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Path II Exam I > Reproductive System > Flashcards

Reproductive System Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: mesonephric ducts (wolfian) relate to female development while paramesonephric ducts (mullerian) relate to male development

A

FALSE, opposite

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2
Q

animals that have gonads of both sexes

A

hermaphrodites

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3
Q

animals that have inconsistency with gonads and tubular genitalia

A

pseudohermaphrodite

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4
Q

match “male pseudohermaphrodite” and “female pseudohermaphrodite” to the following:

a. many male characteristics externally but internally has ovaries
b. has external appearance of female but has testes

A

male pseudohermaphrodite (b)

female pseudohermaphrodite (a)

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5
Q
A

true hermaphrodite

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6
Q
A

male pseudohermaphrodite

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7
Q
A

female pseudohermaphrodite

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8
Q

twin fetuses > placental vascular anastomosis > exchange of blood between fetuses > sterile female co-twin of male

A

free martinism, cow is infertile (vulva, vagina and prominent clitoris externally. bulbourethral and vesicular glands, deferent duct, and incomplete segments of uterus. gonads = testis w/ epididymis attached)

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9
Q

what developmental anomaly is this?

A

persistent hymen

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10
Q

what developmental anomaly is this?

A

segmental aplasia of uterine horn

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11
Q

what syndrome is characterized by a lack of a sex chromosome, (XO) (63/64) leading to no female hormones, underdeveloped ovaries (non-functioning) and reproductive tract including a small vulva and vagina?

A

equine turner’s syndrome

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12
Q

T/F: dogs and cats with ovarian remnants can not continue to cycle after an ovariohysterectomy

A

FALSE, small bits can still work

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13
Q
A

follicular cyst (estrogen > prolonged estrus or anoestrus)

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14
Q
A

luteinized cyst (progesterone > anoestrum)

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15
Q
A

hydatids of morgagni (mare)

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16
Q
A

paraovarian cysts

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17
Q
A

intrafollicular hemorrhage

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18
Q
A

periovarian hemorrhage

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19
Q

sex chord tumors (granulosa-theca cell tumors), epithelial tumors (adenoma and adenocarcinoma), germ cell tumors (dysgerminoma and teratoma) and nongonadal tumors are examples of what type of neoplasm?

A

ovarian neoplasms

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20
Q
A
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21
Q

what type of tumor is this? hint: its the most common ovarian tumor in cows and mares

A

granulosa cell tumor (granulosa-theca cell tumors), sex cord stromal neoplasm

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22
Q

T/F: sex cord stromal neoplasms produce the hormones estrogen and androgen

A

TRUE (anoestrus, continuous or intermittent estrus, and male behaviors)

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23
Q

what is diagnostic in the histology of a granulosa cell tumor?

A

call-exner bodies (rosettes of granulosa cells surrounding pink proteinaceous fluid) inhibin + cells

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24
Q
A

teratoma (ovary neoplasm)

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25
Q

a neoplasm that contains cells from two or more germ cell lines: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm

A

teratoma

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26
Q

T/F: macroscopically teratomas may include hair, cartilage, bone, liver, and kidneys

A

TRUE

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27
Q

malignant tumors of primordial germ cells of the embryonic gonad

A

dysgerminoma

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28
Q
A

ovarian adenoma and adenocarcinoma

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29
Q
A

ovarian adenoma and adenocarcinoma

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30
Q
A

adenocarcinoma

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31
Q

this oophoritis in a chicken is caused by what bacteria?

A

salmonella

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32
Q

uterine tube distended and filled with clear watery mucus; usually secondary to obstruction (congenital or inflammatory)

A

hydrosalpinx

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33
Q

inflammation of the fallopian tubes, usually secondary to endometritis; may lead to pyosalpinx and interfere with fertility

A

salpingitis

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34
Q

accumulation of pus in the fallopian tube following obstruction of the lumen

A

pyosalpinx

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35
Q

hint: most commonly occurs in enlarged uteruses (pregnancy, pyometra or mucometra) and in cows/mares

A

uterus torsion (>local circulatory obstruction> edema> death of fetus> mummification or maceration/rupture of uterus)

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36
Q

T/F: uterus torsions account for 5-10% of serious cases of dystocia in cows

A

FALSE, mares

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37
Q
A

uterine prolapse

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38
Q

what are some causes of uterus prolapse?

