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Biology 30 > Reproductive System > Flashcards

Reproductive System Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of sex is determined by the presence or absence of a Y chromosome?

A

chromosomal sex

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2
Q

What are the chormosomes for males and females

A

XY and XX respectively

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3
Q

What is the first degree of sex determination that depends on the presence of testes or ovaries?

A

Gonadal sex

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4
Q

What is the gene that determines gonad presentation?

A

SRY

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5
Q

Where is the SRY gene normally located?

A

Y chromosome

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6
Q

What protein does the SRY gene produce?

A

TDF protein

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7
Q

What does TDF stand for?

A

Testis-determining Factor

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8
Q

What does the TDF cause?

A

A fetus to develop male gonads

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9
Q

What is the second degree of sex determination that refers to the genitalia present?

A

Phenotypic sex

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10
Q

What is phenotypix sex determined by?

A

Hormonal products of gonads and cell sensitivity to those hormones

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11
Q

What can crossing over of the SRY gene cause?

A

gene moves from Y to X causing possible female characteristics in an XY individual and male characeristics in an XX individual

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12
Q

What syndrome creates XX chromosomal females to develop male physical features?

A

XX Male Syndrome

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13
Q

What syndrome creates XY chromosomal males to develop female physical features?

A

Swyer Syndrome

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14
Q

What occurs if TDG fails to be released?

A

XY chromosomal males may not develop testes

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15
Q

What occurs in the testes fail to produce enough androgens?

A

Results in range of effects, from undescended testes to having a completely female phenotype

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16
Q

What is 5-alpha-reductase?

A

An enzyme that is required to convert testosterone to the more potent form called DHT

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17
Q

What happens if there is a deficiency in the amount of 5-alpha-reductase that a person produces?

A

Can result in ambiguous genitalia, but testes and other sex characteristics may develop during puberty with the increase in hormones

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18
Q

What organ are sperm produced in?

A

Testes

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19
Q

What is the testes surrounded by?

A

Scrotum

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20
Q

What temperature is sperm production optimized at?

A

35 degrees

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21
Q

How does the scrotum help maintain the appropriate temperature in the testes?

A

Muscle tissues in the scrotum move testes closer to the body when they are cold and further from the body when hot

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22
Q

What is the site of sperm production?

A

Seminiferous tubules

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23
Q

What secretes testosterone in males?

A

Leydig cells

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24
Q

What are the support cells for developing sperm?

A

Sertoli cells

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25
Q

What is the purpose of Sertoli cells?

A

Protect and nurture developing cells and provide them with ATP and growth factor etc.

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26
Q

How are the various stages of developed sperm organized in the seminiferous tubules?

A

Least developed are against the walls of the tubules and as they develop they move closer to the center

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27
Q

How many sperm does the average male produce daily?

A

About 100-200 million

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28
Q

What is the creation of sperm called?

A

Spermatogenesis

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29
Q

What is the final product of spermatogenesis?

A

Spermatozoa

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30
Q

Other than DNA, what is contained in the head of the sperm?

A

Acrosome

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31
Q

What is the acrosome?

A

Vesicle containing enzymes that aid in penetrating the egg

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32
Q

What is contained in the nucleus of the sperm?

A

Haploid genetic material

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33
Q

What aids in the mobility of the sperm?

A

Tail

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34
Q

What is the site of sperm maturation?

A

Epididymis

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35
Q

What tube connects the epididymis to the urethra?

A

Vas deferens (ductus deferens)

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36
Q

What is the site of a vasectomy?

A

Vas deferens

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37
Q

What 2 body systems is the urethra involved in?

A

Excretory system and reproductive system

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38
Q

What are the accessory structures of the male reproductive system?

A

Epididymis, vas deferens, and urethra

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39
Q

What are the accessory glands of the male reproductive system?

A

Seminal vessicle, prostate gland, and bulbourethral (Cowper’s) gland

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40
Q

What type of fluid does the seminal vessicle produce and what is it for?

A

Fructose-rich fluid used by the sperm as an energy source

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41
Q

What type of fluid does the prostate gland produce and what is it for?

A

Alkaline (basic) fluid that decreases the acidity of the urethra and vagina

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42
Q

What type of fluid does the bulbourethral (Cowper’s) gland produce and what is it for?

A

Alkaline (basic) fluid that decreases the acidity of the urethra and lubricates the tip of the penis

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43
Q

Which gland releases its material prior to ejaculation?

A

Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) gland

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44
Q

What are the 3 stages of ejaculation?

A

Erection, emission, ejaculation

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45
Q

What system allows for erection of the penis?

A

Parasympathetic Nervous System

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46
Q

How does the release of nitrous oxides into the penile tissue help with erection?

A

Vasodilation of the arterioles (so more blood going in) and vasoconstriction of the dorsal vein (so less blood coming out)

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47
Q

What is emission in relation to the male reproductive system?

