Reproductive System Flashcards

(187 cards)

1
Q

T/F: mesonephric ducts (wolfian) relate to female development while paramesonephric ducts (mullerian) relate to male development

A

FALSE, opposite

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2
Q

animals that have gonads of both sexes

A

hermaphrodites

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3
Q

animals that have inconsistency with gonads and tubular genitalia

A

pseudohermaphrodite

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4
Q

match “male pseudohermaphrodite” and “female pseudohermaphrodite” to the following:

a. many male characteristics externally but internally has ovaries
b. has external appearance of female but has testes

A

male pseudohermaphrodite (b)

female pseudohermaphrodite (a)

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5
Q
A

true hermaphrodite

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6
Q
A

male pseudohermaphrodite

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7
Q
A

female pseudohermaphrodite

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8
Q

twin fetuses > placental vascular anastomosis > exchange of blood between fetuses > sterile female co-twin of male

A

free martinism, cow is infertile (vulva, vagina and prominent clitoris externally. bulbourethral and vesicular glands, deferent duct, and incomplete segments of uterus. gonads = testis w/ epididymis attached)

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9
Q

what developmental anomaly is this?

A

persistent hymen

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10
Q

what developmental anomaly is this?

A

segmental aplasia of uterine horn

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11
Q

what syndrome is characterized by a lack of a sex chromosome, (XO) (63/64) leading to no female hormones, underdeveloped ovaries (non-functioning) and reproductive tract including a small vulva and vagina?

A

equine turner’s syndrome

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12
Q

T/F: dogs and cats with ovarian remnants can not continue to cycle after an ovariohysterectomy

A

FALSE, small bits can still work

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13
Q
A

follicular cyst (estrogen > prolonged estrus or anoestrus)

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14
Q
A

luteinized cyst (progesterone > anoestrum)

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15
Q
A

hydatids of morgagni (mare)

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16
Q
A

paraovarian cysts

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17
Q
A

intrafollicular hemorrhage

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18
Q
A

periovarian hemorrhage

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19
Q

sex chord tumors (granulosa-theca cell tumors), epithelial tumors (adenoma and adenocarcinoma), germ cell tumors (dysgerminoma and teratoma) and nongonadal tumors are examples of what type of neoplasm?

A

ovarian neoplasms

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20
Q
A
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21
Q

what type of tumor is this? hint: its the most common ovarian tumor in cows and mares

A

granulosa cell tumor (granulosa-theca cell tumors), sex cord stromal neoplasm

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22
Q

T/F: sex cord stromal neoplasms produce the hormones estrogen and androgen

A

TRUE (anoestrus, continuous or intermittent estrus, and male behaviors)

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23
Q

what is diagnostic in the histology of a granulosa cell tumor?

A

call-exner bodies (rosettes of granulosa cells surrounding pink proteinaceous fluid) inhibin + cells

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24
Q
A

teratoma (ovary neoplasm)