A

dystocia, forced traction, retained placenta post parturient hypocalcemia

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39
Q
A

uterine prolapse with endometrial eversion in association w/ unusual diffuse, polypoid fibrosing perimetritis and parametritis

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40
Q

what are three things that can cause uterine rupture?

A
  • obstetrical manipulations
  • dystocia
  • fluid infusions
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41
Q
A

hydrometra

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42
Q

accumulation of thin or viscid fluid in the uterus (secondary to endometrial hyperplasia or congenital obstruction)

A

hydrometra or mucometra

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43
Q

inflammation of endometrium only

A

endometritis

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44
Q

inflammation of all layers of uterine wall

A

metritis

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45
Q

inflammation extending to tissues surrounding uterus

A

perimetritis

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46
Q

accumulations of pus in the lumen of the uterus

A

pyometra

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47
Q

T/F: most uterine infections start as endometritis and may or may not progress to metritis, perimetritis or pyometra

A

TRUE

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48
Q

under what circumstances is the uterus’ resistance to infection reduced?

A

during pregnancy, under the influence of progesterone and postpartum, following dystocia, retained placenta, or slow involution

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49
Q
A

diffuse fibrinosuppurative metritis

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50
Q
A

metritis

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51
Q

what are the most frequent disorders of the uterus in middle-aged and older intact dogs?

A

cystic endometrial hyperplasia (CEH) and pyometra

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52
Q

T/F: endometrial hyperplasia is often due to prolonged hyperestrogenism (dogs,cats) or excess progesterone (from persistent CL) with estrogen priming (farm animals)

A

FALSE, opposite

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53
Q

cystic ovarian follicles, granulosa cell tumors, estrogenic pastures (clover, sheep), zearalenone (and other mycotoxins) are all what type of sources?

A

estrogen

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54
Q

a sheep ate moldy corn! what pathology do you think with reproduction?

A

endometrial hyperplasia

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55
Q

abnormal response of the uterus to repeated long periods of high serum-progesterone []s during the luteal phases of the estrous cycle

A

cystic endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra

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56
Q

T/F: progesterone increases myometrial contractions, inhibits leukocyte activity, and increases the risk for bacterial growth leading to cystic endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra

A

FALSE, progesterone DECREASES myometrial contractions

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57
Q

T/F: the diestral period supports an environment for bacteria to survive

A

TRUE

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58
Q
A

cystic endometrial hyperplasia (cystic distention of endometrial glands) - pyometra syndrome

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59
Q
A
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60
Q

what makes the environment suitable for bacteria to grow in a uterus causing a pyometra?

A

PROGESTERONE! it causes immunosuppresion

(estrogen binds to estrogen receptors in endometrium > synthesis of intracellular progresterone receptors > progesterone binds > accumulations of endometrial secretions)

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61
Q

T/F: low grade infections can promote endometrial hyperplasia

A

TRUE

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62
Q

this histology of a uterus is portraying what?

A

endometrial hyperplasia

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63
Q

accute or chronic inflammation characterized by accumulation of pus in the uterine lumen; usually secondary to endometritis

A

pyometra

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64
Q

T/F: pyometras characteristically affect younger animals (especially those that haven’t been spayed)

A

FALSE, older animals (especially those that haven’t been bred)

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65
Q

T/F: pyometras most often develop a few weeks after estrus

A

TRUE

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66
Q

a dog comes in and is depressed, anorexic, vomiting, PU/PD and has vaginal discharge…what do you suspect?

A

pyometra

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67
Q

bone marrow depression and anemia, marked EMH in spleen and liver, marked leucocytosis, and immune complex glomerulonephritis are all extragenital lesions that can be seen in dogs with what?

A

pyometra

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68
Q

describe what you would typically see in the histology of a pyometra?

A

large numbers of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the endometrial stroma, surface epithelium is hyperplastic and papillary, luminal epithelial cells are vacuolated

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69
Q

contagious equine metritis (CEM) is a venereal disease of mares caused by what bacteria?

A

taylorella equigenitalis

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70
Q

who are the carriers of taylorella equigenitalis and don’t develop the clinical disease it causes?

A

stallions

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71
Q

T/F: taylorella equigenitalis is a reportable disease in many states

A

TRUE

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72
Q

what do you typically see clinically with contagious equine metritis?

A

temporary infertility and mild to moderate inflammation of the endometrium

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73
Q

you visit a farm and see the mare below. what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

CEM

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74
Q

endometrial biopsies and their evaluation system are based on identification and scoring what what four microscopic lesions?