A

Rhythmic contraction of muscles in the ducts and accessory glands which moves sperm and secretion into the urethra

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48
Q

What is ejactulation in relation to the male reproductive system?

A

Contractions of the muscles at the base of the penis and forces semen out of the urethra

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49
Q

What is the bone that is contained in the penis of some mammals? Do humans have one?

A

Baculum, and no.

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50
Q

Which tropic hormone is released by the hypothalamus in males?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

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51
Q

What does GnRH act on and what is the result?

A

Anterior pituitary which releases LH and FSH

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52
Q

What is the role of LH in the male reproductive system?

A

Stimulates release of testosterone

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53
Q

What is the role of FSH in the male reproductive system?

A

Stimulates sperm production

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54
Q

What hormone is released by Sertoli cells?

A

Inihibin

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55
Q

What is the role of inhibin in the male reproductive system?

A

Exerts negative feedback on the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus

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56
Q

At what age is the average age of the onset of puberty in males?

A

About 10-11 years old

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57
Q

At what age is the average age of the completion of puberty in males?

A

About age 15-17

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58
Q

What changes during puberty are caused by an increase in FSH?

A

Volume of seminiferous tubules increases, leading to an increase in testicular size

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59
Q

As Leydig cells develop in males during puberty, what hormone level also increases?

A

Testosterone

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60
Q

Aside from secondary male sex characteristics, what changes does the increase in testosterone affect in males during puberty?

A

Maturation of prostate gland and seminal vesicles

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61
Q

What are some examples of secondary male sex characteristics?

A

Body hair, increase in muslce mass, deepening voice etc.

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62
Q

What is the male equivalent of menopause called?

A

Andropause

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63
Q

What is andropause characterized by?

A

A drop in testosterone over the age of 40

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64
Q

What do steroids mimic in the body?

A

Testosterone

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65
Q

What are the 2 types of steroids and what are their effects?

A

Androgenic - Masculinizing

Anabolic - Size growth

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66
Q

What are some of the side effects of steroids?

A

Premature bone maturation, increased impulsivity, increased aggression, mania, psychosis, damage to liver and kidneys, hypertension (high blood pressure), liver cancer (especially in men)

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67
Q

Who is most at risk for negative side effects of steroids?

A

Adolesence

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68
Q

What effects may steroids have on females?

A

Androgenic effects including lack of menstruation, breast shrinking, acne, change in body shape etc.

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69
Q

What do 1/3 men suffer when using steroids long term?

A

Extra androgens are converted to estrogen so they may see breast development, testicular shrinkage, and infertility

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70
Q

What is the site of egg production?

A

Ovaries

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71
Q

What are contained in ovarian follicles?

A

Egg cell and support cells

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72
Q

What are support cells in the ovaries that release estrogen called?

A

Granulosa cells

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73
Q

About how many follicles does the average female have at birth?

A

1-2 million

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74
Q

About how many follicles does the average female have by puberty?

A

About 300 thousand

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75
Q

What holds the ovary in place?

A

A ligament that connects it to the uterus

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76
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

Fallopian tubes (oviducts)

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77
Q

What is the site of “getting tubes tied” in females?

A

Fallopian tubes (oviducts)

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78
Q

What structure draws the egg into the fallopian tube?

A

The fimbriae of the tubes

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79
Q

What is the site of fetal development?

A

Uterus

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80
Q

Where is implantation supposed to occur?

A

Uterus

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81
Q

What are the 3 layers of the uterus?

A

Perimetrium, Myometrium, Endometrium

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82
Q

What is the main function of the myometrium?

A

Contains muscles used for labour

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83
Q

What is the main functions of the 2 layers of the endometrium?

A

One is shed during menstruation, one is highly vascularized and used to regenerate a new surface for each cycle

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84
Q

What hormone is released from the hypothalamus in the female reproductive system?

A

Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)

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85
Q

What is the function of GnRH in the female reproductive system?

A

Stimulate anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH

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86
Q

What does FSH and what is it’s primary function?

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone and it stimulates egg production

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87
Q

How many eggs are stimulated per cycle?

A

About 6-12

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88
Q

What happens to the follicles after a week of growing?

A

Dominant follicle is determined and continues to grow

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89
Q

What process do the non-dominant follicles go through once the dominant follicle is established?

A

Atresia, which is degeneration

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90
Q

What hormones do the follicles produce?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

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91
Q

What is the dominant hormone during the follicular phase?

A

Estrogen

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92
Q

During the initial part of the follicular phase, what is the effect of estrogen on the anterior pituitary and why is this important?

A

Inhibitory so that ovulation does not occur prematurely

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93
Q

When in the menstrual cycle does estrogen result in a positive feedback system and why is this important?

A

Day 12-14, results in a surge of LH, and subsequently ovulation

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94
Q

What does LH stand for?

A

Luteinizing Hormone

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95
Q

What is the main role of LH?

