Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology; McCance and Huether 8th addition > Reproductive > Flashcards

Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

Secondary breast development, which often represents the beginning of pubertal development

A

Thelarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

First appearance of pubic hair at puberty

A

Pubarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Premature pubarche is usually the consequence of an early increase in the

A

adrenal androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Complete precocious puberty refers to the

A

onset and progression of all pubertal features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mixed precocious puberty refers to

A

when children develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex (virilization of a girl or feminization of a boy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A syndrome when the patient is male genetically and their body produces testosterone. However their cells do not have a receptor for testosterone. As a result they have female external genitalia and female secondary sex characteristics

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Abnormal hariness

A

hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PMS and PMDD are specifically associated with which phase of the ovulatory cycle?

A

luteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Infections of the genital tract caused by exogenous pathogens are most often…

A

sexually transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Infections of the genital tract caused by endogenous pathogens are most often…

A

caused by microorganisms normally present in the vagina, bowel, or vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An acute inflammatory process caused by infection that involves any or all organs in the upper genital tract

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inflammation of the fallopian tubes

A

salpingitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

inflammation of the ovaries is called

A

oophoritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Irritation of the vagina that can be caused by a variety of microorganisms, irritants, or pathologies or by a disruption of the normal flora of the vagina

A

Vaginitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Purulent or mucopurulent discharge or endocervical bleeding or both induced by gently introducing a cotton swab into the cervix indicates which diagnosis?

A

Cervicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Caused by Trichomonas, Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, or Ureaplasma and results in the cervix becoming friable, bleeding easily during sexual intercourse or with pelvic examinations and pap smears.

A

Mucopurulent Cervicitis (MPC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A chronic pain and inflammation of the vulva or vestibule caused by contact dermatitis, or an autoimmune reaction.

A

Vulvodynia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An inflammation of one or both of the ducts that lead from the introitus (vaginal opening) to the greater vestibular glands. This type of cyst varies from 1 to 8 cm in diameter is located in the posterolateral portion of the vulva and may be reddened and painful, and pus may be visible.

A

Bartholinitis or Bartholin Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The descent of one or more of the following into the vaginal space: the vaginal wall, the uterus, or the apex of the vagina

A

Pelvic Organ Prolapse (POP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A descent of a portion of the posterior bladder wall and trigone into the vaginal canal is

A

cystocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The bulging of the rectum and posterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal

A

rectocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Herniation of the rectouterine pouch into the rectovaginal spetum

A

enterocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A removable device that when placed in the vagina, holds the uterus in position

A

pessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This disorder is caused by a transient condition in which the dominant follicle fails to rupture or one or more of the nondominant follicles fail to regress

A

Follicular cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What increases the chance that an ovarian cyst is malignant?

A

The more solid it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ovarian teratoma that contain elements of all three germ layers and is a growth that contains mature tissue including skin, hair, sebaceous and sweat glands, muscle fibers, cartilage, teeth, and bone

A

Dermoid Cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why should Dermoid cysts be carefully evaluated

A

They have malignant potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The twisting of the ovary on its ligaments pinching off blood supply to the ovary and causing extreme pain

A

Ovarian torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A benign mass of endometrial tissue covered by surface epithelium and contains a variable amount of glands, stroma, and blood vessels

A

Endometrial polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

This type of polyp are often penduculated and may be mistaken for endometrial hyperplasia

A

Hyperplastic polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Polyps that cause abnormal bleeding have twice…

A

the rate of malignancy of asymptomatic polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

These tumors are estrogen and progesterone sensitive and are found to have increased numbers of estrogen receptors. Due to a lack of blood supply this tumor is unable to support their growth may have necrosis causing pain

A

Leiomyomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The presence of endometrial tissue within the uterine myometrium is

A

Adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pain on intercourse

A

dyspareunia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pain on defecation

A

dyschezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cervical cancer is caused almost exclusively by

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The precancerous cell changes that lead to invasive cervical cancer

A

Cervical dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A more advanced form of precancerous cell changes (than cervical dysplasia)

A

Precancerous dysplasia or cervical carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

True or false most sexually active women will contract HPV, but most resolve. Additionally a woman with a single life partner can still develop an HPV infection.