A

inflammation, dilation of lymphatics, loss of glands, fibrosis

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75
Q

hint: histology from a mare

A

endometrial fibrosis, fibrosis from endometrial inflammation and edema >endometrial glands form nests

76
Q

what does endometrial fibrosis cause clinically in a mare?

A

reduced fertility due to lack of attachment of conceptus, or failure of formation of normal microcotyledons and reduced placental area

77
Q
A

uterus adenomyosis

78
Q

presence of endometrial glands and stroma between the muscle bundles of the myometrium

A

uterus adenomyosis

79
Q
A

endometriosis (ectopic edometrial glands)

80
Q

actively growing endometrial tissues explanted to aberrant sites within and outside the uterus

A

endometriosis (ectopic endometrial glands)

81
Q

endometriosis (ectopic endometrial glands) occur in what animals?

A

primates and nonhuman primates

82
Q
A
83
Q

T/F: uterine neoplasms are common in domestic animals

A

FALSE, not common

84
Q

T/F: uterine adenocarcinomas are very common in rabbits

A

TRUE

85
Q
A

uterine adenocarcinoma (rabbit)

86
Q

T/F: lymphosarcoma in cows is the most common encountered metastatic neoplasm (BLV-positive cows)

A

TRUE

87
Q
A

leiomyomas (neoplasms of uterus) = smooth muscle neoplasm

88
Q
A

uterine leiomyoma

89
Q

what is the source of gonadotropin (which signals the ovary to keep making progesterone) in mares?

A

endometrial cups

90
Q

layer that contacts the mother; in most species fused w/ allantois

A

chorion

91
Q

contains fetal urine and other fluids arising from the membrane itself

A

allantois

92
Q

smooth translucent membrane that surrounds the fetus and holds amniotic fluid; the fetal side can usually be identified by presence of amniotic plaques

A

amnion

93
Q

dome-shaped areas in the uterus

A

caruncles

94
Q

cotyledons

A

forms on the placenta

95
Q

cotyledons attached to caruncles =

A

placentome (only place where maternal-fetal blood in contact)

96
Q

T/F: monogastrics have maximum # of cell layers on both maternal and fetal side (low permeability for large molecules)

A

FALSE, ruminants

97
Q

foci of squamous epithelium on internal surface of amnion commonly on bovine amnion during 3-5 months of gestation, =incidental finding

A

amnitoic plaques

98
Q
A

amniotic plaques

99
Q

contact all over the uterus, # layers same as ruminants = what type of placenta?

A

diffuse placenta

100
Q

what two animals have diffuse placentas?

A

horse and swine

101
Q

in what animal do you see cervical stars?

A

horses

102
Q

non-glandular area of placenta near cervix (stratified squamous epithelium), placenta cannot interdigitate over cervix, fibrous area

A

cervical star (horses)

103
Q
A

zonary placenta

104
Q

dogs and cats have what sort of placenta?

A

zonary placenta (zone or band of placenta interdigitating, fewer layers between mother and fetus)

105
Q
A

discoid placenta

106
Q

what type of placenta is seen in laboratory animals and primates?

A

discoid placenta (LEAST # of layers between mother and fetus)

107
Q

T/F: as far as what placenta has the most layers… zonary>placental>discoid

A

FALSE, diffuse>zonary>discoid

108
Q

flat, smooth and rubbery amalgums of protein and minerals found in the allantoic fluid of all herbivours

A

hippomanes (incidental finding)

109
Q

hippomanes are most common in what animal?

A

equids

110
Q
A

hippomanes

111
Q

T/F: yolk sac remnants, allantoic pouches and placental mineralization are commonly observed in mares

A

TRUE

112
Q

placental insufficiency may lead to what?

A

fetal death, mummification or abortion

113
Q

in what cases are placental insuffieciencies in a mare seen?

A
  • twinning
  • endometrial fibrosis
  • premature placental separation
  • uterine body pregnancy
  • torsion of the umbilical cord
114
Q

development of intercotyledonary placentation in cattle (mechanism of compensation for inadequate development of placentomes)

A

adventitial placentation

115
Q

excessive accumulation of fluid in the amniotic or allantoic sacs

A

hydramnios and hydroallantois

116
Q

T/F: hydramnios is associated with uterine disease with inadequate numbers of caruncles and the development of adventitial placentation in cattle while hydroallantois is usually associated with malformation of the fetus (i.e. facial anomalies)

A

FALSE, opposite

117
Q
A

retained placenta

118
Q
A

fibrinous placentitis

119
Q
A

subinvolution of placental sites in dogs

120
Q
A

subinvolution of placental sites

121
Q

T/F: rupture and hemoperitoneum are complications that might be seen with subinvolution of placental sites in dogs

A

TRUE

122
Q

what would you see grossly with subinvolution of placental sites in dogs?