A

Stimulates ovulation

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96
Q

What is the effect of LH on the follicle after ovulation?

A

Converts it to a corpus luteum

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97
Q

What does the corpus luteum secrete?

A

Progesterone (primary) and estrogen

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98
Q

What prevents another follicle from developing after ovulation?

A

Estrogen and progesterone exerting negative feedback on anterior pituitary, inhibiting release of FSH and LH

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99
Q

If fertilization does not occur, what causes the corpus luteum to deteriorate?

A

Drop in LH

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100
Q

What happens when fertilization does not occur and the corpus luteum deteriorates?

A

Estrogen and progesterone level drops and menstruation begins

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101
Q

What is considered day 1 during the menstrual cycle?

A

The period beginning

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102
Q

When does menopause generally occur?

A

About 45-55 years old

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103
Q

What is the clinical indication that a patient is in menopause?

A

Absence of menstruation for a year and/or abnormally high levels of FSH

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104
Q

What is surgical menopause?

A

Menopause caused by a complete hysterectomy

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105
Q

What happens to the remaining follicles during menopause?

A

Atresia (degeneration)

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106
Q

Why does LH and FSH become abnormally high during menopause?

A

Fewer follicles responding to the hormone, so less estrogen is created, so the negative feedback system does not work

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107
Q

What are some symptoms of menopause?

A

Hot flashes, mood swings, insomnia, osteoporosis

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108
Q

Why is osteoporosis releated to menopause?

A

Estrogen plays a role with osteoblasts and osteoclasts (which build and break down bown respectively)

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109
Q

What hormones are produced by the placenta that is detected by pregnancy tests?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

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110
Q

What does HCG stand for?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

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111
Q

What is the function of HCG?

A

Support function of corpus luteum

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112
Q

What roles does progesterone play during pregnancy?

A

Establish placenta, stimulates growth of blood vessles, inhibits uterin contractions, and strengthens pelvic muscles to prepare for labour

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113
Q

What produces progesterone during pregnancy?

A

Placenta

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114
Q

What roles does estrogen play during pregnancy?

A

Helps uterus growth, maintains uterus lining, helps fetal organs develop, activate and regulate other hormones

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115
Q

What produces estrogen during pregnancy?

A

Placenta

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116
Q

Where is prolactin produced during pregnancy?

A

Pituitary

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117
Q

What hormone inhibits lactation during pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

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118
Q

What is the main hormone for milk production?

A

Prolactin

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119
Q

Other than milk production, what other roles does prolactin play?

A

Contributes to mammary gland enlargement and prepares mammary glands for milk production

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120
Q

Where is relaxin produced during pregnancy?

A

Placenta

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121
Q

What are the roles of relaxin during pregnancy?

A

Inhibits uterine contractions, increases blood flow to placenta and kidneys, during birth relaxes joint of pelvis and softens and lengthens the cervix

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122
Q

Where is oxytocin produced during pregnancy?

A

Pituitary gland

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123
Q

What is responsible for uterine contractions during a period?

A

Prostaglandins

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124
Q

What hormone may be used to induce labor?

A

Oxytocin

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125
Q

What digestive tract changes happen during pregnancy to the mother?

A

Constipation, heart burn, and morning sickness

126
Q

What respiratory system changes happen during pregnancy to the mother?

A

Uterus pushes on diaphragm, limiting range, and progesterone acts as a respiratory stimulate so breathing rate increases

127
Q

What blood volume changes happen during pregnancy to the mother?

A

Blood volume increases by 50% but red blood cells volume only increases by 25%; as fetus also begins to build red blood cells, it steals iron supplies from mother

128
Q

What cardiovasular system changes happen during pregnancy to the mother?

A

Heart rate increases, fluid builds up in legs and feet due to pressure on veins; pressure on inferior vena cava (like mother laying on her back and baby weight pressing on vena cava) can cause fainting

129
Q

What are some problems sperm may run into as they enter the female body as they attempt to get to the egg?

A

Female immune systems attack and kill sperm, 1/2 sperm go into the wrong tube, some sperm get trapped in cilia

130
Q

What layer of the egg contains molecules that cause the acrosome to discharge its enzymes?

A

Corona radiata

131
Q

What layer of the egg does the enzymes from the acrosome digest?

A

Zona pellucida

132
Q

What happens to the sperm that attaches to the egg membrane inside the zona pellucida?

A

sperm is drawn into the egg, sperm nucleus combines with the egg nucleus to form making diploid genetic material

133
Q

How does the zona pellucida prevent multiple sperm from fertilizing the egg?

A

Hardens once the first one makes it through preventing others from entering, any sperm in the zona pellucida at the time become trapped

134
Q

What helps sweep the fertilized egg to the uterus?

A

Cilia

135
Q

What contraceptive option helps prevent some STIs?

A

Condoms

136
Q

How do diaphragm contraceptives work?

A

Preventing sperm from entering the uterus

137
Q

What is the fertilized egg called?

A

Zygote

138
Q

What is the rapid division of the zygote referred to as?

A

Cleavage

139
Q

What is the zygote called once it has gone through multiple divisions and is now a bubble of tiny cells?

A

Morula

140
Q

Why does the zygote size remain unchanged as it goes through cleavage?

A

The zona pellucida is hard so the cells grow within this, no extra cytoplasm is created so the cells keep decreasing in size as they multiply

141
Q

How many days does it take for a zygote to reach the uterus?

A

3-5

142
Q

What is a zygote referred to as after about a week?

A

Blastocyst

143
Q

When does the zona pellucida disolve?

A

When the zygote reaches the blastocyst phase

144
Q

What does the inner cell mass of a blatocyst eventually form?

A

Embryo

145
Q

What is the outer layer of cells of a blastocyst called?

A

Trophoblast

146
Q

What will the trophoblast layer of a blastocyst develop into?

A

chorion

147
Q

How does the trophoblast help with implantation?

A

Secreting enzymes

148
Q

Once the zygote has gone through multiple divisions , what are the tiny cells contained within the zona pellucida called?

A

Blastomeres

149
Q

What is the formation of 3 germ layers called?

A

Gastrulation

150
Q

How long is a fertilized egg refered to as an embryo?

A

Until week 8

151
Q

What might the embryo be referred to as when it begins to form the 3 germ layers?

A

Gastrula

152
Q

After implantation, what does the inner cell mass flatten to form?

A

Embryonic disk

153
Q

What is the thickening that occurs near the head end of the bilaminar disk called?

A

Primitive Streak

154
Q

What is the depression created when the primitive streak expands into the primitive node called?

A

Primitive pit

155
Q

As the primitive pit moves from the head (cranial) end to the foot (caudal) end, what is created?

A

Primitive groove

156
Q

What is the process called when the primitive groove slips into the inside cells and displacing its cells inside?

A

Invagination

157
Q

What are the two extraembryonic (outside the embryonic) membranes created by the endoderm?

A

Yolk sac and allantois

158
Q

What will the yolk sac eventually become in humans

A

First site of blood vessels

159
Q

What will the allantois eventually become?

A

Part of the rudimentary gut

160
Q

What will the ectoderm eventually create?

A

epidermis and nervous tissue

161
Q

What is the third layer that forms between the two original layers of a gastrula called?

A

Mesoderm

162
Q

What will the mesoderm eventually create?

A

Internal organs

163
Q

What develops next to the ectoderm and will eventually form the amniotic sac?

A

Amnion

164
Q

What is the development of organs and organ systems from the germ layers in an embryo called?

A

Organogenesis

165
Q

What is the initiation of the neurological system called?

A

Neurulation

166
Q

What is the rod created when the mesoderm thickens?

A

Notochord

167
Q

What is formed when the ectoderm next to the notochord flattens and thickens?

A

Neural plate

168
Q

What is formed as the neural plate begins to fold and creates a cylindrical tube?

A

Neural tube

169
Q

What determines where the brain will go in regards to the neural tube?

A

The neural tube bulges at one end which will become the brain and the rest of the tube will become the spinal cord

170
Q

What supplement is essential in early pregnancy to ensure proper neurulation?

A

Folic acid

171
Q

What conditions can result from improper neurulation?

A

Spina bifida and anencephaly

172
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Neural tube defect in which the backbone does not form or close properly, exposing the spinal cord

173
Q

What is anencephaly?

A

Neural tube defect in which the brain and parts of the skull do not develop. It is a fatal condition, often resulting in miscarriage or death within hours of birth

174
Q

What medication was historically used to treat morning sickness that caused fetal joints to not develop correctly?

A

Thalidomide

175
Q

What condition can alcohol use during pregnancy cause?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

176
Q

What can smoking during pregnancy cause?

A

Low birth weights

177
Q

Why are some mothers told to continue smoking despite issues that it may cause?

A

The stress of quitting can cause risk to both the mother and child

178
Q

What allows for the transfer of nutrients and waste between the mother and fetus?

A

Placenta

179
Q

How is the mothers blood provided to the fetus?

A

Arterioles bring in oxygenated blood, flows through blood pools where the nutrients difuse across the fetal vessels, and then blood exits the pooling area through veinules and goes back to the mothers body

180
Q

How does the baby provide blood vessels into the mothers blood pooling area for nutrient exchange?

A

Blood vessels from the fetus extend into the chorionic villi

181
Q

What part of the gastrula forms into the umbilical cord?

A

Allantois

182
Q

What blood vessels are inside the umbilical cord and what type of blood are they carrying?

A

2 arteries - carrying deoxenated blood from baby to the mother
1 vein - carrying oxygenated blood from the mother to the baby

183
Q

What is contained in the amniotic sac?