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25
a neoplasm that contains cells from two or more germ cell lines: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
teratoma
26
T/F: macroscopically teratomas may include hair, cartilage, bone, liver, and kidneys
TRUE
27
malignant tumors of primordial germ cells of the embryonic gonad
dysgerminoma
28
ovarian adenoma and adenocarcinoma
29
ovarian adenoma and adenocarcinoma
30
adenocarcinoma
31
this oophoritis in a chicken is caused by what bacteria?
salmonella
32
uterine tube distended and filled with clear watery mucus; usually secondary to obstruction (congenital or inflammatory)
hydrosalpinx
33
inflammation of the fallopian tubes, usually secondary to endometritis; may lead to pyosalpinx and interfere with fertility
salpingitis
34
accumulation of pus in the fallopian tube following obstruction of the lumen
pyosalpinx
35
hint: most commonly occurs in enlarged uteruses (pregnancy, pyometra or mucometra) and in cows/mares
uterus torsion (\>local circulatory obstruction\> edema\> death of fetus\> mummification or maceration/rupture of uterus)
36
T/F: uterus torsions account for 5-10% of serious cases of dystocia in cows
FALSE, mares
37
uterine prolapse
38
what are some causes of uterus prolapse?
dystocia, forced traction, retained placenta post parturient hypocalcemia
39
uterine prolapse with endometrial eversion in association w/ unusual diffuse, polypoid fibrosing perimetritis and parametritis
40
what are three things that can cause uterine rupture?
- obstetrical manipulations - dystocia - fluid infusions
41
hydrometra
42
accumulation of thin or viscid fluid in the uterus (secondary to endometrial hyperplasia or congenital obstruction)
hydrometra or mucometra
43
inflammation of endometrium only
endometritis
44
inflammation of all layers of uterine wall
metritis
45
inflammation extending to tissues surrounding uterus
perimetritis
46
accumulations of pus in the lumen of the uterus
pyometra
47
T/F: most uterine infections start as endometritis and may or may not progress to metritis, perimetritis or pyometra
TRUE
48
under what circumstances is the uterus' resistance to infection reduced?
during pregnancy, under the influence of progesterone and postpartum, following dystocia, retained placenta, or slow involution
49
diffuse fibrinosuppurative metritis
50
metritis
51
what are the most frequent disorders of the uterus in middle-aged and older intact dogs?
cystic endometrial hyperplasia (CEH) and pyometra
52
T/F: endometrial hyperplasia is often due to prolonged hyperestrogenism (dogs,cats) or excess progesterone (from persistent CL) with estrogen priming (farm animals)
FALSE, opposite
53
cystic ovarian follicles, granulosa cell tumors, estrogenic pastures (clover, sheep), zearalenone (and other mycotoxins) are all what type of sources?
estrogen
54
a sheep ate moldy corn! what pathology do you think with reproduction?
endometrial hyperplasia
55
abnormal response of the uterus to repeated long periods of high serum-progesterone []s during the luteal phases of the estrous cycle
cystic endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra
56
T/F: progesterone increases myometrial contractions, inhibits leukocyte activity, and increases the risk for bacterial growth leading to cystic endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra
FALSE, progesterone DECREASES myometrial contractions
57
T/F: the diestral period supports an environment for bacteria to survive
TRUE
58
cystic endometrial hyperplasia (cystic distention of endometrial glands) - pyometra syndrome
59
60
what makes the environment suitable for bacteria to grow in a uterus causing a pyometra?
PROGESTERONE! it causes immunosuppresion (estrogen binds to estrogen receptors in endometrium \> synthesis of intracellular progresterone receptors \> progesterone binds \> accumulations of endometrial secretions)
61
T/F: low grade infections can promote endometrial hyperplasia
TRUE
62
this histology of a uterus is portraying what?
endometrial hyperplasia
63
accute or chronic inflammation characterized by accumulation of pus in the uterine lumen; usually secondary to endometritis
pyometra
64
T/F: pyometras characteristically affect younger animals (especially those that haven't been spayed)
FALSE, older animals (especially those that haven't been bred)
65
T/F: pyometras most often develop a few weeks after estrus
TRUE
66
a dog comes in and is depressed, anorexic, vomiting, PU/PD and has vaginal discharge...what do you suspect?
pyometra
67
bone marrow depression and anemia, marked EMH in spleen and liver, marked leucocytosis, and immune complex glomerulonephritis are all extragenital lesions that can be seen in dogs with what?
pyometra
68
describe what you would typically see in the histology of a pyometra?
large numbers of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the endometrial stroma, surface epithelium is hyperplastic and papillary, luminal epithelial cells are vacuolated
69
contagious equine metritis (CEM) is a venereal disease of mares caused by what bacteria?
taylorella equigenitalis
70
who are the carriers of taylorella equigenitalis and don't develop the clinical disease it causes?
stallions
71
T/F: taylorella equigenitalis is a reportable disease in many states
TRUE
72
what do you typically see clinically with contagious equine metritis?
temporary infertility and mild to moderate inflammation of the endometrium
73
you visit a farm and see the mare below. what is the most likely diagnosis?
CEM
74
endometrial biopsies and their evaluation system are based on identification and scoring what what four microscopic lesions?
inflammation, dilation of lymphatics, loss of glands, fibrosis
75
hint: histology from a mare
endometrial fibrosis, fibrosis from endometrial inflammation and edema \>endometrial glands form nests
76
what does endometrial fibrosis cause clinically in a mare?
reduced fertility due to lack of attachment of conceptus, or failure of formation of normal microcotyledons and reduced placental area
77
uterus adenomyosis
78
presence of endometrial glands and stroma between the muscle bundles of the myometrium
uterus adenomyosis
79
endometriosis (ectopic edometrial glands)
80
actively growing endometrial tissues explanted to aberrant sites within and outside the uterus
endometriosis (ectopic endometrial glands)
81
endometriosis (ectopic endometrial glands) occur in what animals?
primates and nonhuman primates
82
83
T/F: uterine neoplasms are common in domestic animals
FALSE, not common
84
T/F: uterine adenocarcinomas are very common in rabbits
TRUE
85
uterine adenocarcinoma (rabbit)
86
T/F: lymphosarcoma in cows is the most common encountered metastatic neoplasm (BLV-positive cows)
TRUE
87
leiomyomas (neoplasms of uterus) = smooth muscle neoplasm
88
uterine leiomyoma
89
what is the source of gonadotropin (which signals the ovary to keep making progesterone) in mares?
endometrial cups
90
layer that contacts the mother; in most species fused w/ allantois
chorion
91
contains fetal urine and other fluids arising from the membrane itself
allantois
92
smooth translucent membrane that surrounds the fetus and holds amniotic fluid; the fetal side can usually be identified by presence of amniotic plaques
amnion
93
dome-shaped areas in the uterus
caruncles
94
cotyledons
forms on the placenta
95
cotyledons attached to caruncles =
placentome (only place where maternal-fetal blood in contact)
96
T/F: monogastrics have maximum # of cell layers on both maternal and fetal side (low permeability for large molecules)
FALSE, ruminants
97
foci of squamous epithelium on internal surface of amnion commonly on bovine amnion during 3-5 months of gestation, =incidental finding
amnitoic plaques
98
amniotic plaques
99
contact all over the uterus, # layers same as ruminants = what type of placenta?
diffuse placenta
100
what two animals have diffuse placentas?
horse and swine
101
in what animal do you see cervical stars?
horses
102
non-glandular area of placenta near cervix (stratified squamous epithelium), placenta cannot interdigitate over cervix, fibrous area
cervical star (horses)
103
zonary placenta
104
dogs and cats have what sort of placenta?
zonary placenta (zone or band of placenta interdigitating, fewer layers between mother and fetus)
105
discoid placenta
106
what type of placenta is seen in laboratory animals and primates?
discoid placenta (LEAST # of layers between mother and fetus)
107
T/F: as far as what placenta has the most layers... zonary\>placental\>discoid
FALSE, diffuse\>zonary\>discoid
108
flat, smooth and rubbery amalgums of protein and minerals found in the allantoic fluid of all herbivours
hippomanes (incidental finding)
109
hippomanes are most common in what animal?
equids
110
hippomanes
111
T/F: yolk sac remnants, allantoic pouches and placental mineralization are commonly observed in mares
TRUE
112
placental insufficiency may lead to what?
fetal death, mummification or abortion
113
in what cases are placental insuffieciencies in a mare seen?
- twinning - endometrial fibrosis - premature placental separation - uterine body pregnancy - torsion of the umbilical cord
114
development of intercotyledonary placentation in cattle (mechanism of compensation for inadequate development of placentomes)
adventitial placentation
115
excessive accumulation of fluid in the amniotic or allantoic sacs
hydramnios and hydroallantois
116
T/F: hydramnios is associated with uterine disease with inadequate numbers of caruncles and the development of adventitial placentation in cattle while hydroallantois is usually associated with malformation of the fetus (i.e. facial anomalies)
FALSE, opposite
117
retained placenta
118
fibrinous placentitis
119
subinvolution of placental sites in dogs
120
subinvolution of placental sites
121
T/F: rupture and hemoperitoneum are complications that might be seen with subinvolution of placental sites in dogs
TRUE
122
what would you see grossly with subinvolution of placental sites in dogs?
incomplete involution of placental sites, multiple segmental thickenings visible from the serosal surface, hemorrhagic and thickened endometrium, raised, rough placental sites with gray-brown plaques and serosanguinous fluid in uterine lumen
123
what accounts for many of the early embryonic losses/mortalities in animals?
chromosomal abnormalities
124
T/F: abortion, stillbirth, mummification, and maceration are all results of fetal death occuring during the early state of gestation
FALSE, all result from fetal death later in development
125
expulsion of a fetus prior to the time of expected viability
abortion
126
death of a fetus in the last part of gestation during the period where it is independently viable
stillbirth
127
stillbirth piglets (porcine parvovirus)
128
fetus retained indefinitely and dehydrated
mummification
129
T/F: mummification typically doesn't involve a bacterial infection to promote tissue lysis or putrefaction
TRUE
130
mummification
131
below situations all can be a cause of what type of fetal death? - horse: twinning - cattle: BVD virus infection - dog: canine herpesvirus - cat: uterine horn torsion - sow: parvoviral infection
mummification
132
maceration
133
dead fetus is retained and infected by bacteria, may be associated with dystocia or incomplete abortion, may lead to pyometra and maternal death from peritonitis and sepsis, toxemia
maceration
134
at what point is it necessary to submit aborted bovine fetuses for diagnostic evaluation?
- abortion rate exceeds 3% (maximum tolerable abortion rate) - number of animals abort over a short period of time
135
what are two common causes of embryonic loss in cattle?
**-campylobacter foetus subsp. venerealis**: genital infection, cause of infertility, early embryonic deaths at 3-4 weeks, intercotyledonary placentitis and necrosis of cotyledons **-tritrichomonas foetus**: embryonic death or overt abortion, pyometra, protozoa in preputial washes, vaginal mucus and cases of abortion, stomach contents of fetus
136
umbilical cord torsion
137
T/F: an umbilical cord that is less than 36 cm may be associated with premature separation of the placenta at the site of attachment
TRUE
138
T/F: 30-40% of porcine abortions are primarily infectious
TRUE
139
what bacteria in pigs causes abortion occuring between 2-3 months of pregnancy and a high incidence of stillborn and weak piglets born at term?
brucella suis
140
what bacteria in dogs can cause abortion after 30 days (most occuring after 50 days) and prolonged vaginal discharge after abortion?
brucella canis
141
what does SMEDI stand for?
stillbirths, mummification, embryonic death and infertility complex
142
SMEDI-type problems are caused by what virus?
porcine parvovirus, less frequently enteroviruses
143
"full-term litter consisting of small mummified fetus ranging up to full-grown, stillborn or live weakly piglets, due to progressive infection in utero; abortion rarely occurs" are all classical signs of what?
SMEDI
144
you see the following placenta and fetus, what do you suspect?
mycotic abortion
145
you see this cytology from a leathery fetus, what do you suspect?
mycotic abortion
146
this cotyledonary necrosis is caused by what?
toxoplasma gondii
147
this multifocal necrotizing hepatitis is caused by what?
Campylobacter fetus subsps. fetus or C. jejuni
148
multifocal necrosis: liver, horse \> equine herpesvirus 1
149
covered w/ hair, remnant of twin fetus thats attached to the placenta of the normal twin by a stalk
acardiac monster (bovine amorphous globosus)
150
how is cervicitis (inflammation of the cervix) acquired?
result of injury and secondary infection OR extension from endometrium
151
nabothian cysts of the vagina
152
T/F: bartholin's glands in the vagina are anatomical analogs of bulbourethral glands (cowper's glands) in males
TRUE
153
what is a common cause of vulva hyperplasia?
consumption of moldy corn! corn is contaminated with fungus fusarium that produces zearalenone (toxin) \> mimics estrogen leading to hyperplasia (cattle and pigs)
154
granular vulvitis (development and hyperplasia of subepithelial lymphoid follicles of vulva and vestibule \> raised white nodules on vulval mucosa)
155
what bacteria causes granular vulvitis?
ureaplasma diversum
156
infectious pustular vulvovaginitis (necrosis and ulceration of mucosa of vestibule) caused by BHV 1
157
coital exanthema, ulcerative vulvitis in mare (heals w/ depigmented regions) caused by EHV 3
158
polyp
159
squamous cell carcinoma
160
transmissible venereal tumor
161
inflammation of the mammary gland usually due to infectious agents (mainly bacteria, some fungi) that gain access through the teat canal
mastitis (clinical and subclinical)
162
when is peak occurence of mastitis?
shortly after calving and in the dry period
163
severe necrotic mastitis, coliform mastitis
164
suppurative mastitis (lactiferous sinus and ducts filled with viscous yellow pus) =bacterial infection
165
chronic mastitis and galactophoritis (chronic inflammation of the lactiferous ducts and adjacent mammary glands \> replacement of gland w/ pyogranulomas and abscesses w/ yellow pus)
166
what bacteria causes chronic mastitis and galactophoritis?
nocardia spp.
167
Streptococcus agalactia, staphylococcus aureus and mycoplasma spp cause what kind of mastitis?
contagious
168
what bacteria can elaborate an a-toxin that causes vasoconstriction and ischemia to the udder resulting in gangrenous mastitis
staphylococcus aureus
169
this ubiquitous bacteria infects through the teat canal and may cause an acute and often fatal disease due to its endotoxin that causes vascular damange leading to fluid exudates, hemorrhage, thrombosis and necrosis ("environmental mastitis")
E. coli
170
environmental mastitis caused by e coli is most severe in what animals?
newly calved cows transiently immunosuppressed
171
severe coliform mastitis
172
granulomatous mastitis can be caused by what bacteria?
- mycobacterium sp. - nocardia sp. - candida spp.
173
T/F: viral diseases, ovine progressive pneumonia, and CAE are other causes of mastitis that cause diffuse interstitial mastitis that is not grossly recognizable
TRUE
174
T/F: mammary tumors are more commonly seen in dogs and are rare in other species
FALSE, dogs AND cats
175
mammary masses
176
what is one of the most commonly diagnosed tumor in female dogs?
mammary neoplasias, epithelial tumors = most commonly diagnosed
177
T/F: simple adenomas have a mixed proliferation of secretory epithelial cells and myoepithelial cells while complex adenomas have a proliferation of well-differentiated luminal epithelial cells
FALSE, opposite
178
mixture of epithelial and stromal cells...this is describing what kind of benign mammary tumor?
fibroadenoma
179
proliferation of glandular and mesenchymal elements...this is describing what kind of benign mammary tumor?
benign mixed tumor
180
papillomatous projections in distended ducts...this is describing what kind of benign mammary tumor?
duct papilloma
181
T/F: mammary gland is the most common site of extraskeletal soft tissue osteosarcoma in dogs
TRUE
182
at what estrus cycle do you want to perform a ovariohysterectomy on a dog to decrease the chance of mammary neoplasm development?
by the 4th estrus cycle
183
what is the third most common neoplasm in domestic cats?
mammary neoplasias, tumor size = single most important prognostic factor in cats
184
mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia (benign, nonneoplastic proliferation of mammary ducts and CT of young intact cats, pregnant cats, or older neutered male and female cats on prolonged progesterone therapy)
185
mammary fibroadenoma
186
187
mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia (lobules of branching ductal structures lined by epithelial cells surrounding edematous myoepithelial stroma)