A

incomplete involution of placental sites, multiple segmental thickenings visible from the serosal surface, hemorrhagic and thickened endometrium, raised, rough placental sites with gray-brown plaques and serosanguinous fluid in uterine lumen

123
Q

what accounts for many of the early embryonic losses/mortalities in animals?

A

chromosomal abnormalities

124
Q

T/F: abortion, stillbirth, mummification, and maceration are all results of fetal death occuring during the early state of gestation

A

FALSE, all result from fetal death later in development

125
Q

expulsion of a fetus prior to the time of expected viability

A

abortion

126
Q

death of a fetus in the last part of gestation during the period where it is independently viable

A

stillbirth

127
Q
A

stillbirth piglets (porcine parvovirus)

128
Q

fetus retained indefinitely and dehydrated

A

mummification

129
Q

T/F: mummification typically doesn’t involve a bacterial infection to promote tissue lysis or putrefaction

A

TRUE

130
Q
A

mummification

131
Q

below situations all can be a cause of what type of fetal death?

  • horse: twinning
  • cattle: BVD virus infection
  • dog: canine herpesvirus
  • cat: uterine horn torsion
  • sow: parvoviral infection
A

mummification

132
Q
A

maceration

133
Q

dead fetus is retained and infected by bacteria, may be associated with dystocia or incomplete abortion, may lead to pyometra and maternal death from peritonitis and sepsis, toxemia

A

maceration

134
Q

at what point is it necessary to submit aborted bovine fetuses for diagnostic evaluation?

A
  • abortion rate exceeds 3% (maximum tolerable abortion rate)
  • number of animals abort over a short period of time
135
Q

what are two common causes of embryonic loss in cattle?

A

-campylobacter foetus subsp. venerealis: genital infection, cause of infertility, early embryonic deaths at 3-4 weeks, intercotyledonary placentitis and necrosis of cotyledons

-tritrichomonas foetus: embryonic death or overt abortion, pyometra, protozoa in preputial washes, vaginal mucus and cases of abortion, stomach contents of fetus

136
Q
A

umbilical cord torsion

137
Q

T/F: an umbilical cord that is less than 36 cm may be associated with premature separation of the placenta at the site of attachment

A

TRUE

138
Q

T/F: 30-40% of porcine abortions are primarily infectious

A

TRUE

139
Q

what bacteria in pigs causes abortion occuring between 2-3 months of pregnancy and a high incidence of stillborn and weak piglets born at term?

A

brucella suis

140
Q

what bacteria in dogs can cause abortion after 30 days (most occuring after 50 days) and prolonged vaginal discharge after abortion?

A

brucella canis

141
Q

what does SMEDI stand for?

A

stillbirths, mummification, embryonic death and infertility complex

142
Q

SMEDI-type problems are caused by what virus?

A

porcine parvovirus, less frequently enteroviruses

143
Q

“full-term litter consisting of small mummified fetus ranging up to full-grown, stillborn or live weakly piglets, due to progressive infection in utero; abortion rarely occurs” are all classical signs of what?

A

SMEDI

144
Q

you see the following placenta and fetus, what do you suspect?

A

mycotic abortion

145
Q

you see this cytology from a leathery fetus, what do you suspect?

A

mycotic abortion

146
Q

this cotyledonary necrosis is caused by what?

A

toxoplasma gondii

147
Q

this multifocal necrotizing hepatitis is caused by what?

A

Campylobacter fetus subsps. fetus or C. jejuni

148
Q
A

multifocal necrosis: liver, horse > equine herpesvirus 1

149
Q

covered w/ hair, remnant of twin fetus thats attached to the placenta of the normal twin by a stalk

A

acardiac monster (bovine amorphous globosus)

150
Q

how is cervicitis (inflammation of the cervix) acquired?

A

result of injury and secondary infection OR extension from endometrium

151
Q
A

nabothian cysts of the vagina

152
Q

T/F: bartholin’s glands in the vagina are anatomical analogs of bulbourethral glands (cowper’s glands) in males

A

TRUE

153
Q

what is a common cause of vulva hyperplasia?

A

consumption of moldy corn! corn is contaminated with fungus fusarium that produces zearalenone (toxin) > mimics estrogen leading to hyperplasia (cattle and pigs)

154
Q
A

granular vulvitis (development and hyperplasia of subepithelial lymphoid follicles of vulva and vestibule > raised white nodules on vulval mucosa)

155
Q

what bacteria causes granular vulvitis?

A

ureaplasma diversum

156
Q
A

infectious pustular vulvovaginitis (necrosis and ulceration of mucosa of vestibule) caused by BHV 1

157
Q
A

coital exanthema, ulcerative vulvitis in mare (heals w/ depigmented regions) caused by EHV 3

158
Q
A

polyp

159
Q
A

squamous cell carcinoma

160
Q
A

transmissible venereal tumor

161
Q

inflammation of the mammary gland usually due to infectious agents (mainly bacteria, some fungi) that gain access through the teat canal

A

mastitis (clinical and subclinical)

162
Q

when is peak occurence of mastitis?

A

shortly after calving and in the dry period

163
Q
A

severe necrotic mastitis, coliform mastitis

164
Q
A

suppurative mastitis (lactiferous sinus and ducts filled with viscous yellow pus) =bacterial infection

165
Q
A

chronic mastitis and galactophoritis (chronic inflammation of the lactiferous ducts and adjacent mammary glands > replacement of gland w/ pyogranulomas and abscesses w/ yellow pus)

166
Q

what bacteria causes chronic mastitis and galactophoritis?

A

nocardia spp.

167
Q

Streptococcus agalactia, staphylococcus aureus and mycoplasma spp cause what kind of mastitis?

A

contagious

168
Q

what bacteria can elaborate an a-toxin that causes vasoconstriction and ischemia to the udder resulting in gangrenous mastitis

A

staphylococcus aureus

169
Q

this ubiquitous bacteria infects through the teat canal and may cause an acute and often fatal disease due to its endotoxin that causes vascular damange leading to fluid exudates, hemorrhage, thrombosis and necrosis (“environmental mastitis”)

A

E. coli

170
Q

environmental mastitis caused by e coli is most severe in what animals?

A

newly calved cows transiently immunosuppressed

171
Q
A

severe coliform mastitis

172
Q

granulomatous mastitis can be caused by what bacteria?

A
  • mycobacterium sp.
  • nocardia sp.
  • candida spp.
173
Q

T/F: viral diseases, ovine progressive pneumonia, and CAE are other causes of mastitis that cause diffuse interstitial mastitis that is not grossly recognizable

A

TRUE

174
Q

T/F: mammary tumors are more commonly seen in dogs and are rare in other species

A

FALSE, dogs AND cats

175
Q
A

mammary masses

176
Q

what is one of the most commonly diagnosed tumor in female dogs?

A

mammary neoplasias, epithelial tumors = most commonly diagnosed

177
Q

T/F: simple adenomas have a mixed proliferation of secretory epithelial cells and myoepithelial cells while complex adenomas have a proliferation of well-differentiated luminal epithelial cells

A

FALSE, opposite

178
Q

mixture of epithelial and stromal cells…this is describing what kind of benign mammary tumor?

A

fibroadenoma

179
Q

proliferation of glandular and mesenchymal elements…this is describing what kind of benign mammary tumor?

A

benign mixed tumor

180
Q

papillomatous projections in distended ducts…this is describing what kind of benign mammary tumor?

A

duct papilloma

181
Q

T/F: mammary gland is the most common site of extraskeletal soft tissue osteosarcoma in dogs

A

TRUE

182
Q

at what estrus cycle do you want to perform a ovariohysterectomy on a dog to decrease the chance of mammary neoplasm development?

A

by the 4th estrus cycle

183
Q

what is the third most common neoplasm in domestic cats?

A

mammary neoplasias, tumor size = single most important prognostic factor in cats

184
Q
A

mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia (benign, nonneoplastic proliferation of mammary ducts and CT of young intact cats, pregnant cats, or older neutered male and female cats on prolonged progesterone therapy)

185
Q
A

mammary fibroadenoma

186
Q
A
187
Q
A

mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia (lobules of branching ductal structures lined by epithelial cells surrounding edematous myoepithelial stroma)

Path II Exam I (3 decks)

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