A

Amniotic fluid

184
Q

What breaks during the early stage of labour?

A

Amniotic sac

185
Q

What are the highlights from the first month of pregnancy?

A

Fertilization and implantation occur, heart begins to beat, major organs begin to take shape

186
Q

What are the highlights from the second month of pregancy?

A

Limbs begin to form, brain waves are detected, baby begins kicking and swimming, organs are all in place, fingernails, eyelids, and fingerprints begin to form, nose is distinct

187
Q

What are the highlights from the third month of pregnancy?

A

Baby can hiccup, breathe amniotic fluid, urinate, all organ systems are functioning, baby can suck its thumb

188
Q

What are the highlights from the fourth month of pregnancy?

A

Adult taste buds exist, bone marrow beginning to form, baby weighs up to a 1/2 lb

189
Q

What are the highlights from the fifth and sixith months of pregnancy?

A

REM sleep occurs, baby practices breathing amniotic fluid, grasp umbilical cord when it feels it, increase in movement, kicking, and hiccups, oil and sweat glands are functioning

190
Q

What are the highlights from the last trimester of pregnancy?

A

Baby uses all 5 senses, skin thickens and fat layer builds, antibodies begin to build up

191
Q

What type of contractions occur throughout pregnancy?

A

Braxton Hicks contractions

192
Q

What happens in about the week before birth?

A

Head drops into the pelvic cavity and the baby stops growing

193
Q

What hormone stimulates the uterus to produce more oxytocin receptors?

A

Estrogen

194
Q

What hormone inhibits contractions preventing premature birth?

A

Progesterone

195
Q

What hormone is released in response to the baby’s head pushing down on the cervix?

A

Oxytocin

196
Q

What is the positive feedback loops that encourages uterus contractions during birth?

A

Uterus stretches, releasing oxytocin, causing uterine contractions, this causes:

  • Release of prostoglandins, which stimulate more uterine contractions (positive feedback)
  • Baby’s head pushes harder on the cervix stimulating more uterine contractions (positive feedback) and the posterior pituitary to release more oxytocin (postive feedback)
197
Q

What are the 3 stages of labour?

A

Dilation, expulsion, placental

198
Q

What occurs during the dilation stage of labour?

A

Uterine contractions and oxytocin cause the cervix to dilate to 10 cm
Amniotic sac ruptures
Mucus plug is lost

199
Q

How long is the dilation stage of labour?

A

About 2-20 hours

200
Q

How long is the expulsion stage of labour?

A

About 30 min to 2 hours

201
Q

What generally happens if the expulsion stage is still not over after 2 hours?

A

C-section is performed

202
Q

What occurs during the expulsion stage of labour?

A

Forceful contractions and abdominal compression push baby through the cervix into the birth canal
Head rotates so the baby is facing the back
Once the head is delievered, the baby turns to the side
One shoulder comes out, then the second and the rest of the baby slides out

203
Q

What occurs during the placental stage?

A

Placenta and umbilical cord are expelled from the uterus

204
Q

What is often referred to as afterbirth?

A

Placenta

205
Q

About how long after the expulsion stages does the placental stage begin?

A

About 10-15 minutes

206
Q

How does the body prevent hemorrhage after delivering the placenta?

A

Forceful uterine contractions help constrict blood vessels, preventing hemorrhage

207
Q

What is the first fluid secreted during lactation?

A

Colostrum

208
Q

What does colostrum contain and what does it lack?

A 
Contains lactose (sugar) and proteins
Low in fat
209
Q

How long after birth does breast milk generally come in?

A

A couple of days

210
Q

What does breast milk contain that can help the baby’s immune system in the first few months?

A

Immunoglobins

211
Q

How much of breast milk is fat content?

A

3.5%

212
Q

What is prolactin responsible for in regards to breast milk?

A

Production of breast milk in mammary glands

213
Q

What prevents the body from making too much milk?

A

Negative feedback for prolactin occurs when the breast is full

214
Q

What is oxytocin responsible for in regards to breast milk?

A

Ejection of breast milk

215
Q

Through what ducts does breast milk eject?

A

Alveolar ducts

216
Q

How long does a couple need to be trying for conception before they are considered infertile?

A

Under than 35 years old: more than 1 year

Over 35 years old: more that 6 months

217
Q

About how many couples are impacted by infertility?

A

1 in 6

218
Q

How many cases of infertility have no known cause?

A

About 20%

219
Q

What are some causes for female factor infertility?

A 
o	Age (decreases after 35)
o	Irregular menstrual cycles
o	STI’s (scarring can cause blockages)
o	Fibroids or polyps in the uterus
o	Endometriosis
o	Early menopause
o	Hormone imbalances
220
Q

What are some causes for male factor infertility?

A

o Poor sperm quality
o Low sperm count
o STI’s
o Hormonal imbalances

221
Q

What is egg stimulation or superovulation?

A

High levels of FSH are administered, maturing multiple follicles and when ovulation is triggered, it releases all the mature eggs

222
Q

What is an IUI?

A

Washed and concentrated sperm are placed directly in the uterus

223
Q

What type of issues can be bypassed with IUI?

A

Female antibodies in the cervical mucus, the acidity of the vagina, sperm that have motility issues now have less to travel

224
Q

What are the success rates of IUI with superovulation?

A

About 10-20%

225
Q

What does ICSI stand for?

A

Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection

226
Q

What does IUI stand for?

A

Intrauterine Insemination

227
Q

What is ICSI?

A

One sperm is injected into the egg

228
Q

When is ICSI very useful?

A

Male factor infertility, especially sperm malformation

229
Q

What does IVF stand for?

A

in Vitro Fertilization

230
Q

What are the basics of IVF?

A

Significant hormonal stimulation for many eggs, eggs are retrieved and fertilized in a lab and then placed back into the uterus after 3-5 days

231
Q

What is a procedure that can be used with IVF to increase fertilization rates?

A

ICSI

232
Q

If a family is using IVF and no corpus luteum exists, what hormone replacement might need to occur until the placenta takes over?

A

Progesterone and estrogen

233
Q

What can be used if a mother is unable to carry a pregnancy?

A

Surrogate

234
Q

What is the most common bacterial STI?

A

Chlamydia

235
Q

How is chlamydia transmitted?

A
  • Unprotected oral, vaginal, or anal sex with an infected partner
  • Penetration and ejaculation not required for transmission
  • Can be passed from mother to infant during birth
236
Q

What issues can be caused if a mother transfers chlamydia to her baby during birth?

A

Lung and/or eye infections

237
Q

What are the symptoms of women with chlamydia?

A 
Many are asymptomatic 
•	Vaginal discharge
•	Painful urination
•	Lower abdominal pain
•	Vaginal bleeding after intercourse or between periods
•	Pain during intercourse
•	Rarely eye or rectal pain
238
Q

What are the symptoms of men with chlamydia?

A 
Many are asymptomatic 
•	Clear, watery, or milky urethral discharge
•	Itchy urethra
•	Painful urination
•	Testicular pain
•	Rarely eye or rectal pain
239
Q

What are long term complications for women with chlamydia?

A
  • Infection spreading to uterus and fallopian tubes leading to pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Risk of ectopic pregnancy
  • Infertility
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Rashes, sores, joint pain
240
Q

What are long term complications for men with chlamydia?

A
  • Inflammation of testes, prostate, and scrotum
  • Rashes, sores, joint pain
  • Infertility in rare cases
241
Q

What is the treatment, if any, for chlamydia?

A
  • Can be treated with antibiotics

* Antibiotic resistant forms are beginning to appear

242
Q

What is the second most common bacterial STI?

A

Gonorrhea

243
Q

What other infection to those with gonorrhea also suffer from?

A

Chlamydia

244
Q

How is gonorrhea transmitted?

A
  • Unprotected oral, vaginal, or anal sex with an infected partner
  • Penetration and ejaculation not required for transmission
  • Can be passed from mother to infant during birth
245
Q

What type of infections can a baby develop if it contracts gonorrhea during birth?

A

Eye infections

246
Q

What are the symptoms of women with gonorrhea?

A 
Women are most often asymptomatic 
•	Increased vaginal discharge
•	Painful urination
•	Lower abdominal pain
•	Vaginal bleeding after intercourse or between periods
•	Pain during intercourse
•	Rectal pain, discharge, or itching
247
Q

What are the symptoms of men with gonorrhea?

A
  • Thick, yellowish-green discharge from penis
  • Painful urination
  • Testicular pain or swelling
  • Rectal pain, discharge, or itching
248
Q

What are the long term complications of women with gonorrhea?

A
  • Infection spreading to uterus and fallopian tubes leading to pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Risk of ectopic pregnancy
  • Infertility
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Systemic gonococcal infection
249
Q

What are the long term complications of men with gonorrhea?

A
  • Inflammation of testes
  • Rashes, sores, joint pain
  • Infertility in rare cases
  • Systemic gonococcal infection
250
Q

What is the treatment, if any, for gonorrhea?

A
  • Can be treated with antibiotics

* Antibiotic resistant forms are beginning to appear

251
Q

Which STI is often called the great imitator?

A

Syphilis

252
Q

How long is syphilis usually contagious for?

A

First year after contraction

253
Q

How is syphilis transmitted?

A
  • Unprotected oral, vaginal, or anal sex with an infected partner
  • Direct contact with syphilitic sores or rashes that contain bacteria
  • Rarely from sharing needles or receiving blood transfusions
  • Can be passed from mother to infant during birth
254
Q

What type of consequences exist if the baby contracts syphilis during birth from its mother?

A

Congenital syphilis causing birth defects and possibly fetal death

255
Q

What are the 4 stages of syphilis?

A

Primary, Secondary, Early Latent, Tertiary Syphilis

256
Q

When does primary syphilis occur and what are the symptoms?

A

• 3 days to 3 months after exposure
• Chancre develops
o Small painless sore
o Develops at site of transmission
o Heals on it’s own without treatment

257
Q

When does secondary syphilis occur and what are the symptoms?

A
  • 2 to 24 weeks after exposure
  • Feeling generally unwell
  • Rash most commonly on palms of hands or soles of feet
  • Patchy hair loss
  • Flat smooth warts in genital area but are not genital warts
258
Q

When does early latent syphilis occur and what are the symptoms?

A
  • First year after infection
  • Generally asymptomatic
  • Lesions from primary or secondary syphilis can reoccur and infection can be transmitted
259
Q

When does tertiary syphilis occur and what are the symptoms?

A
  • Develops if left untreated
  • Can cause damage to cardiovascular system, neurological system, other major organs, even death
  • This damage is not reversible in most cases
260
Q

What treatments, if any, exist for syphilis?

A
  • Can be treated with antibiotics
  • Antibiotic resistant forms are beginning to appear
  • Increased risk of contracting HIV, response to treatment must be monitored carefully in HIV patients to ensure effectiveness
261
Q

What virus causes the 2 types of herpes?

A

o HSV-1 associated with cold sores

o HSV-2 associated with anogenital herpes

262
Q

What are some things that may trigger a herpes recurrence?

A 
o	Menstrual cycle
o	Emotional stress
o	Illness (especially fever)
o	Sexual intercourse
o	Surgery
o	Tanning
o	Use of certain medications
263
Q

What are some of the various ways herpes can be transmitted?

A
  • Oral, vaginal, or anal sex with an infected partner
  • Oral sex from a partner with history of cold sores
  • Through asymptomatic shedding
  • Less commonly through fomite transmission (contaminated objects)
  • Can be passed from mother to infant during pregnancy or birth
264
Q

What treatments, if any, exist for herpes?

A
  • Antiviral medications may limit viral replication

* Your immune system mostly needs to fix this on its own

265
Q

What are the symptoms of herpes?

A
  • Some may be asymptomatic
  • Patient may feel tingling or burning sensation where virus entered the body or where there were previously lesions
  • During an outbreak, symptoms include painful sores (internal or external), inflammation and redness, fever, muscle pain, tender lymph nodes
266
Q

On average how long does it take for a herpes outbreak to resolve?

A

About 17 days for men and 23 days for women

267
Q

What is an STI that affects the liver?

A

Hepatitis B

268
Q

What happens to about 90% of people that contract hepatitis B?

A

Develop antibodies to fight the disease

269
Q

What happens to about 10% of people that contract hepatitis B?

A

Carry the infection and remain infectious for life

270
Q

Which STIs are there currently vaccines for?

A

Hepatitis B and HPV

271
Q

How is hepatitis transmitted?

A
  • Oral, vaginal, or anal sex with an infected partner
  • Through exposure to blood and other potentially infections materials (OPIM)
  • Occasionally contact with shared household items (i.e. toothbrushes or razors)
  • Can be passed from mother to infant during birth
272
Q

Roughly how many people with hepatitis B are asymptomatic?

A

Up to 50%

273
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatitis B?

A 
o	Tiredness
o	Nausea, vomiting, decreased appetite 
o	Rash
o	Joint pain
o	In rare cases jaundice
274
Q

What can be done for babies born to hepatitis B positive mothers?

A

Should receive an injection of antibodies immediately after birth followed by the vaccine

275
Q

What damage can chronic hepatitis B cause?

A

o Can lead to severe liver damage including cirrhosis and cancer
o Require liver function monitoring

276
Q

What treatments, if any, may be given to a person suffering chronic hepatitis B?

A

May benefit from anti-viral medication or interferon but there is no cure

277
Q

Which STI weakens the immune system of the infected individual?

A

HIV

278
Q

What is the fatal stage of an HIV infection?

A

AIDS

279
Q

What does HIV stand for?

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

280
Q

What does AIDS stand for?

A

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

281
Q

How long can it take for HIV antibodies to be detected in the blood?

A

Up to 3 months

282
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A
  • Unprotected oral, vaginal, or anal sex with an infected partner
  • Use of contaminated sex toys
  • Through exposure to blood and other potentially infections materials (OPIM)
  • Occasionally contact with shared household items (i.e. toothbrushes or razors) that have touched infected blood
  • Can be passed from mother to infant during pregnancy, birth, or breastfeeding
283
Q

Can HIV be transmitted via mosquitoes?

A

No

284
Q

Can HIV be transmitted via saliva, tears, sweat, urine or feces?

A

No unless blood is present

285
Q

Once the immune system is weakened by HIV, which can take years, what are the symptoms a person may develop?

A 
o	Frequent fever or sweats
o	Joint or muscle pain
o	Persistent skin rashes
o	Swollen glands
o	Sore throat
o	Fatigue or lack of energy 
o	Headaches
o	Rapid, unexpected weight loss 
o	Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
286
Q

What treatments, if any, exist for HIV?

A
  • No cure but antivirals may help

* Antiretrovirals can to stop the virus from replicating

287
Q

How many types of HPV can cause anogenital infections?

A

About 40

288
Q

What can low risk HPV types cause?

A

Anogenital warts and other benign lessions

289
Q

What can high risk HPV types cause?

A

Associate with cancer, mainly cervical

290
Q

How is HPV transmitted?

A
  • Oral, vaginal, or anal sex with an infected partner
  • Other sexual activity with intimate contact (rubbing, touching etc.)
  • Rarely transmission is passed to infant during delivery
291
Q

What are the symptoms of an HPV infection?

A

Low risk types often asymptomatic; anogenital warts develop within 1-8 months and usually resolve on thier own; other symptoms include itchiness, discomfort during intercourse, and bleeding with intercourse

292
Q

What are complications of HPV infections?

A
  • Genital wart recurrence is common even with treatment
  • Cancer of the cervix, vulvar, vaginal, anal, penile, and others
  • Obstruction of the urethra or vaginal opening
  • Depression
  • Sexual dysfunction in chronic cases
293
Q

What is the medical term for a vaginal yeast infection?

A

Candidiasis

294
Q

What are causes for overgrowth of yeast?

A

o Pregnancy
o Recent or current use of antibiotics and certain other prescriptions
o Sexual activity
o Poorly controlled diabetes
o Weakened immune system
o Genial moisture retention caused by tight-fit clothing

295
Q

What is a yeast infection of the head of the penis called?

A

Balanitis

296
Q

What are the symptoms of a yeast infection in women?

A
  • Vaginal itching
  • Swollen or red vulva and vagina
  • Thick, white, clumpy discharge resembling cottage cheese
  • Burning of external genitalia during urination
  • Pain with intercourse due to vaginal dryness and vulva irritation
297
Q

What are the symptoms of a yeast infection in men?

A
  • Itching
  • Red dots on the tip of the penis
  • Dry, peeling skin
  • Burning with urination occasionally
298
Q

What treatments, if any, exist for candidiasis?

A

Over the counter antifungal medications exist

299
Q

What are pubic lice?

A

Tiny crab-like insects that nest in the pubic hair, although can be found in chest, armpits, facial hair, eyebrows and eyelashes

300
Q

How is pubic lice transmitted?

A
  • Primarily during intimate sexual and non-sexual contact

* Can live for 1-2 days in bedding, towels, clothes etc. and can be a source of transmission

301
Q

What are the symptoms of pubic lice?

A
  • Pubic lice and nits are small and can be difficult to spot
  • Skin irritation and inflammation
  • Itchiness
  • Redness
  • Small blue spots on skin where lice have bitten
  • Louse feces (fine black particles) in undergarments
302
Q

What can be a complication of the scratching caused by pubic lice or scabies infestation?

A

Secondary infection

303
Q

What treatments and precautions should be taken to prevent further transmission of pubic lice?

A
  • Clothes, bedding, and other potentially contaminated items should be washed, dry cleaned, or bagged for a week; everything else should be vacuumed
  • Body will need to be washed with special soap
  • All sexual partners in the past month should be treated to prevent infection
304
Q

What are scabies?

A

Parasitic mites that burrow beneath the skin

305
Q

Where do scabies prefer to infect?

A

Warm areas like armpits, breasts, waists, penis, between the fingers and under the nails etc.

306
Q

How are scabies transmitted?

A
  • Through close contact, sexual or non-sexual

* Can live for 3 days on clothes, towels and bedding and can be sources of transmission

307
Q

What are the symptoms of scabies?

A
  • Intense itchiness, especially at nighttime

* Reddish rash

308
Q

What treatments and precautions should be taken to prevent further transmission of scabies?

A
  • Clothes, bedding, and other potentially contaminated items should be washed, dry cleaned, or bagged for a week; everything else should be vacuumed
  • All sexual partners in the past month should be treated to prevent infection
309
Q

Which STI is caused by a single cell organism?

A

Trichomoniasis

310
Q

What are the symptoms in women of trichomoniasis?

A
  • Only about half of women have symptoms
  • Off-white or yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharge
  • Sore or itchy vagina
  • Painful intercourse
  • Painful urination
311
Q

What are the symptoms in men of trichomoniasis?

A
  • Tend to be asymptomatic
  • Irritation or redness at urethral opening
  • Burning during urination
  • Burning during ejaculation
312
Q

What complications can trichomoniasis cause with pregnancy?

A

Increase risk of preterm labour

Low birth weight

Biology 30 (3 decks)

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