A

True

40
Q

The replacement of some epithelial cells in the cervix by atypical neoplastic cells and is “staged”

A

Cervical dysplasia

41
Q

when cervical cancer consists of cancer invasion into adjacent tissues and metastisis

A

invasive carcinoma of the cervix

42
Q

A woman with vaginal bleeding, bloody discharge, vaginal discharge, vulvar pruritus, rectal or bladder symptoms, pain, or leg edema may be diagnosed with

A

vaginal cancer

43
Q

A woman who presents with a history of vulvar irritation and pruritis, urinary symptoms, hard ulcerated area of the vulva, large cauliflower lesions or lesions similar to those of chronic dermatitis most likely has

A

Vulvar cancer

44
Q

A patient that presents with vaginal bleeding caused by the disruption of the endometrial surface by neoplastic processes with late symptoms of weight loss and pain probably has

A

endometrial cancer

45
Q

This rare neoplasm arises from mesenchymal tissues of and near the uterus including myometrial smooth muscle, endometrial stroma, or adjacent connective tissue

A

Uterine sarcomas

46
Q

Which ovarian cancer is the most aggressive?

A

germ-cell

47
Q

Which cancer is most commonly diagnosed after metastasis has occurred and is therefore called the “silent killer”?

A

Ovarian cancer

48
Q

The persistent and sometimes excessive secretion of a milky fluid from the breasts of a man or a woman who is not pregnant or nursing

A

galactorrhea

49
Q

True or false galactorrhea (inappropriate lactation) is associated with breast cancer?

A

false

50
Q

Hormone imbalances caused by hypothalamic/pituitary disturbances, pituitary tumors, neurologic damage, drugs, estrogen, manipulation of the nipples, hyerprolactinemia, and oral contraceptives are all causative factors for

A

galactorrhea

51
Q

Unilateral, spontaneous, serous or serosanguineous discharge form a single duct usually is caused by an

A

intraductal papilloma

52
Q

Bloody discharge from the nipples suggets

A

cancer

53
Q

bilateral sticky multicolored discharge from multiple nipple ducts is often caused by

A

ductal ectasia

54
Q

Purluent discharge from the nipples indicates a

A

subareolar abcess

55
Q

A range of noncancerous changes in the breast of different components of the breast (epithelial, stromal, adipocytes, or vascular)

A

Benign breast disease

56
Q

Fluid filled sacs that are the most common nonproliferative breast lesion

A

simple cyst

57
Q

An increase in ductal epithelial cells that has apocrine changes or an eosinophilic cytoplasm (type of nonproliferative breast lesion)

A

papillary apocrine

58
Q

An increase in the number of epithelial cells within a duct that is more than two, but not more than four, cells in depth (type of nonproliferative breast lesion)

A

Mild hyperplasia of the usual type

59
Q

This type of proliferative breast lesion without atypia is a proliferating epithelial cell that fill and distend the ducts and lobules. They retain features of benign cells, but the cells can vary in size and shape.

A

usual ductual hyperplasia

60
Q

This type of proliferative breast lesion without atypia occurs as solitary or multiple lesions

A

intraductal papillomas

61
Q

This type of proliferative breast lesion without atypia are monotonous array of papillary cells that grow from the wall of a cyst into the lumen of the duct

A

solitary papillomas

62
Q

This type of proliferative breast lesion without atypia may present as breast masses, has a minimum of five papillomas within a localized segment of breast tissue.

A

Diffuse papillomatosis

63
Q

This type of proliferative breast lesion without atypia is a lobular lesion with increased fibrous tissue and scattered glandular cells. calcification is commonly present within the lumens.

A

Sclerosing adenosis

64
Q

This type of proliferative breast lesion without atypia refers to an irregular, radial proliferation of ductlike small tubules entrapped in a densely fibrotic stroma

A

Radial scar (RS)

65
Q

This type of proliferative breast lesion without atypia is a benign solid lump or mass composed of both stromal and glandular tissue.

