecting the physis

65
Q

What is an avulsion type fracture?

A

When a bone is being pulled by a ligament

66
Q

What is secondary bone healing characterised by?

A

Callus formation

67
Q

What is primary bone healing characterised by?

A

By direct union, there is no associated callus formation

68
Q

What is the preferred healing pathway for intra-articular fractures?

A

Primary bone healing

69
Q

What is a shortened fracture?

A

The fracture gap is minimised due to overlap

70
Q

When is displacement optimised in a paediatric fracture?

A

In the best angle of function (remodelling does not occur in a rotated fracture)

71
Q

What is the SALT classification of physeal injuries?

A

1) Physeal separation
2) Fracture transverse physis and exits metaphysis (Above)
3) Fracture transverse physis and exists epiphysis (Lower)
4) Fracture passes Through epiphysis, physis, metaphysis
5) Crush injury to physis.

72
Q

Which type of SALT fracture is most common?

A

Type 2

73
Q

What happens to the risk of growth arrest between SALT type 1 and type V fractures?

A

Risk increases

74
Q

What happens in a whole physis growth arrest?

A

Limb length discrepancy

75
Q

What happens in a partial growth arrest?

A

Angulation as the non-affected side keep growing

76
Q

What happens during an injury at a period near to physeal closure?

A

There is a small degree of potential growth left (Therefore, the impact of growth arrest on the individual is less)

77
Q

What are the two aims of treating growth arrest?

A

Limb length correction

Minimise Angular deformity

78
Q

How is limb length correction performed?

A

Shorten the long side

Lengthen the long side

79
Q

What are the two methods to which angular deformity is corrected?

A

Stop the growth of the unaffected side

Reform the bone (osteotomy)

80
Q

How can growth arrest fractures be treated using cross-screws?

A

Prematurely fused the physis , the shorten the unaffected side

81
Q

Which device can be used to lengthen the short side of a limb?

A

Intramedullary device

82
Q

How can angular deformity be treated?

A

Stop growth of unaffected side to maintain balance or reform bone

83
Q

What is the first step to fracture management after resuscitation?

A

Reduce - correct the deformity and displacement

84
Q

What is closed reduction?

A

Reducing a fracture without making an incision (Traction and manipulation)

85
Q

What is open reduction?

A

Make an incision, and the realignment of the fracture under direct visualisation (ORIF)

86
Q

What is Gallows Traction (Closed)?

A

Holding the skin, the long bones of the lower limb can be reduced
MUA

87
Q

What is the risk of healing in paediatric populations?

A

Overgrowth and excessing healing

88
Q

What is a spica cast?

A

Holds the lower limb in place

89
Q

What is external restriction?

A

Splints and plasters

90
Q

Why can an ORIF be avoided in a paediatric fracture?

A

Due to remodelling and healing potential

91
Q

What is internal restriction?

A

using plates and screws

Intra-medullary devices

92
Q

What is operative restriction?

A

Operative intervention maybe required due to fracture affecting the physis (correct the deformity to avoid further trauma)

93
Q

What is recommended during the rehabilitation phase of a patient paediatric fracture?

A

Playing

94
Q

What is classified as an orthopaedic emergency in a paediatric patient presenting with a fracture?

A

Septic arthritis

95
Q

What is septic arthritis in a paediatric patient?

A

Presence of infection within the intra-articular space/synovium - necrotic effect is exhibited by proteases and generates pressure effect on chondrocyets and cartilage due to oedema within closed space

96
Q

Why is there a risk of necrosis within septic arthritis?

A

Proteases generate pressure effect on chondryocytes and cartilage due to oedema within a closed space

97
Q

What classification criteria is used in a patient with septic arthritis?

A

Kocher’s classification

98
Q

What is Kocher’s classification?

A
  • Non-weight bearing
  • ESR >40
  • WBC >12,000
  • Temperature >38
99
Q

What is the treatment of septic arthritis in a paediatric patient?

A

Surgical lavage is required in order to clear the infection, in addition to antibiotic treatment

100
Q

How can transient synovitis be diagnosed?

A

Once septic arthritis has been excluded

Inflamed joint response to a systemic illness

101
Q

What is Perthe’s disease?

A

Idiopathic necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis.
• Usually in 4-8 years olds
• Male 4:1 Female.

Septic arthritis needs to be excluded first.
• No hyperpyrexia or raised inflammatory markers
• Radiograph is diagnostic test.

102
Q

What is the treatment for SUFE disease?

A

Slipped under femoral epiphysis (SUFE)
The proximal epiphysis slips in relation to the metaphysis

Treatment is operative fixation with screw to prevent further slippage.

BRS 1b (62 decks)

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