Reproductive Health SAQs and SBAs Flashcards
A 21-year-old nulliparous woman has been diagnosed as having a left sided Ectopic pregnancy. She is going to have a laparoscopic left salpingectomy.
a) You have been asked to obtain informed consent for the procedure. Please list four operative complications that you will have to talk to the patient about.
i. anaesthetic risk
ii. haemorrhage
iii. infection
iv. visceral/vascular injury
What is the number one cause of ectopic pregnancy in the UK?
chlamydial PID
The patient undergoes surgery for her ectopic pregnancy; the surgeon converts to an open procedure because of multiple adhesions. On the third postoperative day you are asked to see her because of increasing abdominal pain and abdominal distension.
She looks unwell, her temperature is 38.5oC, and her pulse is 124 bpm. What are your differential diagnoses?
i. Bowel injury
ii. Peritonitis
iii. Pelvic haematoma
Contraceptive advice for someone who has just had surgery for an ectopic pregnancy?
avoid IUCD
avoid progestogen only contraception
- A 30-year-old G3 P2 presents for a routine Antenatal Clinic visit at 22 weeks gestation. She is very well and the pregnancy has been progressing in a satisfactory fashion. Her last recorded pre-pregnancy blood pressure was 138/85 mm Hg. Today her BP is 88/50 mm Hg.
What is the relevant physiological adaptation mechanism?
Decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
A 42-year-old G1 P0 seeks your advice regarding antenatal screening and diagnosis. She is currently nine weeks pregnant. She would like to know whether or not her baby has Down’s syndrome, and would like a test at the earliest possible opportunity.
What is the most appropriate test?
Chorionic villous sampling
This patient wants to know whether or not her baby is affected, that means you need to offer her a diagnostic rather than a screening test. She wishes to have a test as soon as possible; a chorionic villous sample (CVS) can be taken after 10 weeks gestation, whereas an amniocentesis is offered from 15 weeks onwards. An earlier CVS carries a risk of limb reduction defects, whereas an amniocentesis performed before 15 weeks has a higher risk of miscarriage.
A 27-year-old nulliparous woman is undergoing investigations for infertility. Her doctor wishes to perform a blood test to confirm ovulation.
What is the most appropriate hormone to test?
progesterone
If ovulation occurs, the corpus luteum begins to secrete progesterone; a rise in plasma progesterone levels in the midluteal phase is therefore suggestive of an ovulatory cycle. In longer cycles the best timing for the test is one week before expected menstruation.
A 25 year old woman presents at 30 weeks gestation with a one week history of generalised pruritus without a rash. The itching is worse at night, particularly on her hands and feet.
What first line laboratory investigations should be requested?
LFT and Bile acids are the first line investigations.
Further investigations areperformed if LFT and/or bile acids are abnormal
A 33 year old primigravida is diagnosed with severe obstetric cholestasis at 36 weeks gestation. She is offered induction of labour at 37 weeks.
Which investigation should she be offered in the postnatal period?
postnatal LFT test
10 days after delivery.
A 30 year old woman is 16 weeks into her second pregnancy.In her last pregnancy she was diagnosed with Obstetric Cholestasis at 36 weeks gestation.
What is her risk of OC recurrence in this pregnancy?
50%
What is the increase in risk of developing VTE in pregnancy compared to the general population?
5 x greater risk
Does delivery increase risk of VTE?
vaginal birth itself does not but instrumental delivery and C sections do
A 39 year old woman develops left sided calf swelling and localised tenderness three days after a forceps delivery. Doppler Ultrasound confirms the diagnosis of DVT. She is commenced on appropriate treatment.
What additional advice should she be given?
In a future pregnancy, she should be started on thromboprophylaxis (LMWH as DOACs should be avoided in pregnancy)
What would be the most appropriate first line management for PPH due to atony after ABCDE approach?
Empty bladder, rub up contraction, commence Oxytocin infusion
A 24 year old primigravida is undergoing an emergency Caesarean section, but is bleeding excessively. She is managed with bi-manual compression, oxytocin, Ergometrine, and a Bakri Balloon is inserted before her abdomen is closed.
As the bleeding is still ongoing, further drug treatment is required.
Which of the following drugs is LEAST LIKELY to reduce the bleeding?
A. Carboprost
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Misoprostol
D. Recombinant factor VIII
E. Tranexamic acid
Mefenamic acid - no role in PPH mx
A 29 year old primigravida presents to the Maternity Assessment Unit at 33 weeks because she feels she has been leaking clear fluid. Fetal movements are reported to be normal.
On speculum examination the cervix appears to be dilated to around 4 cm, and liquor is seen to be pooling in the posterior fornix.
Which first line treatment should be offered as soon as possible?
Maternal corticosteroids for fetal lung maturation
A 22 year old primigravida is referred to the Antenatal clinic by her midwife, because of a symphysis fundal height (SFH) of 24 cm at 28 weeks gestation.
Fetal movements are reported to be normal.
She has no significant personal or family history. Her BMI is 18. Her BP is 122/74 mmHg, urinalysis is clear.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?
An ultrasound scan for fetal growth
Inpatient monitoring is unlikely to be of benefit unless there is a fetal concern identified on USS, such as abnormal umbilical artery Doppler or oligohydramnios.
Baseline investigations for mild hypertension and proteinuria in pregnancy?
FBC, U&E, LFT, Protein/creatinine ratio
A coagulation profile may be appropriate in moderate to severe hypertension
A 44 year old woman is referred to MAU having just had a fetal growth USS. The estimated fetal weight is on the 4th customised centile for gestational age. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant.
The ultrasound scan was arranged as part of her GROW Pathway, because she had a small baby in her last pregnancy.
What further basic information do you require before you can generate a management plan to discuss with a senior Obstetrician?
Maternal perception of fetal movements (? reduced), BP and urinalysis (? pre-eclampsia), fetal amniotic fluid volume, fetal Doppler (fetal wellbeing)
this will help you determine whether outpatient or inpatient care is required
How many antenatal visits with her midwife should women have over the course of pregnancy?
7 visits for low risk multiparous woman and 9 visits for nulliparous woman
A 23 year old woman is booking for antenatal care at 9 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy. She is fit and well and has no significant PMHx. Her midwife discusses her antenatal care plan and visits with her.
When will she be seen by an Obstetrician?
She will be referred for obstetric led care if there is any concern
For low risk healthy women with uncomplicated pregnancies, Midwife- and GP-led models of care should be offered
A 35 year old nulliparous woman attends the antenatal department at her local hospital at 12+2 weeks gestation for a combined screening test.
What are the components of the test she is being offered?
Serum B-HCG, PAPP-A, Nuchal translucency
A 40 year old primigravida chooses to have antenatal screening for Down’s syndrome. She is offered the combined test at 11+4 weeks gestation - the result suggests a Down’s syndrome risk of 1:100.
She is very concerned and wants to find out as soon as possible whether her baby actually does have Down’s syndrome.
What would be the most appropriate advice for this patient?
She should be offered chorionic villous sampling.
Amniocentesis is offered after 15 weeks of pregnancy as early amniocentesis is associated with higher complication rates. Given that she wishes to have a definitive answer as soon as possible, a CVS can be offered sooner (from 10 weeks gestation).
A woman is diagnosed with breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy. She had a previous uncomplicated vaginal delivery.On USS the placenta is not low and there are no concerns about fetal growth.
How should she be managed?
All low risk women with breech presentations should be offered ECV after 36 weeks. If the woman declines ECV or if ECV is not successful, she should be offered CS at 39 weeks.
Induction of labour is contraindicated for breech presentation.