A

Simple fibroadenomas

66
Q

this type of breast cancer is detected almost exclusively by mammography

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

67
Q

The mammary gland produces and delivers copious amounts of milk by forming a rootlike network of branched ducts from a rudimentary epithelial bud. Occurs during adolsecence

A

Branching morphogenesis

68
Q

When an aging breast regress in the number and size of acini per lobule and replace the intralobular stroma with denser collagen of connective tissue the process is called

A

lobular involution

69
Q

Dormant cells are sometimes called

A

minimal residual disease MRD

70
Q

Why are dormant cells in cancer so difficult to kill?

A

They do not proliferate and so cannot be targeted by most cancer therapy.

71
Q

Carcinoma cells may promote the growth of lymphatic vessels through the process of

A

lymphangiogenesis

72
Q

A heterogeneous group of proliferative lesions that is limited to breast ducts and lobules without invasion of the basement membrane

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

73
Q

This originates from the terminal duct lobular unit of the breast, has a uniform appearance, and is found as an incidental lesion biopsy and NOT from a mammography.

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ LCIS

74
Q

Premature pubarche in boys is usually the consequence of an early in crase in the

A

adrenal androgens

75
Q

Children with precocious puberty also have a tendency toward

A

obesity

76
Q

When the foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans of the penis

A

phimosis

77
Q

the foreskin of the penis is retracted and cannot be moved forward

A

paraphimosis

78
Q

There is a higher incidence of penile carcionma in

A

uncircumcised males and HPV infection

79
Q

A flexion deformity of the fingers or toes caused by shortening or fibrosis of the palmar of plantar fascia that is associated with peyronie disease

A

Dupuytren

80
Q

An uncommon condition of prolonged penile erection and is defined as a persistent and painful erection lasting longer than 4 hours without stimulation

A

priapism

81
Q

An inflammation of the glans penis associated with poor hygiene and phimosis. It involves the accumulation under the foreskin of glandular secretion (smegma), sloughed epithelial cells

A

Balanitis

82
Q

Men with phimosis and those with AIDS have a much higher risk of this type of cancer

A

penile cancer

83
Q

An abnormal dilation of a vein within the spermatic cord and is classically described as a “bag of worms” most occur on the left side. The cause of this male disorder is incompetent or congenitally absent valves in the spermatic veins.

A

Variocele

84
Q

A collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis and is the most common cause of scrotal swelling

A

hydrocele

85
Q

A benign cystic collection of fluid of the epididymis located between the head of the epdidymis and the testis. These manifest as discrete firm freely mobile masses distinct from the testes that may be transilluminated.

A

spermatoceles

86
Q

a testicle has strayed from the normal pathway of descent

A

ectopic testis

87
Q

A rotation of the testis which twists blood vessels in the spermatic cord causing acute scrotum, stopping blood flow to the testis. It is not relieved by scrotal elevation, rest or scrotal support

A

torsion of the testes

88
Q

What is Prehn sign

A

testicular pain not relieved by scrotal elevation

89
Q

Torsion of the testis is a…

A

surgical emergency

90
Q

An acute infection of the testes and is uncommon except as a complication of systemic infection or as an extension of an associated epididymitis

A

Orchitis

91
Q

This occurs in middle-age men that seems to be an autoimmune disease that triggers a granulomatous response to spermatozoa

A

granulomatous orchitis

92
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of orchitis?

A

mumps

93
Q

The most common and least aggressive of testicular cancers

A

seminoma

94
Q

Name the three nonseminomas

A

embryonal carcinomas, tertomas, and choriocarcinomas

95
Q

An inflammation of the epididymis, generally occurs in sexually active young males and is usually caused by STDs

A

Epididymitis

96
Q

The biologic aggressiveness of the prostatic neoplasms appears to be related to the degree of

A

differentiation

97
Q

A precursor lesion to prostate cancer

A

prostate epithelial neoplasia PIN

Pathophysiology; McCance and Huether 8th addition (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions